3P071 Volume 2(Air Base Defense)

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| By Catherine Halcomb

Catherine Halcomb

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Quizzes Created: 1428 | Total Attempts: 5,929,496

Questions: 90 | Attempts: 354 | Updated: Mar 20, 2023

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VOLUME 2

Questions and Answers

1.

The tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) begins at the
- A.
  
  Base defense operations center (BDOC).
- B.
  
  Point of insertion.
- C.
  
  Base perimeter.
- D.
  
  Resource.
Correct Answer
D. Resource.

Explanation
The correct answer is "resource" because the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) is a designated area where a military unit is responsible for conducting operations and managing resources. The TAOR does not necessarily begin at the base defense operations center (BDOC), point of insertion, or base perimeter, as these are specific locations within the TAOR. Instead, the TAOR encompasses a larger area where resources are allocated and managed.

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2.

The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is
- A.
  
  Defeating level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base.
- B.
  
  Defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level IV threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
- C.
  
  Stalling level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
- D.
  
  Defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level I threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
Correct Answer
A. Defeating level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base.

Explanation
The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is to defeat level I threats, which are immediate and direct threats to the air base. Additionally, they are responsible for disrupting or delaying level II threats, which are more significant and require a higher level of response. This is done within the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base, which is the designated operational area for the defense forces.

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3.

At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base defense operations center (BDOC)?
- A.
  
  S1 and S3.
- B.
  
  S2 and S4.
- C.
  
  S2 and S3.
- D.
  
  S3 and S4.
Correct Answer
C. S2 and S3.

Explanation
The base defense operations center (BDOC) is a critical facility for coordinating and managing defense operations. S-functions refer to specific systems or modules that are essential for the functioning of the BDOC. In this case, the correct answer suggests that S2 and S3 are the minimum required S-functions for the BDOC. This implies that these two systems are crucial for the operations and effectiveness of the defense center. The other options, S1 and S3 or S2 and S4 or S3 and S4, are not the minimum required combinations for the BDOC.

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4.

What is the staff make-up for the S3?
- A.
  
  The operations officer and staff.
- B.
  
  Supply noncommissioned officer.
- C.
  
  First sergeant or section commander.
- D.
  
  Intelligence officers and security forces investigators.
Correct Answer
A. The operations officer and staff.

Explanation
The correct answer is "The operations officer and staff." This is because the question is asking about the staff make-up for the S3, which refers to the operations section of a military unit. The operations officer is responsible for planning and coordinating operations, and the staff consists of personnel who support the operations officer in executing their duties. Therefore, the operations officer and staff are the key components of the S3 staff make-up.

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5.

In what way can subordinate joint force commands organize?
- A.
  
  By rank and function.
- B.
  
  By function and location.
- C.
  
  By service component or function.
- D.
  
  By service component and location.
Correct Answer
C. By service component or function.

Explanation
Subordinate joint force commands can organize either by service component or function. This means that they can be structured based on the different branches of the military (such as Army, Navy, Air Force) or based on specific functions (such as logistics, intelligence, operations). This allows for a more efficient and effective command structure, as it ensures that each component or function is properly represented and can work together towards a common goal.

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6.

The primary mission of a joint operation is
- A.
  
  Lead host nation forces in defending and securing the rear area.
- B.
  
  Sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force.
- C.
  
  Disaster relief operations.
- D.
  
  Humanitarian operations.
Correct Answer
B. Sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force.

Explanation
The primary mission of a joint operation is to sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force. This means that the joint operation is responsible for providing support and resources to ensure the ongoing success of the overall military campaign and the major operations being conducted by the joint force. This could include logistical support, intelligence gathering, coordination of efforts, and other necessary actions to maintain the momentum and effectiveness of the joint force's mission.

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7.

When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, what is their mission?
- A.
  
  Determine which other countries support their beliefs.
- B.
  
  Ensure state funding would continue to finance cause.
- C.
  
  Destroy as much property as possible in a short period.
- D.
  
  Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies.
Correct Answer
D. Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies.

Explanation
The mission of terrorists when they attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities is to persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies. This means that their goal is to use violence and fear as a means to influence political decisions and force governments to alter their policies in alignment with the terrorists' beliefs or demands. They aim to create enough chaos and disruption through their attacks to compel governments to reconsider their positions and make changes that the terrorists desire.

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8.

A terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is
- A.
  
  Non-state-supported.
- B.
  
