Anatomy & Physiology - Final Exam (respiratory, Renal, & Reproduction)

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 Anatomy & Physiology - Final Exam (respiratory, Renal, & Reproduction)
Bob Beregowitz

  
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  • 1. 
    Boyle's law states that gas volume is
    • A. 

      Directly proportional to pressure.

    • B. 

      Directly proportional to temperature.

    • C. 

      Inversely proportional to pressure.

    • D. 

      Inversely proportional to temperature.

    • E. 

      Both directly proportional to pressure and directly proportional to temperature.


  • 2. 
    Pulmonary ventilation refers to the
    • A. 

      Movement of air into and out of the lungs.

    • B. 

      Movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood.

    • C. 

      Movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the interstitial space.

    • D. 

      Movement of dissolved gases from the interstitial space to the cells.

    • E. 

      Utilization of oxygen.


  • 3. 
    The function of pulmonary ventilation is to
    • A. 

      Remove carbon dioxide from the blood.

    • B. 

      Supply oxygen to the blood.

    • C. 

      Maintain adequate alveolar ventilation.

    • D. 

      Remove air from dead air space.

    • E. 

      Prevent gas exchange in the bronchioles.


  • 4. 
    The unit of measurement for pressure preferred by many respiratory therapists is
    • A. 

      Mm Hg.

    • B. 

      Torr.

    • C. 

      Cm H2O.

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 5. 
    Which of the following is greater?
    • A. 

      The partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air

    • B. 

      The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli


  • 6. 
    Boyle's Law of Gases states that
    • A. 

      The pressure and volume of a gas are equal.

    • B. 

      As the temperature goes up, the pressure goes up.

    • C. 

      The total gas pressure is equal to the sum of the partial pressures.

    • D. 

      The concentration of dissolved gas is proportional to its partial pressure.

    • E. 

      If the volume goes up, the pressure goes down.


  • 7. 

    Use Figure 20-2 to answer the following questions: Which muscle(s) produce(s) the movement labeled "1"?
    • A. 

      Rectus abdominis

    • B. 

      Internal intercostals

    • C. 

      External intercostals

    • D. 

      Diaphragm

    • E. 

      Both rectus abdominis and external intercostals


  • 8. 

    Use Figure 20-2 to answer the following questions: What is the relationship between the pressures at label "3
    • A. 

      P outside = P inside

    • B. 

      P outside > P inside

    • C. 

      P outside < P inside

    • D. 

      P outside + P inside

    • E. 

      P outside - P inside


  • 9. 

    Use Figure 20-2 to answer the following questions: What pressure will be present in the space labeled "5"?
    • A. 

      Alveolar pressure

    • B. 

      Intrapulmonary pressure

    • C. 

      Subalveolar pressure

    • D. 

      Subatmospheric pressure

    • E. 

      Atmospheric pressure


  • 10. 

    Use Figure 20-2 to answer the following questions: What is the relationship between the pressures at label "8"?
    • A. 

      P outside = P inside

    • B. 

      P outside > P inside

    • C. 

      P outside < P inside

    • D. 

      P outside + P inside

    • E. 

      P outside - P inside


  • 11. 

    Use Figure 20-2 to answer the following questions: Which muscle(s) contract(s) to cause the movement indicated by the arrows labeled "6" and "7"?
    • A. 

      Rectus abdominis

    • B. 

      Internal intercostals

    • C. 

      External intercostals

    • D. 

      Diaphragm

    • E. 

      Both rectus abdominis and internal intercostals


  • 12. 
    Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is
    • A. 

      Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is

    • B. 

      Greater than the pressure in the atmosphere.

    • C. 

      Equal to the pressure in the atmosphere.

    • D. 

      Greater than intraalveolar pressure.

    • E. 

      Less than intrapulmonic pressure.


  • 13. 
    When there is no air movement, the relationship between the intrapulmonary and atmospheric pressure is that
    • A. 

      They are equal.

    • B. 

      Intrapulmonary pressure is greater than atmospheric.

    • C. 

      Atmospheric pressure is less than intrapulmonary.

    • D. 

      Atmospheric pressure is more than intrapulmonary.

    • E. 

      Intrapulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric.


  • 14. 
    Which of the following muscles might be recruited to increase inspired volume?
    • A. 

      Sternocleidomastoid

    • B. 

      Pectoralis minor

    • C. 

      Scalenes

    • D. 

      Serratus anterior

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 15. 
    Expiratory movements are produced by contraction of the ________ muscle(s).
    • A. 

      Scalene

    • B. 

      Diaphragm

    • C. 

      Internal intercostal

    • D. 

      External intercostal

    • E. 

      Serratus anterior


  • 16. 
    When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract,
    • A. 

      The volume of the thorax increases.

    • B. 

      The volume of the thorax decreases.

    • C. 

      The volume of the lungs decreases.

    • D. 

      The lungs shrink.

    • E. 

      Expiration occurs.


  • 17. 
    Which of these descriptions best matches the term external intercostal?
    • A. 

      Accessory muscle of expiration

    • B. 

      Accessory muscle of inspiration

    • C. 

      Primary muscle of inspiration

    • D. 

      Contraction increases airway resistance

    • E. 

      Affects lung compliance


  • 18. 
    ________ is the amount of air that moves into the respiratory system during a single respiratory cycle under resting conditions.
    • A. 

      Residual volume

    • B. 

      Expiratory reserve volume

    • C. 

      Inspiratory reserve volume

    • D. 

      Tidal volume

    • E. 

      Inspiratory capacity


  • 19. 
    ________ is the amount of air that you can inhale above the resting tidal volume.
    • A. 

      Residual inhaled volume

    • B. 

      Expiratory reserve volume

    • C. 

      Inspiratory reserve volume

    • D. 

      Enhanced tidal volume

    • E. 

      Inspiratory capacity


  • 20. 
    In quiet breathing,
    • A. 

      Inspiration and expiration involve muscular contractions.

    • B. 

      Inspiration is passive and expiration involves muscular contractions.

    • C. 

      Inspiration involves muscular contractions and expiration is passive.

    • D. 

      Inspiration and expiration are both passive.

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 21. 
    If a patient being tested inhales as deeply as possible and then exhales as much as possible, the volume of air expelled would be the patient's
    • A. 

      Tidal volume.

    • B. 

      Inspiratory reserve volume

    • C. 

      Expiratory reserve volume

    • D. 

      Reserve volume.

    • E. 

      Vital capacity.


  • 22. 
    Alveolar ventilation refers to the
    • A. 

      Movement of air into and out of the lungs.

    • B. 

      Amount of air reaching the alveoli each minute.

    • C. 

      Movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood.

    • D. 

      Movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the alveoli.

    • E. 

      Utilization of oxygen by alveolar cells to support metabolism.


  • 23. 
    Increasing the alveolar ventilation rate will
    • A. 

      Decrease the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli.

