7 Level Vol 2(Aircraft Technology)

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Questions: 90 | Attempts: 2,790 | Updated: Mar 21, 2023

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7 Level Vol 2(Aircraft Technology) - Quiz

This is CDC's volume 2. This quiz consist of 90 questions. you must pass with a score of at least a 95

Questions and Answers

1.

The tactical area of responsibility begins at the
- A.
  
  Base defense operations center
- B.
  
  Point o insertion
- C.
  
  Base perimeter
- D.
  
  Resource
Correct Answer
D. Resource
2.

The primary responsibility of air base defense forces is
- A.
  
  Defeating level I threats, and disruping or delaying level II threats in the tactical area of responsibility surrounding the air base
- B.
  
  Defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level IV threat in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
- C.
  
  Stalling level I threats, and sisrupting o delaying level II threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base
- D.
  
  Defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level I threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
Correct Answer
A. Defeating level I threats, and disruping or delaying level II threats in the tactical area of responsibility surrounding the air base

Explanation
The primary responsibility of air base defense forces is to defeat level I threats, which are the most immediate and direct threats to the air base. Additionally, they are also responsible for disrupting or delaying level II threats, which are slightly less immediate but still pose a significant risk. This is done within the tactical area of responsibility surrounding the air base, where the defense forces have jurisdiction and control. By effectively addressing these threats, the air base defense forces ensure the safety and security of the air base and its operations.

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3.

At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base defense operations center?
- A.
  
  S1 and S3
- B.
  
  S2 and S4
- C.
  
  S2 and S3
- D.
  
  S3 and S4
Correct Answer
C. S2 and S3

Explanation
The base defense operations center requires at least S2 and S3 S-functions to operate. These two S-functions are essential for the functioning and coordination of the defense operations center. Without S2 and S3, the base defense operations center would not be able to effectively carry out its duties and responsibilities.

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4.

What is the staff make-up for the S3?
- A.
  
  The operations officer and staff
- B.
  
  Supply noncommissioned officer
- C.
  
  First sergeant or section commander
- D.
  
  Intelligence officers and security forces investigators
Correct Answer
A. The operations officer and staff

Explanation
The staff make-up for the S3 includes the operations officer and staff. This means that the S3 is composed of individuals who are responsible for coordinating and overseeing the operational activities of the organization. They work together to ensure that operations are carried out efficiently and effectively.

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5.

In what way can subordinate joint force commands organize?
- A.
  
  By rank and function
- B.
  
  By function and location
- C.
  
  By service component or function
- D.
  
  By service component and location
Correct Answer
C. By service component or function

Explanation
Subordinate joint force commands can organize by service component or function. This means that they can be structured based on the different branches of the military (such as Army, Navy, Air Force) or by specific functions within the command (such as logistics, intelligence, operations). This allows for efficient coordination and utilization of resources within the joint force command, ensuring that each service component or function is appropriately represented and contributing to the overall mission.

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6.

The primay mission of a joint operation is
- A.
  
  Lead host nation forces in defending and securing the rear area
- B.
  
  Sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force
- C.
  
  Disaster relief operations
- D.
  
  Humanitarian operations
Correct Answer
B. Sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force

Explanation
The primary mission of a joint operation is to sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force. This means that the joint operation is responsible for providing the necessary support and resources to ensure the success and continuation of the overall mission. This could include logistical support, intelligence gathering, coordination of forces, and any other tasks that are necessary to keep the campaign and major operations running smoothly.

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7.

When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, what is their mission?
- A.
  
  Determine which other countries support their beliefts
- B.
  
  Ensure state funding would continue to finance cause
- C.
  
  Destroy as much property as possible in a short period
- D.
  
  Persuade US and/or foreign governments to chance their policies
Correct Answer
D. Persuade US and/or foreign governments to chance their policies

Explanation
The mission of terrorists when they attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities is to persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies.

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8.

A terrorist grup that generally operatss independently of , but receives support from, on or more governments is
- A.
  
  Non-state supported
- B.
  
  State-supported
- C.
  
  Stated-directed
- D.
  
  State-organized
Correct Answer
B. State-supported

Explanation
State-supported refers to a terrorist group that operates independently but receives support from one or more governments. This support can come in various forms, such as funding, training, weapons, or safe havens. The term "state-supported" implies that the group is backed by a state or states, which may have their own political or strategic motivations for supporting the group's activities. This distinction is important because it highlights the involvement and complicity of governments in facilitating or enabling terrorist activities.