  State-supported.
- C.
  
  Stated-directed.
- D.
  
  State-organized.
Correct Answer
B. State-supported.

Explanation
The correct answer is "state-supported" because it accurately describes a terrorist group that operates independently but receives support from one or more governments. This implies that the group is not directly controlled or directed by the government(s), but they provide assistance, resources, or funding to the group.

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9.

A typical organization of a terrorist group consists of
- A.
  
  Group leader, intelligence officer, explosive specialist, and weapons specialist.
- B.
  
  Hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support.
- C.
  
  Hard-core cadre, submissive support, inactive leaders, and low support.
- D.
  
  Intelligence officer, inactive leaders, and active cadre.
Correct Answer
B. Hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support.

Explanation
The correct answer is "hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support." This answer accurately describes the typical organization of a terrorist group. The "hard-core leadership" refers to the core group of leaders who make strategic decisions and provide guidance to the group. The "active cadre" refers to the members who actively participate in carrying out terrorist activities. The "active support" refers to individuals who provide assistance and resources to the group, while the "passive support" refers to individuals who sympathize with the group's cause but do not actively participate in its activities.

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10.

Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of
- A.
  
  16–24.
- B.
  
  21–28.
- C.
  
  23–30.
- D.
  
  25–32.
Correct Answer
C. 23–30.

Explanation
Specially trained terrorists are generally expected to possess above average intelligence and be within a certain age range. The answer 23-30 is the most reasonable choice as it falls within the typical age range for individuals who are physically capable and mentally mature enough to be trained for such activities. This age range also allows for a certain level of experience and maturity that can be advantageous in executing terrorist operations.

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11.

When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?
- A.
  
  Before execution of attack.
- B.
  
  Just before departing for the target sight.
- C.
  
  One week prior to scheduled attack execution.
- D.
  
  Never; terrorist team members do not conduct rehearsals.
Correct Answer
B. Just before departing for the target sight.

Explanation
Terrorist team members are brought together for a final rehearsal just before departing for the target sight. This implies that the team members gather to practice and coordinate their actions shortly before carrying out the attack. This approach ensures that the team members are well-prepared and synchronized before executing their plan.

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12.

The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
- A.
  
  Arson.
- B.
  
  Bombing.
- C.
  
  Hijacking.
- D.
  
  Assassination.
Correct Answer
B. Bombing.

Explanation
The correct answer is bombing. Terrorist groups often employ bombing as a tactic to cause widespread destruction and instill fear among the population. This method allows them to target specific locations or individuals, resulting in casualties and significant damage. Bombings can be carried out in various forms, such as suicide bombings, car bombings, or improvised explosive devices (IEDs). This tactic has been used by numerous terrorist organizations worldwide to achieve their objectives and make a strong impact on society.

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13.

The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around what three principles?
- A.
  
  State Department intelligence assessments, threat levels, and threat conditions (THREATCON).
- B.
  
  Force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels.
- C.
  
  Intelligence gathering, threat level, and THREATCONs.
- D.
  
  Criminal threat, FPCONs, and the CARVER matrix.
Correct Answer
B. Force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels.

Explanation
The correct answer is Force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels. This answer explains that the USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around three principles: FPCON, which refers to the level of security measures in place to protect military personnel and resources; assessment factors, which are used to evaluate potential threats and vulnerabilities; and threat levels, which indicate the level of risk posed by a specific threat. These three principles work together to ensure the effectiveness of the antiterrorism program in safeguarding against potential threats.

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14.

What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?
- A.
  
  Activity.
- B.
  
  Intentions.
- C.
  
  Operational capability.
- D.
  
  Operating environment.
Correct Answer
B. Intentions.

Explanation
The factor that is related to the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests is intentions. Intentions refer to the motives or goals of the terrorists, and their desire to carry out attacks against US interests. This factor focuses on the underlying reasons behind the attacks, such as political, ideological, or religious motivations. It does not consider the specific methods or resources used by the terrorists, but rather their intention to cause harm to US interests.

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15.

Our first line of defense against intelligence collection efforts is
- A.
  
  Communication security (COMSEC).
- B.
  
  Computer security (COMPUSEC).
- C.
  
  Information security (INFOSEC).
- D.
  
  Operations security (OPSEC).
Correct Answer
D. Operations security (OPSEC).