    • B. 

      Decrease the rate of oxygen diffusion from the alveoli to the blood.

    • C. 

      Increase the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli.

    • D. 

      Decrease the rate of carbon dioxide diffusion from the blood to the alveoli.

    • E. 

      Hardly affect either the partial pressure or diffusion of gases.


  • 24. 
    ________ equals the respiratory rate × (tidal volume - anatomic dead space).
    • A. 

      Vital capacity

    • B. 

      Respiratory minute volume

    • C. 

      Pulmonary ventilation rate

    • D. 

      Alveolar ventilation rate

    • E. 

      External respiration rate


  • 25. 
    Which of the following can be calculated if the tidal volume and respiratory rate are known?
    • A. 

      Respiratory minute volume

    • B. 

      Inspiratory reserve volume

    • C. 

      Expiratory reserve volume

    • D. 

      Anatomical dead space

    • E. 

      Forced vital capacity


  • 26. 
    Henry's law states that
    • A. 

      Gas volume and temperature are directly proportional.

    • B. 

      Gas volume and pressure are inversely proportional.

    • C. 

      The volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the partial pressure of that gas.

    • D. 

      In a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture.

    • E. 

      Gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume.


  • 27. 
    Dalton's law states that
    • A. 

      Gas volume and temperature are directly proportional.

    • B. 

      Gas volume and pressure are inversely proportional.

    • C. 

      The volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the solubility of the gas and the gas pressure.

    • D. 

      In a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture.

    • E. 

      Gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume.


  • 28. 
    The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood is approximately
    • A. 

      40 mm Hg.

    • B. 

      45 mm Hg.

    • C. 

      50 mm Hg.

    • D. 

      70 mm Hg.

    • E. 

      95 mm Hg.


  • 29. 
    The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in venous blood is approximately
    • A. 

      40 mm Hg.

    • B. 

      45 mm Hg.

    • C. 

      50 mm Hg.

    • D. 

      70 mm Hg.

    • E. 

      100 mm Hg.


  • 30. 
    The partial pressure of oxygen in the interstitial space of peripheral tissues is approximately
    • A. 

      40 mm Hg.

    • B. 

      45 mm Hg.

    • C. 

      50 mm Hg.

    • D. 

      70 mm Hg.

    • E. 

      100 mm Hg.


  • 31. 
    The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the interstitial space of peripheral tissues is approximately
    • A. 

      35 mm Hg.

    • B. 

      45 mm Hg.

    • C. 

      55 mm Hg.

    • D. 

      70 mm Hg.

    • E. 

      100 mm Hg.


  • 32. 
    The process by which dissolved gases are exchanged between the blood and interstitial fluids is
    • A. 

      Pulmonary ventilation.

    • B. 

      External respiration.

    • C. 

      Internal respiration.

    • D. 

      Cellular respiration.

    • E. 

      Breathing.


  • 33. 
    Which of the following is greatest?
    • A. 

      The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in venous blood

    • B. 

      The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in alveolar air

    • C. 

      The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in expired air

    • D. 

      The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in inspired air

    • E. 

      The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood


  • 34. 
    Each of the following factors affects the rate of external respiration, except the
    • A. 

      PO2 of the alveoli.

    • B. 

      PCO2 of the blood.

    • C. 

      Thickness of the respiratory membrane.

    • D. 

      Diameter of an alveolus.

    • E. 

      Solubility of oxygen in plasma.


  • 35. 
    External respiration involves the
    • A. 

      Movement of air into and out of the lungs.

    • B. 

      Diffusion of gases between the alveoli and the circulating blood.

    • C. 

      Exchange of dissolved gases between the blood and the interstitial fluid.

    • D. 

      Binding of oxygen by hemoglobin.

    • E. 

      Utilization of oxygen by tissues to support metabolism.


  • 36. 
    Carbon dioxide is more soluble in water than oxygen. To get the same amount of oxygen to dissolve in plasma as carbon dioxide, you would have to
    • A. 

      Increase the temperature of the plasma.

    • B. 

      Increase the partial pressure of oxygen.

    • C. 

      Decrease the partial pressure of carbon dioxide.

    • D. 

      Increase the rate of plasma flow through the lungs.

    • E. 

      Either increase the partial pressure of oxygen or decrease the partial pressure of carbon dioxide.


  • 37. 
    At a PO2 of 70 mm Hg and normal temperature and pH, hemoglobin is ________ percent saturated with oxygen.
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      25

    • C. 

      50

    • D. 

      75

    • E. 

      More than 90


  • 38. 
    Most of the oxygen transported by the blood is
    • A. 

      Dissolved in plasma.

    • B. 

      Bound to hemoglobin.

    • C. 

      In ionic form as solute in the plasma.

    • D. 

      Bound to the same protein as carbon dioxide.

    • E. 

      Carried by white blood cells.


  • 39. 
    Each 100 ml of blood leaving the alveolar capillaries carries away roughly ________ ml of oxygen.
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      20

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      50

    • E. 

      75


  • 40. 
    Under quiet conditions, blood returning to the heart retains about ________ of its oxygen content when it leaves the lungs.
    • A. 

      25 percent

    • B. 

      50 percent

    • C. 

      75 percent

    • D. 

      90 percent

    • E. 

      100 percent


  • 41. 
    Which of the following would be greater?
    • A. 

      The percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the pH is 7.6

    • B. 

      The percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the pH is 7.2

    • C. 

      Neither is greater.


  • 42. 
    Which of the following would be greater?
    • A. 

      Hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is high

    • B. 

      Hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is low

    • C. 

      Neither is greater.


  • 43. 
    Low pH alters hemoglobin structure so that oxygen binds less strongly to hemoglobin at low PO2. This increases the effectiveness of
    • A. 

      External respiration.

    • B. 

      Internal respiration.

    • C. 

      Carbon dioxide transport.

    • D. 

      Hemoglobin synthesis.

    • E. 

      Acid-base balance.


  • 44. 
    Which of the following factors would increase the amount of oxygen discharged by hemoglobin to peripheral tissues?
    • A. 

      Decreased temperature

    • B. 

      Decreased pH

    • C. 

      Increased tissue PO2

    • D. 

      Decreased amounts of DPG

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 45. 
    For maximum loading of hemoglobin with oxygen at the lungs, the
    • A. 

      PCO2 should be high.

    • B. 

      PH should be slightly acidic.

    • C. 

      PO2 should be about 70 mm Hg.

    • D. 

      BPG levels in the red blood cells should be high.

    • E. 

      PCO2 should be low.


  • 46. 
    Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is transported as
    • A. 

      Solute dissolved in the plasma.

    • B. 

      Carbaminohemoglobin.

    • C. 

      Bicarbonate ions.

    • D. 

      Solute dissolved in the cytoplasm of red blood cells.

    • E. 

      Carbonic acid.


  • 47. 
    Carbonic anhydrase
    • A. 