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9.

A typical organization of a terrorist group consist of
- A.
  
  Group leader, intelligenc officer, explosive specialist, and weapons specialist
- B.
  
  Hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support
- C.
  
  Hard-core cadre, submissive support, inactive leadrs, and low suppport
- D.
  
  Intelligence officer, inactive leaders, and active cadre
Correct Answer
B. Hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support

Explanation
The correct answer is "hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support." This answer accurately describes the typical organization of a terrorist group. The "hard-core leadership" refers to the top leaders who make strategic decisions and provide overall direction. The "active cadre" refers to the members who actively participate in carrying out terrorist activities. The "active support" refers to individuals who provide logistical support and assistance to the active cadre. Lastly, the "passive support" refers to individuals who may sympathize with the group's cause but do not actively participate in terrorist activities.

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10.

Generally, specially trained terrorists are of abover average intelligence and between the ages of
- A.
  
  16-24
- B.
  
  21-28
- C.
  
  23-30
- D.
  
  25-32
Correct Answer
C. 23-30

Explanation
This answer suggests that generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and fall within the age range of 23-30. This age range is often considered a prime period for individuals to be physically fit and mentally capable of carrying out complex tasks. Additionally, individuals within this age range may have completed their education and gained some life experience, making them more susceptible to extremist ideologies.

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11.

When are terrorist team members brought toegher for final rehearsal?
- A.
  
  Before execution of attack
- B.
  
  Just before departing for the target sight
- C.
  
  One week prior to schduled attack exectuion
- D.
  
  Never; terrorist team members do not conduct rehearsals.
Correct Answer
B. Just before departing for the target sight

Explanation
Terrorist team members are brought together for a final rehearsal just before departing for the target sight. This implies that the team members gather to practice and coordinate their actions shortly before they leave to carry out the attack.

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12.

The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
- A.
  
  Arson
- B.
  
  Bombing
- C.
  
  Hijacking
- D.
  
  Assassination
Correct Answer
B. Bombing

Explanation
The correct answer is bombing. Terrorist groups often resort to using bombs as a tactic to cause destruction, create fear, and achieve their objectives. Bombings can be carried out in various ways, such as suicide bombings, car bombings, or improvised explosive devices (IEDs). These attacks can target public places, transportation systems, government buildings, or other high-profile locations. Bombings have been used by numerous terrorist organizations worldwide, and their devastating impact makes them a preferred choice for inflicting mass casualties and generating widespread panic and terror.

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13.

The USAF antiterrorism program is designed around what three principles?
- A.
  
  State department intelligence assessments, threat levels, and threat conditions
- B.
  
  Force protection conditions, assessment factors, and threat levels
- C.
  
  Intelligence gathersing, threat level, and THREATCONSs
- D.
  
  Criminal threat, FPCONs, and the CARVER matrix
Correct Answer
B. Force protection conditions, assessment factors, and threat levels

Explanation
The USAF antiterrorism program is designed around force protection conditions, assessment factors, and threat levels. Force protection conditions refer to the measures taken to protect military personnel, facilities, and resources from potential threats. Assessment factors involve evaluating the likelihood and potential impact of a threat. Threat levels are used to categorize the level of threat and determine appropriate security measures. By considering these three principles, the USAF antiterrorism program aims to effectively mitigate and respond to potential terrorist threats.

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14.

What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interets?
- A.
  
  Activity
- B.
  
  Intentions
- C.
  
  Operational capability
- D.
  
  Operating environment
Correct Answer
B. Intentions

Explanation
The factor that is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests is intentions. This refers to the motivations and goals of the individuals or groups involved in carrying out terrorist attacks. The desire to cause harm or create fear, as well as the history of past attacks, can provide insight into the intentions of these terrorists. Understanding their intentions is crucial for developing effective counterterrorism strategies and preventing future attacks.

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15.

Our first line o defense against intelligence collection efforts is
- A.
  
  Communication security
- B.
  
  Computer security
- C.
  
  Information security
- D.
  
  Operations security
Correct Answer
D. Operations security

Explanation
Operations security refers to the measures taken to protect sensitive information and activities from being exploited by adversaries. It involves identifying critical information, analyzing potential threats, and implementing countermeasures to mitigate risks. By maintaining operational security, organizations can safeguard their operations and prevent unauthorized access or intelligence collection efforts. Communication security, computer security, and information security are also important aspects of overall security, but operations security specifically focuses on protecting sensitive operations and activities.