Explanation
The correct answer is operations security (OPSEC). OPSEC refers to the measures taken to protect critical information that could be used by adversaries to compromise our mission. It involves identifying and controlling critical information, analyzing threats, and implementing countermeasures to protect sensitive information from being exploited. OPSEC is crucial in safeguarding our operations and preventing intelligence collection efforts by adversaries. Communication security (COMSEC), computer security (COMPUSEC), and information security (INFOSEC) are important aspects of overall security, but OPSEC specifically focuses on protecting critical information related to operations.

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16.

The primary purpose of the operations security (OPSEC) program is to
- A.
  
  Support the OPSEC noncommissioned officer-in-charge (NCOIC) by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC.
- B.
  
  Support the wing commander by ensuring the command or organization has an OPSEC program.
- C.
  
  Support the commander by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC.
- D.
  
  Prevent our communications from falling into the wrong hands.
Correct Answer
C. Support the commander by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC.

Explanation
The primary purpose of the operations security (OPSEC) program is to support the commander by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC. This means that the program is designed to assist the commander in implementing and maintaining effective OPSEC measures within the command or organization. By actively practicing OPSEC, the command or organization can protect sensitive information and prevent adversaries from gaining access to critical information. The program aims to enhance the overall security posture of the command or organization by promoting OPSEC awareness and adherence among its members.

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17.

When should commanders and planners identify mission-critical information?
- A.
  
  At the earliest possible moment.
- B.
  
  Only after the subordinate commanders have been notified.
- C.
  
  Only after the review and approval from higher-head quarters commanders.
- D.
  
  Never; commanders and planners should not have to identify any critical information.
Correct Answer
A. At the earliest possible moment.

Explanation
Commanders and planners should identify mission-critical information at the earliest possible moment. This is important because identifying critical information early allows them to make informed decisions and develop effective strategies. By identifying mission-critical information early, commanders and planners can allocate resources, assess risks, and develop contingency plans to ensure mission success. Delaying the identification of critical information can lead to delays in decision-making and potentially compromise the mission's success. Therefore, it is crucial for commanders and planners to identify mission-critical information as soon as possible.

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18.

Which threat spectrum level consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerrillas?
- A.
  
  I.
- B.
  
  II.
- C.
  
  III.
- D.
  
  IV.
Correct Answer
B. II.

Explanation
Threat spectrum level II consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerrillas. This level represents a lower level of threat compared to other levels. Guerrilla warfare involves unconventional tactics and small-scale operations carried out by irregular forces. These forces typically operate in small units and are often difficult to detect and counter. Therefore, threat spectrum level II is the correct answer as it encompasses these characteristics.

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19.

Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?
- A.
  
  Partisans.
- B.
  
  Terrorists.
- C.
  
  Sympathizers.
- D.
  
  Agent activity.
Correct Answer
C. Sympathizers.

Explanation
Sympathizers are individuals who support a particular cause or group but may not directly engage in violent activities themselves. They may carry out random acts against targets of opportunity to show their support or solidarity with the cause. This behavior is characteristic of sympathizers rather than partisans, terrorists, or agent activity, which involve more organized and deliberate actions.

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20.

Missions that primarily target nuclear weapons-related facilities are what threat spectrum level?
- A.
  
  IV.
- B.
  
  III.
- C.
  
  II.
- D.
  
  I.
Correct Answer
C. II.

Explanation
Missions that primarily target nuclear weapons-related facilities are classified under threat spectrum level II. This means that these missions are focused on countering the threat posed by nuclear weapons and their associated facilities. Threat spectrum level II indicates a higher level of risk and a more significant threat compared to levels III and IV.

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21.

Which threat level uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (km)?
- A.
  
  I.
- B.
  
  II.
- C.
  
  III.
- D.
  
  IV.
Correct Answer
C. III.

Explanation
Threat level III uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (km).

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22.

What group routinely manages the risk assessment process for commanders?
- A.
  
  Force protection (FP) working.
- B.
  
  Anti-terrorism working.
- C.
  
  Physical security.
- D.
  
  Threat working.
Correct Answer
A. Force protection (FP) working.

Explanation
Force protection (FP) working routinely manages the risk assessment process for commanders. This group is responsible for identifying potential threats and vulnerabilities, evaluating the level of risk, and implementing measures to mitigate those risks. They work closely with commanders to ensure the safety and security of personnel, facilities, and operations. By regularly assessing and managing risks, the FP working group helps commanders make informed decisions and take appropriate actions to protect their forces.