      Is in RBCs.

    • B. 

      Is an enzyme.

    • C. 

      Can increase the amount of bicarbonate ion in plasma.

    • D. 

      Can convert carbon dioxide into carbonic acid.

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 48. 
    Which statement about the chloride shift is false?
    • A. 

      Involves a movement of chloride ion into RBCs

    • B. 

      Depends on the chloride-bicarbonate counter-transporter

    • C. 

      Involves a movement of bicarbonate ions into the plasma

    • D. 

      Is driven by a rise in PCO2

    • E. 

      Causes RBCs to swell


  • 49. 
    The condition resulting from inadequate production of surfactant and the resultant collapse of alveoli is
    • A. 

      Respiratory distress syndrome.

    • B. 

      COPD.

    • C. 

      Anoxia.

    • D. 

      Pulmonary embolism.

    • E. 

      Pneumothorax.


  • 50. 
    Asthma is
    • A. 

      A collapsed lung.

    • B. 

      An acute condition resulting from unusually sensitive, irritated conducting airways.

    • C. 

      An obstructive tumor.

    • D. 

      Characterized by fluid buildup in the alveoli.

    • E. 

      Caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.


  • 51. 
    The obstructive lung disease in which elastic fibers are lost, leading to collapse of alveoli and bronchioles, is called
    • A. 

      Asthma.

    • B. 

      Bronchitis.

    • C. 

      Emphysema.

    • D. 

      Tuberculosis.

    • E. 

      Pneumonia.


  • 52. 
    A patient with a connective tissue disease experiences increased pulmonary vascular resistance. Over a period of time you would expect to observe v
    • A. 

      Increased cardiac output from the right ventricle.

    • B. 

      Increased cardiac output from the left ventricle.

    • C. 

      Increased thickness of the right ventricular wall.

    • D. 

      Distension of the pulmonary veins from the right lung.

    • E. 

      No appreciable changes in heart structure or function.


  • 53. 
    In emphysema, which of these occur?
    • A. 

      Alveoli collapse

    • B. 

      Compliance increases

    • C. 

      Elevated PCO2 in the blood

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 54. 
    The normal rate and depth of breathing is established by the ________ center.
    • A. 

      Ventral respiratory group (VRG)

    • B. 

      Pneumotaxic

    • C. 

      Apneustic

    • D. 

      Expiratory

    • E. 

      Both apneustic and expiratory


  • 55. 
    Prolonged deep inspirations can result from stimulating the ________ center.
    • A. 

      Apneustic

    • B. 

      Pneumotaxic

    • C. 

      Expiratory

    • D. 

      Baroreceptor

    • E. 

      Chemoreceptor


  • 56. 
    The pneumotaxic center of the pons
    • A. 

      Sets the at-rest respiratory pattern

    • B. 

      Prolongs inspiration.

    • C. 

      Modifies the rate and depth of breathing.

    • D. 

      Suppresses the expiratory center in the medulla.

    • E. 

      Both prolongs inspiration and modifies the rate and depth of breathing.


  • 57. 
    Higher brain centers that alter the activity of the respiratory centers include all of the following, except
    • A. 

      Cortical association areas.

    • B. 

      The precentral motor gyrus.

    • C. 

      The limbic system.

    • D. 

      The hypothalamus.

    • E. 

      Broca's center.


  • 58. 
    The apneustic centers of the pons
    • A. 

      Inhibit the pneumotaxic center.

    • B. 

      Provide stimulation to the DRG to promote inhalation.

    • C. 

      Monitor blood gas levels.

    • D. 

      Alter chemoreceptor sensitivity.

    • E. 

      Generate the gasp reflex.


  • 59. 
    Stimulation of the apneustic center would result in
    • A. 

      Increased respiratory rate.

    • B. 

      More intense inhalation

    • C. 

      A shorter respiratory cycle.

    • D. 

      Less activity in the DRG center.

    • E. 

      Decreased vital capacity.


  • 60. 
    If the dorsal respiratory group of neurons in the medulla oblongata were destroyed bilaterally,
    • A. 

      A person would stop breathing.

    • B. 

      Pulmonary ventilation would increase markedly

    • C. 

      The respiratory minute volume would increase.

    • D. 

      Tidal volumes would increase.

    • E. 

      Alveolar ventilation would increase.


  • 61. 
    The pneumotaxic center
    • A. 

      Is in the pons.

    • B. 

      Excites the apneustic center.

    • C. 

      Inhibits the apneustic center.

    • D. 

      Both is in the pons and excites the apneustic center.

    • E. 

      Both is in the pons and inhibits the apneustic center.


  • 62. 
    Pneumotaxic centers in the pons
    • A. 

      Inhibit the apneustic centers.

    • B. 

      Promote passive or active exhalation.

    • C. 

      Receive input from the hypothalamus and cerebrum.

    • D. 

      Modify respiratory rate and depth.

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 63. 
    The most important chemical regulator of respiration is
    • A. 

      Oxygen.

    • B. 

      Carbon dioxide.

    • C. 

      Bicarbonate ion.

    • D. 

      Sodium ion.

    • E. 

      Hemoglobin.


  • 64. 
    A 10 percent increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the blood will
    • A. 

      Decrease the rate of breathing.

    • B. 

      Increase the rate of breathing.

    • C. 

      Decrease pulmonary ventilation

    • D. 

      Decrease the alveolar ventilation rate.

    • E. 

      Decrease the vital capacity.


  • 65. 
    Blocking afferent action potentials from the chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies would interfere with the brain's ability to regulate breathing in response to
    • A. 

      Changes in PCO2.

    • B. 

      Changes in PO2.

    • C. 

      Changes in pH.

    • D. 

      Changes in blood pressure.


  • 66. 
    The term hypercapnia refers to
    • A. 

      The cessation of breathing.

    • B. 

      Elevated PCO2.

    • C. 

      Elevated PO2.

    • D. 

      An increase in pH.

    • E. 

      Labored breathing.


  • 67. 
    The inflation reflex
    • A. 

      Functions to increase ventilation with changes in blood pressure.

    • B. 

      Alters pulmonary ventilation when the PO2 changes.

    • C. 

      Alters pulmonary ventilation when the PCO2 changes.

    • D. 

      Protects the lungs from damage due to over-inflation.

    • E. 

      Is an important aspect of normal, quiet breathing.


  • 68. 
    All of the following provide chemoreceptor input to the respiratory centers of the medulla oblongata, except the
    • A. 

      Olfactory epithelium.

    • B. 

      Medullary chemoreceptors.

    • C. 

      Aortic body.

    • D. 

      Carotid body.

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 69. 
    Which of these age-based changes is false?
    • A. 

      The lungs lose elastic tissue.

    • B. 

      The lung's compliance changes.

    • C. 

      Vital capacity increases.

    • D. 

      Respiratory muscles weaken.

    • E. 

