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| By Glover8309
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Glover8309
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1. Which of the following arteries supplies blood to the spleen, pancreas and stomach?

Explanation

The correct answer is Splenic. The splenic artery is responsible for supplying blood to the spleen, pancreas, and stomach. It is a branch of the celiac trunk, which is a major branch of the abdominal aorta. The splenic artery plays a crucial role in delivering oxygenated blood to these organs, allowing them to function properly.

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Digestive System Quizzes & Trivia

Anatomy practice exam for GI tract. Not very many questions.

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2. The anterior wall of the epiploic foramen contains all of the following structures EXCEPT the:

Explanation

The anterior wall of the epiploic foramen contains the portal vein, common bile duct, and proper hepatic artery. The inferior vena cava is not located in the anterior wall of the epiploic foramen.

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3. In a supine, bed-ridden patient, fluids leaking from a perforating ulcer in the posterior wall of the body of the stomach would most likely accumulate in the:

Explanation

In a supine, bed-ridden patient, fluids leaking from a perforating ulcer in the posterior wall of the body of the stomach would most likely accumulate in the omental bursa. The omental bursa, also known as the lesser sac, is a potential space located behind the stomach and in front of the pancreas. It is a common site for fluid accumulation in cases of gastric perforation. The left subhepatic space is located beneath the liver and is less likely to accumulate fluids in this scenario. The perisplenic space is located around the spleen and the left subphrenic space is located below the diaphragm, but neither of these spaces are in close proximity to the stomach and would not be the most likely sites for fluid accumulation in this case.

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4.  The aponeurosis of the external abdominal oblique muscle forms all of the following structures EXCEPT the:

Explanation

The aponeurosis of the external abdominal oblique muscle forms the anterior wall of the inguinal canal, the inguinal ligament, and the superficial inguinal ring. However, it does not form the cremasteric fascia. The cremasteric fascia is formed by the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles.

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5. All of the following arterial branches provide blood supply to the stomach.  All are paired correctly with the artery from which the branch originates EXCEPT the:

Explanation

The correct answer is "right gastric branch - superior mesenteric artery." This is because the right gastric branch actually originates from the common hepatic artery, not the superior mesenteric artery. The other options are paired correctly with their respective arteries of origin.

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6. All of the following veins are tributaries of the portal venous system EXCEPT the

Explanation

The question asks for the exception among the given veins that are tributaries of the portal venous system. The inferior mesenteric, splenic, and left gastric veins are all tributaries of the portal venous system, while the renal vein is not. Therefore, the correct answer is renal.

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7. An ulcer on the posterior wall of the body of the stomach could allow gastric contents to initially leak into which of the following peritoneal recesses?

Explanation

An ulcer on the posterior wall of the body of the stomach could allow gastric contents to initially leak into the omental bursa. The omental bursa is a peritoneal recess located posterior to the stomach. It is also known as the lesser sac and is formed by the folding of the greater omentum.

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8. An indirect inguinal hernia that extends into the scrotum would NOT pass through:

Explanation

An indirect inguinal hernia occurs when a portion of the small intestine protrudes through the deep inguinal ring, travels through the inguinal canal, and may extend into the scrotum through the superficial inguinal ring. Hesselbach's triangle is an area in the lower abdomen bounded by the inguinal ligament, the rectus abdominis muscle, and the inferior epigastric vessels. It is not a pathway for hernias to pass through. Therefore, an indirect inguinal hernia that extends into the scrotum would not pass through Hesselbach's triangle.

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9. Which of the following is NOT located in the hepatoduodenal ligament?

Explanation

The hepatoduodenal ligament is a structure that connects the liver to the duodenum. It contains the common bile duct, portal vein, and proper hepatic artery, which are all important structures involved in the transport of bile and blood to and from the liver. The main pancreatic duct, however, is not located in the hepatoduodenal ligament. It is a separate structure that carries pancreatic juices from the pancreas to the duodenum.

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10. A tumor of the pancreatic head would most likely result in:

Explanation

A tumor of the pancreatic head would most likely result in lateral displacement and compression of the common bile duct because the pancreatic head is located near the common bile duct. The tumor can grow and put pressure on the bile duct, causing it to be displaced and compressed. This can lead to obstruction of the bile flow, resulting in symptoms such as jaundice, abdominal pain, and digestive issues. Compression of the superior mesenteric artery, left adrenal gland, and left renal vein are less likely to occur in a tumor of the pancreatic head.