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23.

Compiling and examining all available information concerning potential threats by threat analysts is a/an
- A.
  
  Annual process.
- B.
  
  Bi-annual process.
- C.
  
  Monthly process.
- D.
  
  Continual process.
Correct Answer
D. Continual process.

Explanation
Threat analysts compile and examine all available information concerning potential threats on an ongoing basis, rather than at specific intervals such as annually, bi-annually, or monthly. This is because the threat landscape is constantly evolving, with new threats emerging and existing ones evolving. Therefore, threat analysis is a continual process that requires constant monitoring and updating of information to stay proactive and effectively mitigate potential risks.

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24.

What assessment addresses the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel and assets, and should be conducted periodically?
- A.
  
  Risk.
- B.
  
  Threat.
- C.
  
  Vulnerability.
- D.
  
  Anti-terrorism.
Correct Answer
C. Vulnerability.

Explanation
The correct answer is Vulnerability. Vulnerability assessment is the process of identifying, quantifying, and prioritizing vulnerabilities in a system, organization, or facility. It addresses the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel and assets. It should be conducted periodically to ensure that any weaknesses or vulnerabilities are identified and addressed to mitigate potential risks and threats.

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25.

The key to force protection (FP) countermeasure planning is
- A.
  
  The classified protection plan.
- B.
  
  Protecting sensitive information.
- C.
  
  The offensive force protection plan.
- D.
  
  The defensive force protection plan.
Correct Answer
B. Protecting sensitive information.

Explanation
The correct answer is protecting sensitive information. Force protection countermeasure planning involves taking measures to safeguard military personnel and assets from potential threats. One crucial aspect of this planning is protecting sensitive information, as it helps prevent adversaries from gaining access to critical intelligence and using it against the forces. By ensuring the security of sensitive information, the military can maintain a strategic advantage and effectively counter potential threats.

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26.

The capability to reduce the capability of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy to protect friendly assets and aim points with materials and equipment that alter or obscure part or all of their multispectral signatures is
- A.
  
  Cover, camouflage, and deception (CCD).
- B.
  
  Concealing camouflage deceitfully (CCD).
- C.
  
  Deceptive camouflage concealment (DCC).
- D.
  
  Camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD).
Correct Answer
D. Camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD).

Explanation
The correct answer is camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD). This refers to the capability of using various techniques such as hiding, blending, disguising, and decoying to reduce the effectiveness of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets. By altering or obscuring the multispectral signatures of friendly assets and aim points, CCD aims to protect them from being detected or targeted.

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27.

To modify to prevent recognition of the true identity or character of an asset or activity is to
- A.
  
  Hide.
- B.
  
  Blend.
- C.
  
  Decoy.
- D.
  
  Disguise.
Correct Answer
D. Disguise.

Explanation
To modify something in order to prevent its true identity or character from being recognized is to disguise it. Disguising involves altering the appearance or nature of an asset or activity in order to make it appear different or unrecognizable. This can be done through various means such as changing its physical appearance, behavior, or location. Disguise is a common tactic used in espionage, undercover operations, or in situations where concealment is necessary for security or strategic purposes.

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28.

The political-military nature of military operations other than war (MOOTW) requires you to coordinate your activities
- A.
  
  Through the Department of State, Drug Enforcement Agency, and Immigration and Naturalization Service.
- B.
  
  With a number of government and civilian agencies outside the Department of Defense (DOD).
- C.
  
  Through the Red Cross, Red Crescent, and Cooperative for Assistance and Relief Everywhere.
- D.
  
  Through the joint rear area commander (JRAC).
Correct Answer
B. With a number of government and civilian agencies outside the Department of Defense (DOD).

Explanation
The political-military nature of military operations other than war (MOOTW) requires coordination with a number of government and civilian agencies outside the Department of Defense (DOD) because these operations often involve non-military aspects such as diplomacy, law enforcement, and humanitarian aid. Working with these agencies allows for a comprehensive and integrated approach to addressing the complex challenges of MOOTW, leveraging the expertise and resources of multiple organizations to achieve the mission objectives.

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29.

Military operations other than war (MOOTW) missions do not include
- A.
  
  Quarantine.
- B.
  
  Peacekeeping.
- C.
  
  Clandestine infiltration.
- D.
  
  Humanitarian assistance.
Correct Answer
C. Clandestine infiltration.