      Costal cartilages become more flexible.


  • 70. 
    The renal sinus is
    • A. 

      The innermost layer of kidney tissue.

    • B. 

      Part of a renal pyramid.

    • C. 

      An internal cavity lined by the fibrous capsule.

    • D. 

      A large branch of the renal pelvis.

    • E. 

      A renal corpuscle.


  • 71. 
    The outermost layer of the kidney is the
    • A. 

      Renal cortex.

    • B. 

      Renal medulla.

    • C. 

      Major calyx.

    • D. 

      Fibrous capsule.

    • E. 

      Renal pelvis.


  • 72. 
    The cavity of the kidney that receives urine from the calyces is called the
    • A. 

      Renal papilla.

    • B. 

      Renal pelvis.

    • C. 

      Renal medulla.

    • D. 

      Renal cortex.

    • E. 

      Renal sinus.


  • 73. 
    Triangular or conical structures located in the renal medulla are called
    • A. 

      Pyramids.

    • B. 

      Renal columns.

    • C. 

      Renal pelvises.

    • D. 

      Nephrons.

    • E. 

      Calyces.


  • 74. 
    Renal columns are
    • A. 

      Internal cavities lined by the fibrous capsule.

    • B. 

      Expanded ends of the ureters.

    • C. 

      The basic functional units of the kidney.

    • D. 

      Bundles of tissue that extend between pyramids from the cortex.

    • E. 

      Conical structures that are located in the renal medulla.


  • 75. 
    The expanded beginning of the ureter connects to the
    • A. 

      Renal sinus.

    • B. 

      Renal pelvis.

    • C. 

      Renal calyx.

    • D. 

      Renal hilum.

    • E. 

      Renal corpuscle.


  • 76. 
    Major calyces are
    • A. 

      Large tributaries of the renal pelvis.

    • B. 

      Expanded ends of nephrons.

    • C. 

      Basic functional layers of the kidney.

    • D. 

      Conical structures that are located in the renal medulla.

    • E. 

      The expanded ends of renal pyramids.


  • 77. 
    Which of the following descriptions best matches the term renal papilla?
    • A. 

      Releases renin

    • B. 

      Creates high interstitial NaCl concentration

    • C. 

      Final urine enters here

    • D. 

      Initial filtrate enters here

    • E. 

      Tip of the medullary pyramid


  • 78. 
    Which of the following descriptions best matches the term calyx?
    • A. 

      Releases renin

    • B. 

      Creates high interstitial NaCl concentration

    • C. 

      Final urine enters here

    • D. 

      Initial filtrate enters here

    • E. 

      Tip of the medullary pyramid


  • 79. 

    Identify the structure labeled "9."
    • A. 

      Renal pelvis

    • B. 

      Minor calyx

    • C. 

      Ureter

    • D. 

      Major calyx

    • E. 

      Renal column


  • 80. 

    Identify the structure labeled "10."
    • A. 

      Renal pelvis

    • B. 

      Minor calyx

    • C. 

      Ureter

    • D. 

      Major calyx

    • E. 

      Renal column


  • 81. 

    Identify the structure labeled "6."
    • A. 

      Renal pelvis

    • B. 

      Minor calyx

    • C. 

      Ureter

    • D. 

      Major calyx

    • E. 

      Renal column


  • 82. 

    Identify the structure labeled "8."
    • A. 

      Renal sinus

    • B. 

      Fibrous capsule

    • C. 

      Renal pyramid

    • D. 

      Renal papilla

    • E. 

      Renal column


  • 83. 

    Identify the structure labeled "5."
    • A. 

      Renal sinus

    • B. 

      Fibrous capsule

    • C. 

      Renal pyramid

    • D. 

      Renal papilla

    • E. 

      Renal column


  • 84. 
    The majority of glomeruli are located in the ________ of the kidney.
    • A. 

      Vasa recta

    • B. 

      Medulla

    • C. 

      Cortex

    • D. 

      Pelvis

    • E. 

      Calyces


  • 85. 
    Which of these components of the nephron is largely confined to the renal medulla?
    • A. 

      Glomerular (Bowman's) capsule

    • B. 

      Distal convoluted tubule

    • C. 

      Collecting ducts

    • D. 

      Proximal convoluted tubule

    • E. 

      Glomerulus


  • 86. 
    Glomerular (Bowman's) capsule and the glomerulus make up the
    • A. 

      Renal pyramid.

    • B. 

      Nephron loop (loop of Henle).

    • C. 

      Renal corpuscle.

    • D. 

      Renal papilla.

    • E. 

      Collecting tubule system.


  • 87. 
    A glomerulus is
    • A. 

      The expanded end of a nephron.

    • B. 

      A knot of capillaries within the renal corpuscle.

    • C. 

      The source of erythropoietin.

    • D. 

      Attached to the collecting duct.

    • E. 

      The horseshoe-shaped segment of the nephron.


  • 88. 
    The filtrate first passes from the glomerular capsule to the
    • A. 

      Nephron loop (loop of Henle).

    • B. 

      Proximal convoluted tubule.

    • C. 

      Distal convoluted tubule.

    • D. 

      Collecting duct.

    • E. 

      Minor calyx.


  • 89. 
    The portion of the nephron that empties into the collecting duct is the
    • A. 

      Nephron loop (loop of Henle).

    • B. 

      Proximal convoluted tubule.

    • C. 

      Distal convoluted tubule.

    • D. 

      Papillary tubule.

    • E. 

      Calyx.


  • 90. 
    The U-shaped segment of the nephron is the
    • A. 

      Nephron loop (loop of Henle).

    • B. 

      Proximal convoluted tubule.

    • C. 

      Distal convoluted tubule.

    • D. 

      Collecting loop.

    • E. 

      Minor calyx.


  • 91. 
    The primary function of the proximal convoluted tubule is
    • A. 

      Filtration.

    • B. 

      Reabsorbing nutrients.

    • C. 

      Secretion of acids and ammonia.

    • D. 

      Secretion of drugs.

    • E. 

      Adjusting the urine volume.


  • 92. 
    The glomeruli are best described as being tufts of
    • A. 

      Arteries.

    • B. 

      Veins.

    • C. 

      Venules.

    • D. 

      Capillaries.

    • E. 

      Arterioles.


  • 93. 
    The ________ delivers urine to a minor calyx.
    • A. 

      Nephron loop (loop of Henle)

    • B. 

      Distal convoluted tubule

    • C. 

      Papillary duct

    • D. 

      Renal corpuscle

    • E. 

      Ureter


  • 94. 
    Each of the following is a normal constituent of urine, except .
    • A. 

      Urea.

    • B. 

      Proteins.

    • C. 

      Amino acids.

    • D. 

      Creatine.

    • E. 

      Hydrogen ions.


  • 95. 
    Substances secreted by the distal convoluted tubule include
    • A. 

      Hydrogen.

    • B. 