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11. Which of the following statements about peritoneum and/or mesenteries is INCORRECT?

Explanation

The common bile duct is not contained within the gastrocolic ligament. The common bile duct is located outside the gastrocolic ligament and runs posterior to it. The gastrocolic ligament connects the greater curvature of the stomach to the transverse colon.

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12. Which of the following statements about the abdominal wall is INCORRECT?

Explanation

The transversalis fascia does not form the cremaster fascia of the spermatic cord. The cremaster fascia is formed by the internal oblique muscle and its aponeurosis. The transversalis fascia is a layer of connective tissue that lines the inner surface of the abdominal wall and helps to support the abdominal organs. It does not directly contribute to the formation of the cremaster fascia.

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13. Which of the following structures is NOT in the posterior wall of the omental bursa?

Explanation

The omental bursa is a cavity located behind the stomach, and it is bounded by several structures. The body of the pancreas is a posterior structure of the omental bursa. The celiac artery (trunk) is also in the posterior wall of the omental bursa. The upper pole of the left kidney is another structure that is present in the posterior wall of the omental bursa. However, the transverse colon and its mesocolon are not part of the posterior wall of the omental bursa.

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14. Which of the following statements about the ileum is INCORRECT?

Explanation

The ileum does receive parasympathetic innervation, but it is not via pelvic splanchnic input to the inferior hypogastric plexus. Instead, it receives parasympathetic innervation from the vagus nerve via the celiac plexus and superior mesenteric plexus.

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15. All of the following are boundaries of the quadrate of the lobe of the liver EXCEPT the:

Explanation

The quadrate lobe of the liver is a small lobe located on the undersurface of the liver. It is bounded by several structures, including the porta of the liver, the gall bladder (fossa), and the fissure for the ligamentum teres. The inferior vena cava, however, is not a boundary of the quadrate lobe. The inferior vena cava is a large vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the lower body back to the heart. It is located on the posterior side of the liver, but it does not directly border the quadrate lobe.

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16. Which of the following statements about the stomach is INCORRECT?

Explanation

The statement about the location of cell bodies of postganglionic sympathetic neurons to the stomach being in the superior mesenteric ganglion is incorrect. The cell bodies of these neurons are actually located in the celiac ganglion.

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17. An abscess filling the right sub-hepatic recess (space) of the peritoneal cavity would be bounded by all of the following structures EXCEPT the:

Explanation

The abscess filling the right sub-hepatic recess would be bounded by the right lobe of the liver, the right kidney, and the right leaf of the diaphragm. The anterior layer of the coronary ligament is not directly involved in the formation of the sub-hepatic recess and would not be a boundary for the abscess.

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18. The right adrenal gland is located immediately:

Explanation

The right adrenal gland is located on the lateral side of the right crus of the diaphragm. This means it is positioned towards the outer side of the right crus of the diaphragm, which is a muscle that separates the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity. The other options mentioned, such as posterior to the splenic vein, anterior to the descending aorta, and medial to the quadrate lobe of the liver, are not accurate descriptions of the location of the right adrenal gland.

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19. The right adrenal gland can be located on sectional images by all of the following relationships EXCEPT:

Explanation

The correct answer is that the right adrenal gland is anterior to the pancreatic head. This means that the adrenal gland is located in front of the pancreatic head. The other options state relationships that are true for the location of the right adrenal gland on sectional images. It is posterior to the inferior vena cava, medial to the right lobe of the liver, and lateral to the right crus of the diaphragm.

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20. Which of the following statements correctly describes inguinal hernias and their anatomy?

Explanation

Indirect hernias involve a parietal peritoneal sac surrounded by successive coverings of the spermatic cord. This means that the hernia protrudes through the inguinal canal and is surrounded by layers of tissue that make up the spermatic cord. This is in contrast to direct hernias, which enter the inguinal canal through the deep inguinal ring, and do not involve the spermatic cord. Additionally, indirect hernias can protrude through the weak abdominal wall, while direct hernias do not. Only indirect hernias have the potential to enter the scrotal sac.

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21. In an obstruction of the portal vein within the liver, all of the following veins could be used to carry blood from the portal vein to the superior vena cava EXCEPT the

Explanation

In an obstruction of the portal vein within the liver, the blood flow from the portal vein to the superior vena cava can be rerouted through various collateral pathways. The azygos vein, superficial veins of the anterior abdominal wall, and paraumbilical veins are all potential collateral pathways that can carry blood from the portal vein to the superior vena cava. However, the inferior mesenteric vein does not directly connect to the portal vein, so it cannot be used as a collateral pathway in this scenario.