Explanation
Military operations other than war (MOOTW) are activities carried out by the military that are not traditional combat operations. These missions are typically focused on maintaining peace, providing humanitarian aid, and supporting civil authorities. Quarantine, peacekeeping, and humanitarian assistance are all examples of MOOTW missions as they involve non-combat activities aimed at protecting and assisting civilian populations. However, clandestine infiltration refers to covert operations involving secret entry into enemy territory, which is not a typical MOOTW mission. Instead, it falls under the domain of special operations or intelligence activities.

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30.

Which military operations other than war (MOOTW) principle never permits hostile factions to acquire a military, political, or informational advantage?
- A.
  
  Unity of Effort.
- B.
  
  Objective.
- C.
  
  Restraint.
- D.
  
  Security.
Correct Answer
D. Security.

Explanation
Security is the MOOTW principle that never permits hostile factions to acquire a military, political, or informational advantage. This principle emphasizes the protection of friendly forces, resources, and information from any potential threats or attacks. By maintaining a strong security posture, MOOTW operations can prevent hostile factions from gaining any advantage that could be detrimental to the mission's success. This principle ensures that all necessary measures are taken to safeguard the interests and assets of the friendly forces involved in the operation.

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31.

As a Total Force organization, a typical air and space expeditionary force (AEF) is responsive and capable of
- A.
  
  Full spectrum of air and space domination.
- B.
  
  Deploying to multiple geographic locations simultaneously.
- C.
  
  Deploying to conduct broad range operations with minimum warning time.
- D.
  
  Supporting multi-national forces under the control of host nation commanders.
Correct Answer
C. Deploying to conduct broad range operations with minimum warning time.

Explanation
The correct answer is "deploying to conduct broad range operations with minimum warning time." This answer is supported by the statement that the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) is "responsive and capable of deploying to conduct broad range operations with minimum warning time." This suggests that the AEF is able to quickly and effectively respond to a variety of operations, indicating a high level of readiness and flexibility.

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32.

What is the time limit for an air and space expeditionary force (AEF) package to respond to any unexpected contingency?
- A.
  
  12 hours.
- B.
  
  24 hours.
- C.
  
  48 hours.
- D.
  
  72 hours.
Correct Answer
D. 72 hours.

Explanation
The time limit for an air and space expeditionary force (AEF) package to respond to any unexpected contingency is 72 hours. This means that the AEF package must be prepared and ready to deploy within 72 hours of receiving the order. This timeframe allows for the necessary preparations, including assembling personnel, equipment, and supplies, and conducting any required training or briefings. It ensures that the AEF package can quickly and effectively respond to any unexpected situation or crisis that may arise.

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33.

Based on the integrated base defense (IBD) concept of operations (CONOP), what are all Airmen considered?
- A.
  
  Detectors.
- B.
  
  Monitors.
- C.
  
  Fighters.
- D.
  
  Sensors.
Correct Answer
D. Sensors.

Explanation
Based on the integrated base defense (IBD) concept of operations (CONOP), Airmen are considered sensors. This suggests that their role is to gather information and provide situational awareness to support the overall defense of the base. They are responsible for detecting any potential threats or intrusions and relaying that information to the appropriate personnel for further action.

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34.

What does security forces (SF) provide for the Integrated Base Defense (IBD) concept?
- A.
  
  Support.
- B.
  
  Foundation.
- C.
  
  Tactical operation.
- D.
  
  Retrograde operations.
Correct Answer
B. Foundation.

Explanation
The Integrated Base Defense (IBD) concept is supported by security forces (SF) by providing a foundation. This means that SF plays a crucial role in establishing the groundwork for the IBD concept. They ensure the security and protection of the base by implementing various measures such as perimeter security, access control, surveillance, and response to threats. SF acts as the backbone of the IBD concept, providing the necessary support and framework for its successful implementation.

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35.

Which essential element of the integrated base defense (IBD) concept slows the enemy without the need for a massive response at the outset of an engagement?
- A.
  
  Anticipate.
- B.
  
  Detect.
- C.
  
  Delay.
- D.
  
  Deny.
Correct Answer
C. Delay.

Explanation
Delay is the correct answer because it refers to the essential element of the integrated base defense (IBD) concept that slows down the enemy without requiring a large-scale response at the beginning of an engagement. Delaying tactics can involve various strategies and measures, such as establishing obstacles, conducting reconnaissance, and implementing defensive positions, to buy time and hinder the enemy's progress. By delaying the enemy, defenders gain additional time to prepare and respond effectively, potentially reducing the need for an immediate and overwhelming response.