      Penicillin.

    • C. 

      Creatinine.

    • D. 

      Potassium ions.

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 96. 
    The process of filtration occurs at
    • A. 

      The proximal convoluted tubule.

    • B. 

      The distal convoluted tubule.

    • C. 

      The collecting duct.

    • D. 

      The nephron loop (loop of Henle).

    • E. 

      The glomerular (Bowman's) capsule.


  • 97. 
    Approximately ________ liters of glomerular filtrate enter glomerular capsules each day.
    • A. 

      480

    • B. 

      180

    • C. 

      125

    • D. 

      18

    • E. 

      1.8


  • 98. 

    What physiological process occurs at the structure labeled "2"?
    • A. 

      Reabsorption

    • B. 

      Excretion

    • C. 

      Secretion

    • D. 

      Filtration

    • E. 

      Micturition


  • 99. 

    Where does countercurrent multiplication occur?
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      3

    • E. 

      2


  • 100. 

    Where does most nutrient reabsorption occur?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      1

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

    • E. 

      6


  • 101. 

    Which area is sensitive to the hormone ADH?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5 and 6

    • E. 

      4, 5, and 6


  • 102. 
    The filtration barrier in the renal corpuscle consists of three layers:
    • A. 

      Filtration slits, foot processes, and slit pores.

    • B. 

      Fenestrations, matrix, and foot processes.

    • C. 

      Endothelium of glomerulus, dense layer of glomerulus, and podocyte filtration slits.

    • D. 

      Dense layer of glomerulus, foot processes, and fenestrations in the capsule.

    • E. 

      Podocyte filtration slits, matrix cells in the glomerulus, and endothelium of glomerulus.


  • 103. 
    The structure known as the juxtaglomerular apparatus is located near the
    • A. 

      The proximal convoluted tubule.

    • B. 

      Glomerulus.

    • C. 

      The collecting duct.

    • D. 

      The nephron loop (loop of Henle).

    • E. 

      Renal papilla.


  • 104. 
    Substances larger than ________ do not pass through the filtration membrane.
    • A. 

      Sodium ions.

    • B. 

      Glucose

    • C. 

      Albumin

    • D. 

      Amino acids

    • E. 

      Urea


  • 105. 
    The process of filtration is driven by
    • A. 

      Active transport.

    • B. 

      Blood osmotic pressure.

    • C. 

      Blood hydrostatic pressure.

    • D. 

      Renal pumping.

    • E. 

      Solvent drag.


  • 106. 
    Under normal conditions, glomerular filtration depends on three main pressures. Which of those pressures is a pressure that favors the filtration pressure?
    • A. 

      Glomerular hydrostatic pressure

    • B. 

      Capsular hydrostatic pressure

    • C. 

      Capsular colloid osmotic pressure

    • D. 

      Blood colloid osmotic pressure

    • E. 

      Urinary bladder hydrostatic pressure


  • 107. 
    Which of the following formulas will allow you to calculate the net filtration pressure (FP)? (Hint: GHP = glomerular hydrostatic pressure, BCOP = blood colloidal osmotic pressure, CsHP = capsular hydrostatic pressure.)
    • A. 

      A) FP = GHP + CsHP - BCOP

    • B. 

      FP = GHP - (CsHP + BCOP)

    • C. 

      FP = CsHP + GHP - BCOP

    • D. 

      FP = BCOP - GHP + CsHP

    • E. 

      FP = BCOP + (GHP - CsHP)


  • 108. 
    Autoregulation of the rate of glomerular filtration has which of the following properties?
    • A. 

      Depends on changes in the afferent arteriole

    • B. 

      Depends on changes in the mesangial cells

    • C. 

      Depends on changes in the efferent arteriole

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 109. 
    One mechanism the kidney uses to raise systemic blood pressure is to
    • A. 

      Increase secretion of renin by the juxtaglomerular complex.

    • B. 

      Decrease secretion of aldosterone.

    • C. 

      Increase release of angiotensin II by the suprarenal glands.

    • D. 

      Increase filtration into glomerular (Bowman's) capsule.

    • E. 

      Decrease urinary albumin concentration.


  • 110. 
    Increased sympathetic tone can do all of the following, except
    • A. 

      Produce venoconstriction of blood reservoirs.

    • B. 

      Increase the glomerular filtration rate.

    • C. 

      Increase cardiac output.

    • D. 

      Stimulate peripheral vasoconstriction.

    • E. 

      Increase systemic blood pressure.


  • 111. 
    As the filtrate passes through the renal tubules, approximately what percentage is reabsorbed and returned to the circulation?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      38

    • C. 

      63

    • D. 

      74

    • E. 

      99


  • 112. 
    Tubular reabsorption involves all of the following, except
    • A. 

      Active transport.

    • B. 

      Facilitated diffusion.

    • C. 

      Secondary active transport.

    • D. 

      Osmosis.

    • E. 

      Stem cell movements.


  • 113. 
    What percentage of nutrients (glucose, amino acids, etc) are reabsorbed in the PCT?
    • A. 

      50

    • B. 

      90

    • C. 

      25

    • D. 

      75


  • 114. 
    Secretion of hydrogen ion by the DCT is by the process of
    • A. 

      Diffusion.

    • B. 

      Facilitated diffusion.

    • C. 

      Active transport.

    • D. 

      Cotransport.

    • E. 

      Countertransport.


  • 115. 
    In response to increased levels of aldosterone, the kidneys produce
    • A. 

      A larger volume of urine.

    • B. 

      Urine with a higher concentration of sodium ions.

    • C. 

      Urine with a lower concentration of potassium ions.

    • D. 

      Urine with a lower concentration of sodium ions.

    • E. 

      Urine with less glucose.


  • 116. 
    Chloride ion is reabsorbed in the thick ascending limb by
    • A. 

      Simple diffusion.

    • B. 

      Facilitated diffusion.

    • C. 

      Active transport.

    • D. 

      Cotransport with Na ions.

    • E. 

      Countertransport for bicarbonate ion.


  • 117. 
    Which of the following descriptions best matches the term nephron loop (loop of Henle)?
    • A. 

      Relies on countercurrent multiplication

    • B. 

      Creates high interstitial NaCl concentration in the renal medulla

    • C. 

      Enables production of hypertonic urine

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 118. 
    Which of the following is greater?
    • A. 

      The concentration of solute in the filtrate at the beginning of the nephron loop (loop of Henle)

    • B. 

      The concentration of solute in the filtrate at the bottom of the nephron loop (loop of Henle)

    • C. 

      The concentrations at the top and bottom are identical.


  • 119. 
    When the level of ADH (antidiuretic hormone) decreases,
    • A. 

      More urine is produced.

    • B. 

      Less urine is produced.

    • C. 

      The osmolarity of the urine decreases.

    • D. 

      More urine is produced and the osmolarity of the urine decreases.

    • E. 

      None of the above occurs.