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16.

The primary purpose of the operations security program is to
- A.
  
  Support the OPSEC non commissioned officer-in-charge by ensuring the command or oragnization actively practices OPSEC.
- B.
  
  Support the wing commander by ensuring the command or organization has an OPSEC program
- C.
  
  Support the commander by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPESEC
- D.
  
  Prevent our communications from fallig into the wrong hands
Correct Answer
C. Support the commander by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPESEC

Explanation
The primary purpose of the operations security program is to support the commander by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPESEC. This means that the program is designed to help the commander protect sensitive information and prevent it from falling into the wrong hands. By actively practicing OPESEC, the command or organization can identify and mitigate potential vulnerabilities or threats to their operations, ensuring the security and effectiveness of their activities.

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17.

When should commanders and planners identify mission-critical information?
- A.
  
  At the earliest possile moment
- B.
  
  Only after the subordinate commanders have been notified
- C.
  
  Only after the review and approval from higher-head quarters commanders
- D.
  
  Never; commanders and planners should not have to identify and any critical information.
Correct Answer
A. At the earliest possile moment

Explanation
Commanders and planners should identify mission-critical information at the earliest possible moment. This is because identifying such information early allows for better planning, decision-making, and execution of the mission. By identifying mission-critical information early on, commanders and planners can assess the risks, allocate resources effectively, and develop appropriate strategies to achieve mission success. Delaying the identification of mission-critical information can lead to inadequate preparations and potentially impact the outcome of the mission. Therefore, it is crucial for commanders and planners to identify mission-critical information as soon as possible.

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18.

Which threat spectrum level consits of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerrillas?
- A.
  
  I
- B.
  
  II
- C.
  
  III
- D.
  
  IV
Correct Answer
B. II

Explanation
Threat spectrum level II consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerrillas. This level represents a higher level of threat compared to level I, as it includes organized groups that operate in unconventional ways and pose a significant challenge to conventional military forces. These small tactical units and guerrillas often employ tactics such as ambushes, hit-and-run attacks, and guerrilla warfare strategies, making them difficult to combat.

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19.

Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?
- A.
  
  Partisans
- B.
  
  Terrorists
- C.
  
  Sympathizers
- D.
  
  Agent activity
Correct Answer
C. Sympathizers

Explanation
Sympathizers are individuals who support a particular cause or group but may not directly engage in organized or planned activities. They may carry out random acts against targets of opportunity to express their support or solidarity. This behavior is characteristic of sympathizers rather than partisans, terrorists, or agent activity, which typically involve more organized and deliberate actions.

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20.

Missions that primarilyy target nuclear weapons-related facilities are what threat spectrum levels?
- A.
  
  IV
- B.
  
  III
- C.
  
  II
- D.
  
  I
Correct Answer
C. II

Explanation
Missions that primarily target nuclear weapons-related facilities pose a threat at the II threat spectrum level. This suggests that these missions are considered to be of moderate threat and require a certain level of attention and resources to address. It implies that the potential risks and consequences associated with these missions are significant enough to warrant a higher threat level classification.

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21.

Which threat level uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers?
- A.
  
  I
- B.
  
  II
- C.
  
  III
- D.
  
  IV
Correct Answer
C. III

Explanation
Threat level III uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers. This means that in threat level III, the focus is on deploying battalion-size units using helicopters to penetrate enemy lines and operate at a distance of 50 kilometers. This strategy allows for quick and efficient insertion of troops into enemy territory, enabling them to carry out missions effectively.

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22.

What group routinely manages the risk assessment process fro commanders?
- A.
  
  Force protection working
- B.
  
  Anti-terrorism working
- C.
  
  Physical security
- D.
  
  Threat working
Correct Answer
A. Force protection working

Explanation
Force protection working groups are responsible for managing the risk assessment process for commanders. These groups are specifically focused on ensuring the safety and security of military personnel, resources, and operations. They analyze potential threats and vulnerabilities, develop risk mitigation strategies, and provide recommendations to commanders for effective decision-making. By routinely managing the risk assessment process, force protection working groups play a crucial role in maintaining operational readiness and safeguarding military assets.

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23.

Compliling and examining all available information concerning potential threats by threat analysts is a/an
- A.
  