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36.

What does the risk management process allow the commander to determine?
- A.
  
  Countermeasures options.
- B.
  
  If reassessments and follow ups are needed.
- C.
  
  Whether to introduce risk management process training.
- D.
  
  If there is a need to maximize live-fire training on full impact ranges.
Correct Answer
A. Countermeasures options.

Explanation
The risk management process allows the commander to determine the countermeasures options. This means that by going through the risk management process, the commander can identify and evaluate various strategies and actions that can be taken to mitigate or eliminate risks. This allows the commander to make informed decisions and choose the most effective countermeasures to minimize potential hazards and ensure the safety and success of the mission.

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37.

An expeditionary military force is defined as a force that conducts military operations
- A.
  
  Within 24 hours of notification in response to a crisis with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives.
- B.
  
  On short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives.
- C.
  
  On short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve unlimited and unclear objectives.
- D.
  
  Within 72 hours in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives.
Correct Answer
B. On short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives.

Explanation
An expeditionary military force is a force that is able to conduct military operations on short notice in response to crises. The force is specifically tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives. This means that the force is designed to respond quickly and effectively to a crisis situation, with a clear understanding of what needs to be accomplished. The force is not intended to achieve unlimited or unclear objectives, but rather to focus on specific goals. The ability to respond within a short timeframe is crucial in order to address and mitigate the impact of a crisis as quickly as possible.

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38.

What does the Air Force maintain to support the on-call air and space expeditionary force (AEF), as well as on-call lead wings to open expeditionary bases?
- A.
  
  Two bomber group leads (BGL).
- B.
  
  Three BGLs.
- C.
  
  Four BGLs.
- D.
  
  Five BGLs.
Correct Answer
D. Five BGLs.

Explanation
The Air Force maintains five bomber group leads (BGLs) to support the on-call air and space expeditionary force (AEF) and on-call lead wings to open expeditionary bases. These BGLs provide leadership and coordination for bomber units during deployments and ensure the successful execution of missions. Having five BGLs allows for increased flexibility and capacity to support the expeditionary force and establish bases in various locations.

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39.

The key to optimizing peacetime participation of the traditional guardsman and reservists who must balance military duties with full-time civilian employment is
- A.
  
  Predictability.
- B.
  
  Flexibility.
- C.
  
  Mobility.
- D.
  
  Stability.
Correct Answer
A. Predictability.

Explanation
The key to optimizing peacetime participation of the traditional guardsman and reservists who must balance military duties with full-time civilian employment is predictability. Predictability refers to having a clear and consistent schedule that allows these individuals to effectively plan and manage their time between their military and civilian responsibilities. With predictability, guardsmen and reservists can better coordinate their work and military commitments, reducing conflicts and ensuring they can fulfill both obligations without sacrificing one over the other. This ultimately leads to increased participation and effectiveness in their military duties while maintaining stable employment in their civilian lives.

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40.

Since unit type codes (UTC) are functionally grouped, what will all security forces UTCs have as a designator?
- A.
  
  UT.
- B.
  
  FP.
- C.
  
  AT.
- D.
  
  QF.
Correct Answer
D. QF.

Explanation
All security forces UTCs will have "QF" as a designator because the question states that unit type codes (UTC) are functionally grouped. This implies that different types of units are categorized and assigned specific designators. Since security forces UTCs fall under a specific functional group, they will all have the same designator, which in this case is "QF".

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41.

When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC is required, who may initiate the action for the change?
- A.
  
  Any level.
- B.
  
  Unit level.
- C.
  
  Major command (MAJCOM) level.
- D.
  
  Air Staff level only.
Correct Answer
A. Any level.

Explanation
Any level may initiate the action for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC. This means that individuals at any level within the organization have the authority to propose and initiate the necessary actions for these changes. It is not limited to a specific level such as unit level, major command level, or Air Staff level.

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42.

What is the list of all unit type codes (UTC) approved for use in planning?
- A.
  
  Air Force Unit Tasking Document (AUTD).
- B.
  
  Air Force-Wide Unit Type Code Roster (AFWUR).
- C.
  
  Air Expeditionary Unit Tasking Summary Sheet (AUTSS).
- D.
  