  • 120. 
    The ability to form concentrated urine depends on the functions of
    • A. 

      The proximal convoluted tubule.

    • B. 

      The distal convoluted tubule.

    • C. 

      The collecting duct.

    • D. 

      The nephron loop (loop of Henle).

    • E. 

      Both the collecting duct and the nephron loop (loop of Henle).


  • 121. 
    Antidiuretic hormone
    • A. 

      Increases the permeability of the collecting ducts to water.

    • B. 

      Is secreted in response to low potassium ion in the blood.

    • C. 

      Causes the kidneys to produce a larger volume of very dilute urine.

    • D. 

      Is secreted by the anterior pituitary.

    • E. 

      Release is insensitive to the osmolarity of interstitial fluid.


  • 122. 
    The mechanism for producing concentrated urine involves
    • A. 

      The secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

    • B. 

      Aquaporins being inserted into the membranes of the collecting duct cells.

    • C. 

      A high concentration of NaCl in the interstitial fluid that surrounds the collecting ducts.

    • D. 

      A properly functioning nephron loop (loop of Henle).

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 123. 
    A patient excretes a large volume of very dilute urine on a continuing basis. This is may be due to
    • A. 

      Excessive ADH secretion.

    • B. 

      Absence of ADH.

    • C. 

      Hematuric oliguria.

    • D. 

      Overproduction of aldosterone.

    • E. 

      Dilation of the afferent arterioles.


  • 124. 
    What is the function of gonads?
    • A. 

      Produce gametes

    • B. 

      Transport gametes

    • C. 

      Produce hormones

    • D. 

      Produce gametes and produce hormones

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 125. 
    Inward projections of the tunica albuginea, known as septa, divide the testis into
    • A. 

      Seminiferous tubules.

    • B. 

      Straight tubules.

    • C. 

      Lobules.

    • D. 

      Rete testorum.

    • E. 

      The epididymis and the testis proper.


  • 126. 
    The reproductive system includes
    • A. 

      Gonads and external genitalia.

    • B. 

      Ducts that receive and transport the gametes.

    • C. 

      Accessory glands and organs that secrete fluids.

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 127. 
    Which of the following muscles move the testes towards the body?
    • A. 

      The cremaster

    • B. 

      The tunica muscularis

    • C. 

      The biceps brachii

    • D. 

      The dartos

    • E. 

      Both the cremaster and the dartos


  • 128. 
    The external marking of the boundary between the two testes is the
    • A. 

      Spermatic cord.

    • B. 

      Raphe.

    • C. 

      Tunica albuginea.

    • D. 

      Acrosome.

    • E. 

      Dartos muscle.


  • 129. 
    The spermatic cord is
    • A. 

      A bundle of tissue that contains the ductus deferens, blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics that serve the testis.

    • B. 

      A narrow opening that links the scrotal chamber with the peritoneal cavity.

    • C. 

      The external marking of the boundary between the two chambers of the scrotum.

    • D. 

      A layer of smooth muscle in the skin of the scrotal sac.

    • E. 

      A dense layer of connective tissue that surrounds the testis.


  • 130. 
    The dense layer of connective tissue that surrounds the testis is called the
    • A. 

      Median raphe.

    • B. 

      Spermatic cord.

    • C. 

      Tunica albuginea.

    • D. 

      Dartos.

    • E. 

      Epididymis.


  • 131. 
    The male reproductive system is most closely associated with which of the following systems?
    • A. 

      Muscular

    • B. 

      Urinary

    • C. 

      Endocrine

    • D. 

      Digestive

    • E. 

      Integumentary


  • 132. 
    The ________ connect the seminiferous tubules to the epididymis.
    • A. 

      Efferent ductules

    • B. 

      Straight tubules

    • C. 

      Spermatic cords

    • D. 

      Ductus deferentia

    • E. 

      Inguinal canals


  • 133. 

    Use Figure 25-1 to answer the following questions: Identify the structure labeled "11."
    • A. 

      Bulbourethral gland

    • B. 

      Prostate gland

    • C. 

      Seminal gland (seminal vesicle)

    • D. 

      Epididymis

    • E. 

      Ductus deferens


  • 134. 

    Use Figure 25-1 to answer the following questions: Identify the structure labeled "3."
    • A. 

      Corpora cavernosa

    • B. 

      Prostatic urethra

    • C. 

      Corpus spongiosum

    • D. 

      Penile urethra

    • E. 

      Ejaculatory duct


  • 135. 

    Use Figure 25-1 to answer the following questions: Identify the structure labeled "4."
    • A. 

      Testis

    • B. 

      Prostate gland

    • C. 

      Seminal gland (seminal vesicle)

    • D. 

      Epididymis

    • E. 

      Ductus deferens


  • 136. 

    Use Figure 25-1 to answer the following questions: Identify the structure labeled "10."
    • A. 

      Testis

    • B. 

      Prostate gland

    • C. 

      Seminal gland (seminal vesicle)

    • D. 

      Epididymis

    • E. 

      Ductus deferens


  • 137. 

    Use Figure 25-1 to answer the following questions: What is produced by the structure labeled "7"?
    • A. 

      Seminal fluids

    • B. 

      Spermatozoa

    • C. 

      Testosterone

    • D. 

      FSH

    • E. 

      Both spermatozoa and testosterone


  • 138. 
    Contraction of the cremaster muscles
    • A. 

      Relaxes the scrotal sac.

    • B. 

      Pulls the testes closer to the body cavity.

    • C. 

      Propels sperm through the urethra.

    • D. 

      Moves sperm through the ductus deferens.

    • E. 

      Both relaxes the scrotal sac and propels sperm through the urethra.


  • 139. 
    Contraction of the dartos muscle
    • A. 

      Elevates the scrotal sac.

    • B. 

      Produces an erection.

    • C. 

      Propels sperm through the urethra.

    • D. 

      Moves sperm through the ductus deferens.

    • E. 

      Initiates seminal emission.


  • 140. 
    Which of the following occurs after a spermatogonium completes cell division?
    • A. 

      Mature spermatozoa enter the lumen.

    • B. 

      Fusion of diploid nuclei occurs.

    • C. 

      The daughter cell is directed toward the lumen of the seminiferous tubule.

    • D. 

      Gamete production accelerates.

    • E. 

      Spermiogenesis begins.


  • 141. 
    Interstitial cells produce
    • A. 

      Sperm.

    • B. 

      Inhibin.

    • C. 

      Nutrients.

    • D. 

      Androgens.

    • E. 

      Androgen-binding protein.


  • 142. 
    Sperm production occurs in the
    • A. 

      Ductus deferens.

    • B. 

      Seminiferous tubules.

    • C. 

      Epididymis.

    • D. 

      Seminal glands (seminal vesicles).

    • E. 

      Rete testis.


  • 143. 
    Nurse cells
    • A. 

      Are found in the seminiferous tubules.