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22. The descending colon receives preganglionic parasympathetic innervation that originates in the

Explanation

The descending colon receives preganglionic parasympathetic innervation from the S2-S4 segments of the spinal cord. Parasympathetic innervation is responsible for promoting digestion and increasing intestinal motility. The vagus nerve primarily innervates organs in the thorax and upper abdomen, while the sacral splanchnic nerves innervate the pelvic organs. The inferior mesenteric ganglia are associated with sympathetic innervation rather than parasympathetic innervation.

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23. The preganglionic parasympathetic inputs into the inferior hypogastric plexuses are called

Explanation

The correct answer is pelvic splanchnics. The preganglionic parasympathetic inputs into the inferior hypogastric plexuses are referred to as pelvic splanchnics. These nerves originate from the sacral region of the spinal cord and innervate the pelvic organs, including the bladder, rectum, and reproductive organs. They play a crucial role in regulating various functions such as urination, defecation, and sexual arousal. The other options (lumbar splanchnics, thoracic splanchnics, and sacral splanchnics) are incorrect as they do not specifically refer to the preganglionic parasympathetic inputs into the inferior hypogastric plexuses.

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24. Which of the following statements about the renal system is INCORRECT?

Explanation

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25. All of the following are normal relationships of the superior mesenteric artery EXCEPT:

Explanation

The correct answer is "it courses posterior to the third (transverse) part of the duodenum." This means that the superior mesenteric artery does not pass behind the third part of the duodenum. The other options are all normal relationships of the superior mesenteric artery: it arises from the aorta posterior to the neck of the pancreas, the splenic vein crosses anterior to it, and the left renal vein courses posterior to it.

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26. Which of the following statements about the biliary system is correct?

Explanation

The correct answer is that the common bile duct is located in the anterior border of the epiploic foramen (of Winslow). The epiploic foramen is an opening in the peritoneum that connects the greater and lesser sacs of the abdomen. The common bile duct passes through this opening, which is located in the anterior border of the foramen. This is an important anatomical landmark to be aware of when considering the biliary system and its relation to other structures in the abdomen.

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27. A palpable mass to the right of the midline at the level of the transpyloric line would be LEAST LIKELY to be located within the: 

Explanation

A palpable mass to the right of the midline at the level of the transpyloric line would be least likely to be located within the pancreatic body because the pancreatic body is located more towards the left side of the abdomen. The first part of the duodenum, right kidney, and gall bladder are all located on the right side of the abdomen and could potentially cause a palpable mass in that area.

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28. The subcostal line is a good surface landmark for the location of the:

Explanation

The subcostal line is a horizontal line that runs along the lower border of the ribcage. It is used as a surface landmark to locate various structures in the abdomen. The 3rd part of the duodenum is located just below the subcostal line. Therefore, the subcostal line is a good surface landmark for the location of the 3rd part of the duodenum.

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29. The right adrenal gland is located immediately posterior to the

Explanation

The right adrenal gland is located immediately posterior to the inferior vena cava. This means that the gland is situated behind the inferior vena cava in the body. The adrenal glands are small, triangular-shaped glands that sit on top of the kidneys. They play a crucial role in producing hormones that regulate various bodily functions. In this case, the right adrenal gland is specifically positioned behind the inferior vena cava, which is a large vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the lower body back to the heart.

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Which of the following arteries ...
The anterior wall of ...
In a supine, bed-ridden ...
 The aponeurosis of the ...
All of the following ...
All of the following ...
An ulcer on the posterior ...
An indirect inguinal ...
Which of the following is ...
A tumor of the pancreatic head would most likely result in:
Which of the following ...
Which of the following ...
Which of the following ...
Which of the following statements about the ileum is INCORRECT?
All of the following are ...
Which of the following statements about the stomach is INCORRECT?
An abscess filling the ...
The right adrenal gland is located immediately:
The right adrenal gland ...
Which of the following ...
In an obstruction of ...
The descending colon ...
The preganglionic parasympathetic ...
Which of the following statements ...
All of the following are ...
Which of the following statements ...
A palpable mass to the ...
The subcostal line is a good ...
The right adrenal gland is located immediately posterior to the
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