  Air Force-Wide Unit Type Code Availability System (AFWUS).
Correct Answer
D. Air Force-Wide Unit Type Code Availability System (AFWUS).

Explanation
The correct answer is "Air Force-Wide Unit Type Code Availability System (AFWUS)". This is the correct answer because the question is asking for the list of all unit type codes approved for use in planning, and the AFWUS is the system that provides this information. The other options mentioned, such as AUTD, AFWUR, and AUTSS, are not specifically related to providing a list of approved unit type codes for planning purposes.

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43.

Directing your operation toward a defined and attainable objective that contributes to operational and tactical claim is what principle of war?
- A.
  
  Maneuver.
- B.
  
  Offensive.
- C.
  
  Objective.
- D.
  
  Mass.
Correct Answer
C. Objective.

Explanation
The principle of war that aligns with the given correct answer, "Objective," is the idea of directing operations towards a defined and attainable goal that contributes to operational and tactical success. This principle emphasizes the importance of having a clear objective in order to guide decision-making, planning, and execution of military operations. By focusing on a specific objective, commanders can ensure that their forces are working towards a common purpose and can effectively allocate resources and coordinate actions to achieve success.

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44.

Avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting military operations is what principle of war?
- A.
  
  Unity of command.
- B.
  
  Simplicity.
- C.
  
  Objective.
- D.
  
  Offensive.
Correct Answer
B. Simplicity.

Explanation
The principle of war that is being described in this question is simplicity. This principle emphasizes the importance of avoiding unnecessary complexity in military operations. By keeping things simple, it becomes easier to organize, prepare, plan, and conduct these operations effectively. Simplicity allows for clear communication, streamlined decision-making, and efficient use of resources. It helps to minimize confusion, reduce the potential for errors, and increase the overall effectiveness of military actions.

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45.

Commanders do not use rules of engagement (ROE) to ensure operations
- A.
  
  Follow the rule of law.
- B.
  
  Meet manning standards.
- C.
  
  Follow national policy goals.
- D.
  
  Follow mission requirements.
Correct Answer
B. Meet manning standards.

Explanation
Commanders do not use rules of engagement (ROE) to meet manning standards. ROE are guidelines that dictate how military forces should conduct operations, including the use of force. Manning standards, on the other hand, refer to the required number of personnel needed to effectively carry out a mission. While commanders may consider manning standards when planning operations, ROE are specifically designed to ensure that military actions comply with the rule of law, national policy goals, and mission requirements.

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46.

Guidance on the application of force and exercising of the inherent right and obligation of self-defense is the purpose of the
- A.
  
  United Nations.
- B.
  
  Geneva Convention.
- C.
  
  Joint force commander’s directives.
- D.
  
  US military’s standing rules of engagement (ROE).
Correct Answer
D. US military’s standing rules of engagement (ROE).

Explanation
The purpose of the US military's standing rules of engagement (ROE) is to provide guidance on the application of force and the exercise of the inherent right and obligation of self-defense. These rules outline the circumstances under which military personnel are authorized to use force, including lethal force, in order to protect themselves, their fellow service members, and mission objectives. The ROE ensure that military operations are conducted within legal and ethical boundaries, while still allowing for the effective execution of military missions.

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47.

What is one of the fundamental purposes of the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC)?
- A.
  
  Prevent unnecessary suffering.
- B.
  
  Prevent use of political influence.
- C.
  
  Maintain a well-defined military plan.
- D.
  
  Provide equal representation of all combatants.
Correct Answer
A. Prevent unnecessary suffering.

Explanation
The Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) serves the fundamental purpose of preventing unnecessary suffering. It aims to establish rules and regulations that govern the conduct of armed forces during armed conflicts, with the objective of minimizing the suffering inflicted on individuals involved in the conflict. By setting limits on the methods and means of warfare, LOAC seeks to protect civilians, prisoners of war, and combatants who are no longer taking part in the hostilities. It emphasizes the importance of humane treatment, proportionality, and respect for human dignity in armed conflicts.

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48.

What is the key element in the design of forces that should be paramount to planners?
- A.
  
  Sustainability.
- B.
  
  Attainability.
- C.
  
  Flexibility.
- D.
  
  Simplicity.
Correct Answer
C. Flexibility.