    • B. 

      Form the blood-testis barrier.

    • C. 

      Coordinate spermatogenesis.

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 144. 
    Arrange the four structures listed below into the order in which sperm pass from the testis to the urethral meatus. ductus deferens urethra ejaculatory duct epididymis
    • A. 

      1, 3, 4, 2

    • B. 

      4, 3, 1, 2

    • C. 

      4, 1, 2, 3

    • D. 

      4, 1, 3, 2

    • E. 

      1, 4, 3, 2


  • 145. 
    The small paired structures at the base of the penis that secrete a thick, alkaline mucus are the
    • A. 

      Seminal vesicles.

    • B. 

      Prostate glands.

    • C. 

      Preputial glands.

    • D. 

      Bartholin glands.

    • E. 

      Bulbo-urethral glands.


  • 146. 
    Spermatozoa are functionally matured within the
    • A. 

      Epididymis.

    • B. 

      Ductus deferens.

    • C. 

      Rete testes.

    • D. 

      Seminiferous tubules.

    • E. 

      Seminal gland (seminal vesicle).


  • 147. 
    The organ that surrounds the urethra and produces an alkaline secretion is the
    • A. 

      Seminal gland (seminal vesicle).

    • B. 

      Bulbourethral gland.

    • C. 

      Prostate gland.

    • D. 

      Preputial gland.

    • E. 

      Bartholin's gland.


  • 148. 
    The organ that monitors and adjusts the composition of tubular fluid, recycles damaged spermatozoa, and is the site of sperm maturation is the
    • A. 

      Ductus deferens.

    • B. 

      Rete testis.

    • C. 

      Seminal gland (seminal vesicle).

    • D. 

      Epididymis.

    • E. 

      Prostate gland.


  • 149. 
    The organ that carries sperm from the epididymis to the urethra is the
    • A. 

      Ductus deferens.

    • B. 

      Epididymis.

    • C. 

      Seminal gland (seminal vesicle).

    • D. 

      Ejaculatory duct.

    • E. 

      Corpus cavernosum.


  • 150. 
    The organ that is posterior to the urinary bladder is (are) the
    • A. 

      Prostate gland.

    • B. 

      Bulbourethral gland.

    • C. 

      Seminal glands (seminal vesicles).

    • D. 

      Corpus cavernosum.

    • E. 

      Preputial gland.


  • 151. 
    Where in the male reproductive system would you expect to find the most mature spermatozoa?
    • A. 

      In the seminiferous tubules

    • B. 

      In the head of the epididymis

    • C. 

      In the ductus deferens and ejaculatory duct

    • D. 

      In the seminal gland

    • E. 

      In the prostate gland


  • 152. 
    Functions of the accessory glands of the male reproductive system include all of the following, except
    • A. 

      Production of spermatozoa.

    • B. 

      Meeting the nutrient needs of spermatozoa for motility.

    • C. 

      Propelling spermatozoa and fluids along the reproductive tract.

    • D. 

      Producing buffers.

    • E. 

      Activating the spermatozoa.


  • 153. 
    Sperm are moved along the ductus deferens by
    • A. 

      Hydrostatic force.

    • B. 

      Ciliary action.

    • C. 

      Peristaltic contractions.

    • D. 

      Suction.

    • E. 

      Hydraulic action.


  • 154. 
    Contractions of the bulbospongiosus muscles result in
    • A. 

      Erection.

    • B. 

      Emission.

    • C. 

      Ejaculation.

    • D. 

      Detumescence.

    • E. 

      Impotence.


  • 155. 
    For erection to occur
    • A. 

      There must be sufficient blood hydrostatic pressure.

    • B. 

      The sacral spinal cord must be intact.

    • C. 

      Nitric oxide must be present.

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 156. 
    The organ that delivers semen into the female reproductive tract is the
    • A. 

      Urethra.

    • B. 

      Ejaculatory duct.

    • C. 

      Penis.

    • D. 

      Corpus cavernosum.

    • E. 

      Corpus spongiosum.


  • 157. 
    The fold of skin that covers the glans penis is the
    • A. 

      Ejaculatory duct.

    • B. 

      Prepuce.

    • C. 

      Corpus cavernosum.

    • D. 

      Corpus spongiosum.

    • E. 

      Penile urethra.


  • 158. 
    The erectile tissue that surrounds the urethra is the
    • A. 

      Membranous urethra.

    • B. 

      Penile urethra.

    • C. 

      Glans penis.

    • D. 

      Corpus spongiosum.

    • E. 

      Corpus cavernosum.


  • 159. 
    The paired erectile bodies in the penis are the
    • A. 

      Membranous urethra.

    • B. 

      Penile urethra.

    • C. 

      Corpus spongiosum.

    • D. 

      Corpora cavernosa.

    • E. 

      Prepuce.


  • 160. 
    Emission and ejaculation
    • A. 

      Occurs under sympathetic stimulation.

    • B. 

      Begins with peristaltic contractions of the ampulla.

    • C. 

      Is responsible for propelling semen into the female reproductive tract.

    • D. 

      Involves contractions of the bulbospongiosus muscle.

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 161. 
    The primary role of FSH in males is to
    • A. 

      Stimulate the interstitial cells to produce testosterone.

    • B. 

      Stimulate the nurse cells to produce inhibin.

    • C. 

      Initiate sperm production in the testes.

    • D. 

      Develop and maintain secondary sex characteristics.

    • E. 

      Influence sexual behaviors and sex drive.


  • 162. 
    The pituitary hormone that stimulates the interstitial cells to secrete testosterone is
    • A. 

      FSH.

    • B. 

      LH.

    • C. 

      ACTH.

    • D. 

      ADH.

    • E. 

      GH.


  • 163. 
    Testosterone is secreted by the
    • A. 

      Hypothalamus.

    • B. 

      Adenohypophysis.

    • C. 

      Nurse cells.

    • D. 

      Interstitial cells.

    • E. 

      Suprarenal cortex.


  • 164. 
    A male bodybuilder starts taking injections of testosterone (an anabolic steroid) on a daily basis. After 3 weeks, which of the following would you expect to observe?
    • A. 

      Increased sex drive

    • B. 

      Decreased levels of GnRH

    • C. 

      Decreased levels of LH and FSH

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 165. 
    A boy has a genetic mutation such that FSH is not produced, but LH is normal. After the boy grows to maturity, it is likely he will
    • A. 

      Not develop secondary sex characteristics.

    • B. 

      Be sterile.

    • C. 

      Be impotent.

    • D. 

      Have impaired function of the interstitial cells.

    • E. 

      Produce large amounts of inhibin.


  • 166. 
    Sperm cannot fertilize an ovum unless it has been in the female reproductive tract for several hours. This enhanced ability of the sperm to fertilize the ovum is called capacitation. In vitro studies indicate that freshly ejaculated sperm can fertilize the ovum if they are first rinsed in salt solution before being introduced to the ovum. These observations suggest that
    • A. 