Explanation
Flexibility is the key element in the design of forces that should be paramount to planners because it allows for adaptability and responsiveness in various situations. Planners need to consider the ever-changing dynamics and uncertainties in the environment, and having flexible forces enables them to quickly adjust and respond to emerging challenges or opportunities. Flexibility also ensures that forces can be deployed and utilized efficiently in different scenarios, maximizing their effectiveness and achieving desired outcomes.

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49.

What unit type code (UTC) is a 4-person team designed to provide 24-hour security forces (SF) augmentation to immediate headquarters for ground defense and weapons systems security functions?
- A.
  
  QFDB9.
- B.
  
  QFEBA.
- C.
  
  QFEBB.
- D.
  
  QFEBD.
Correct Answer
A. QFDB9.

Explanation
A 4-person team designed to provide 24-hour security forces (SF) augmentation to immediate headquarters for ground defense and weapons systems security functions would likely be classified as QFDB9.

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50.

What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with UTCs QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ staff support for a medium to large (130 – 180 personnel) deployed security forces (SF) unit?
- A.
  
  QFEBU.
- B.
  
  QFEPR.
- C.
  
  QFFPF.
- D.
  
  QFEBA.
Correct Answer
D. QFEBA.

Explanation
The correct answer is QFEBA. When deployed with UTCs QFEBB and QFEBS, QFEBA provides HQ staff support for a medium to large deployed security forces (SF) unit consisting of 130-180 personnel.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

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Current Version
Mar 20, 2023

Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team
Oct 19, 2013

Quiz Created by
Catherine Halcomb

3P071 Volume 2(Air Base Defense)

The tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) begins at the

The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is

At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base defense operations center (BDOC)?

What is the staff make-up for the S3?

In what way can subordinate joint force commands organize?

The primary mission of a joint operation is

When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, what is their mission?

A terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is

A typical organization of a terrorist group consists of

Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of

When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?

The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is

The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around what three principles?

What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?

Our first line of defense against intelligence collection efforts is

The primary purpose of the operations security (OPSEC) program is to

When should commanders and planners identify mission-critical information?

Which threat spectrum level consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerrillas?

Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?

Missions that primarily target nuclear weapons-related facilities are what threat spectrum level?

Which threat level uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (km)?

What group routinely manages the risk assessment process for commanders?

Compiling and examining all available information concerning potential threats by threat analysts is a/an

What assessment addresses the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel and assets, and should be conducted periodically?

The key to force protection (FP) countermeasure planning is

The capability to reduce the capability of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy to protect friendly assets and aim points with materials and equipment that alter or obscure part or all of their multispectral signatures is

To modify to prevent recognition of the true identity or character of an asset or activity is to

The political-military nature of military operations other than war (MOOTW) requires you to coordinate your activities

Military operations other than war (MOOTW) missions do not include

Which military operations other than war (MOOTW) principle never permits hostile factions to acquire a military, political, or informational advantage?

As a Total Force organization, a typical air and space expeditionary force (AEF) is responsive and capable of

What is the time limit for an air and space expeditionary force (AEF) package to respond to any unexpected contingency?

Based on the integrated base defense (IBD) concept of operations (CONOP), what are all Airmen considered?

What does security forces (SF) provide for the Integrated Base Defense (IBD) concept?

Which essential element of the integrated base defense (IBD) concept slows the enemy without the need for a massive response at the outset of an engagement?

What does the risk management process allow the commander to determine?

An expeditionary military force is defined as a force that conducts military operations

What does the Air Force maintain to support the on-call air and space expeditionary force (AEF), as well as on-call lead wings to open expeditionary bases?

The key to optimizing peacetime participation of the traditional guardsman and reservists who must balance military duties with full-time civilian employment is

Since unit type codes (UTC) are functionally grouped, what will all security forces UTCs have as a designator?

When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC is required, who may initiate the action for the change?

What is the list of all unit type codes (UTC) approved for use in planning?

Directing your operation toward a defined and attainable objective that contributes to operational and tactical claim is what principle of war?

Avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting military operations is what principle of war?

Commanders do not use rules of engagement (ROE) to ensure operations

Guidance on the application of force and exercising of the inherent right and obligation of self-defense is the purpose of the

What is one of the fundamental purposes of the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC)?

What is the key element in the design of forces that should be paramount to planners?

What unit type code (UTC) is a 4-person team designed to provide 24-hour security forces (SF) augmentation to immediate headquarters for ground defense and weapons systems security functions?

What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with UTCs QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ staff support for a medium to large (130 – 180 personnel) deployed security forces (SF) unit?