      The process of capacitation involves the removal of some inhibiting substances from the sperm.

    • B. 

      The process of capacitation is temperature dependent.

    • C. 

      In capacitation, secretions of the female reproductive tract are taken up by the sperm.

    • D. 

      PH is an important factor in the process of capacitation.

    • E. 

      Only sperm that come into contact with vaginal secretions are capable of fertilizing an ovum.


  • 167. 
    Each of the following statements concerning oogenesis is true, except that
    • A. 

      Oogenesis begins before birth.

    • B. 

      Ova develop from stem cells called oogonia.

    • C. 

      An ovum completes its last meiosis after it is fertilized.

    • D. 

      About half the oogonia complete mitosis between birth and puberty.

    • E. 

      By the time of their birth, girls have already lost about 80 percent of their oocytes.


  • 168. 
    The granulosa cells of developing follicles secrete
    • A. 

      Estrogens.

    • B. 

      Progesterone.

    • C. 

      FSH.

    • D. 

      LH.

    • E. 

      GnRH.


  • 169. 
    This is the structure that ruptures during ovulation.
    • A. 

      Cortical gyrus

    • B. 

      Tertiary follicle

    • C. 

      Secondary follicle

    • D. 

      Theca interna

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 170. 
    The primary follicle develops from the
    • A. 

      Ovarian hilum.

    • B. 

      Ovarian follicles.

    • C. 

      Primordial follicle.

    • D. 

      Ovarian stroma.

    • E. 

      Granulosa cells.


  • 171. 
    Which of the following is greater?
    • A. 

      The number of primordial follicles in the ovaries at birth

    • B. 

      The number of primordial follicles in the ovaries at puberty


  • 172. 
    The average length of the uterine cycle is
    • A. 

      16 days.

    • B. 

      19 days.

    • C. 

      21 days.

    • D. 

      28 days.

    • E. 

      35 days.


  • 173. 
    During the proliferative phase of the uterine cycle,
    • A. 

      The corpus luteum is forming.

    • B. 

      The functional zone of the endometrium is restored.

    • C. 

      The fertilized ovum implants.

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 174. 
    Which of the following descriptions best matches the term endometrium?
    • A. 

      Thick layer of smooth muscle cells

    • B. 

      Supports the uterus anteriorly

    • C. 

      Supports the uterus laterally

    • D. 

      Consists of a basilar zone and a functional zone

    • E. 

      After ovulation, the ovum is captured by it


  • 175. 
    The termination of the uterine cycle at age 45-55 is called ________.
    • A. 

      Menarche

    • B. 

      Menstruation

    • C. 

      Menopause

    • D. 

      Basilar phase

    • E. 

      Menses


  • 176. 
    During the secretory phase of the uterine cycle
    • A. 

      The fertilized ovum implants.

    • B. 

      Progesterone levels are high.

    • C. 

      Endometrial glands enlarge.

    • D. 

      The corpus luteum is formed.

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 177. 
    During the menses
    • A. 

      Progesterone levels are high.

    • B. 

      A new uterine lining is formed.

    • C. 

      Secretory glands and blood vessels develop in the endometrium.

    • D. 

      The old functional layer is sloughed off.

    • E. 

      The corpus luteum is most active.


  • 178. 
    The uterine phase that develops because of a fall in progesterone levels is
    • A. 

      The menses.

    • B. 

      The proliferative phase.

    • C. 

      The secretory phase.

    • D. 

      The follicular phase.

    • E. 

      The luteal phase.


  • 179. 
    The principal hormone secreted by the corpus luteum is
    • A. 

      LH.

    • B. 

      FSH.

    • C. 

      Progesterone.

    • D. 

      Luteosterone.

    • E. 

      Estrogen.


  • 180. 
    Menstruation is triggered by a drop in the levels of
    • A. 

      FSH.

    • B. 

      LH.

    • C. 

      Relaxin.

    • D. 

      Progesterone.

    • E. 

      Inhibin.


  • 181. 
    The surge in luteinizing hormone that occurs during the middle of the ovarian cycle triggers
    • A. 

      Follicle maturation.

    • B. 

      Menstruation.

    • C. 

      Ovulation.

    • D. 

      Menopause.

    • E. 

      Atresia.


  • 182. 
    A rise in the blood levels of follicle-stimulating hormone at the beginning of the ovarian cycle is responsible for
    • A. 

      Follicle maturation.

    • B. 

      Menstruation.

    • C. 

      Ovulation.

    • D. 

      Menopause.

    • E. 

      Atresia.


  • 183. 
    Which is the function of the ovaries?
    • A. 

      Secretion of hormones

    • B. 

      Production of oocytes

    • C. 

      Formation of immature gametes

    • D. 

      Secretion of inhibin

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 184. 
    A mature follicle releases an ovum in response to a surge in
    • A. 

      Follicle-stimulating hormone.

    • B. 

      Luteinizing hormone.

    • C. 

      Estrogen.

    • D. 

      Progesterone.

    • E. 

      Oxytocin.


  • 185. 
    After ovulation, the ovary secretes
    • A. 

      Luteinizing hormone.

    • B. 

      Estrogen.

    • C. 

      Progesterone.

    • D. 

      Both estrogen and progesterone.

    • E. 

      Luteinizing hormone, estrogen, and progesterone.


  • 186. 
    A sample of a woman's blood is analyzed for reproductive hormone levels. The results indicate a high level of progesterone, relatively high levels of inhibin, and low levels of FSH and LH. The female is most likely experiencing ________ of the uterine cycle.
    • A. 

      The proliferative phase

    • B. 

      Menses

    • C. 

      The secretory phase

    • D. 

      Menarche

    • E. 

      Menopause


  • 187. 
    Secondary sexual characteristics
    • A. 

      May develop in response to testosterone.

    • B. 

      May develop in response to estrogen.

    • C. 

      Are usually apparent at birth.

    • D. 

      May develop in response to testosterone or estrogen.

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 188. 
    Follicle-stimulating hormone
    • A. 

      Stimulates the thyroid follicles.

    • B. 

      Stimulates spermatogenesis.

    • C. 

      Stimulates maturation of primordial follicles in the ovary.

    • D. 

      Is important only in females.

    • E. 

      Stimulates spermatogenesis and stimulates maturation of primordial follicles in the ovary.


  • 189. 
    On which of the following days would the level of GnRH be highest in a female?
    • A. 

      Day of ovulation

    • B. 

      First day of menses

    • C. 

      3 days before ovulation

    • D. 

      3 days after ovulation


  • 190. 
    Which of the following statements about the uterine cycle is true?
    • A. 

      The first occurrence is termed menarche

    • B. 

      It is ultimately controlled by GnRH

    • C. 

      It is skipped in pregnancy

    • D. 

      It often involves painful myometrial contraction

    • E. 

      All are true


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