  Annual process
- B.
  
  Bi-annual process
- C.
  
  Monthly process
- D.
  
  Continual process
Correct Answer
D. Continual process

Explanation
Threat analysts continuously compile and examine all available information concerning potential threats. This process is ongoing and does not have a specific end or start date. It is a continual process because new threats can emerge at any time, and existing threats can evolve or change. Therefore, threat analysts must constantly monitor and analyze the information to stay updated and ensure effective threat detection and mitigation.

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24.

What assesment addresses the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel and assets, and should be conducted periodically?
- A.
  
  Risk
- B.
  
  Threat
- C.
  
  Vulnerability
- D.
  
  Anti-terrorism
Correct Answer
C. Vulnerability

Explanation
The correct answer is "vulnerability." Vulnerability assessment is a process that helps identify and evaluate potential weaknesses or vulnerabilities in the security of personnel and assets. It involves assessing the likelihood and impact of various physical threats to determine the level of risk. Conducting vulnerability assessments periodically is important to ensure that security measures remain effective and up to date.

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25.

The key to force protection countermeasure planning is
- A.
  
  The classified protection plan
- B.
  
  Protecting sensitive information
- C.
  
  The offensive force protection plan
- D.
  
  The defensive force protection plan
Correct Answer
B. Protecting sensitive information

Explanation
The key to force protection countermeasure planning is protecting sensitive information. This means that in order to effectively plan and implement countermeasures to protect forces, it is crucial to safeguard any sensitive information that could be exploited by adversaries. By ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of sensitive data, such as operational plans, troop movements, and intelligence, potential threats can be mitigated and the overall force protection can be enhanced.

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26.

The capability to reduce the capability of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy to protect friendly assets and aim points with mateials and equipment that alter or obscure part of al of their multispectral signatures is
- A.
  
  Cover, camouflage, and deception
- B.
  
  Concealing camouflage deceitfully
- C.
  
  Deceptive camouflage concealment
- D.
  
  Camouflage, concealment, and deception
Correct Answer
D. Camouflage, concealment, and deception

Explanation
The correct answer is "camouflage, concealment, and deception". This is because the given explanation describes the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy, which are all related to camouflage and concealment. Additionally, the use of deception is mentioned as a means to protect friendly assets and aim points. Therefore, the answer "camouflage, concealment, and deception" best encompasses all these elements.

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27.

To modify to prevent recognition of the true identiy of character of an asset or activity is to
- A.
  
  Hide
- B.
  
  Blend
- C.
  
  Decoy
- D.
  
  Disguise
Correct Answer
D. Disguise

Explanation
To modify something in order to prevent its true identity from being recognized, one would use the method of disguise. Disguise involves altering the appearance or characteristics of an asset or activity to make it appear as something else, thus concealing its true nature. This can be done through various means such as changing physical appearance, behavior, or even location. By disguising something, it becomes difficult for others to recognize its true identity, thereby ensuring secrecy or protection.

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28.

The political-military nature of military operations other than war requires you to coordinate your activities
- A.
  
  Through the department of state, drug enforcement agency, and immigration and naturalization service
- B.
  
  With a number of government and civilian agencies outside the depatment of defense
- C.
  
  Through the red cross, red crescent, and cooperative for assistance and relief everywhere
- D.
  
  Through the joint rear area commander
Correct Answer
B. With a number of government and civilian agencies outside the depatment of defense

Explanation
The correct answer suggests that the political-military nature of military operations other than war necessitates coordination with various government and civilian agencies outside the Department of Defense. This is because these operations often involve non-combat activities such as diplomacy, law enforcement, and humanitarian assistance, which require collaboration with other organizations and agencies to achieve the desired objectives.

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29.

Military operations other than war missions do not include
- A.
  
  Quarantine
- B.
  
  Peacekeeping
- C.
  
  Clandestine infiltration
- D.
  
  Humanitarian assistance
Correct Answer
C. Clandestine infiltration

Explanation
Military operations other than war missions are typically non-combat operations that are carried out by the military to achieve objectives other than traditional warfare. These operations often involve activities such as peacekeeping, humanitarian assistance, and quarantine measures. However, clandestine infiltration refers to covert operations that involve entering or infiltrating a target area or organization without being detected. It is not typically considered a part of military operations other than war missions, as it involves secretive and covert actions that are more closely associated with intelligence gathering or special operations.

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30.

Which millitary operations other than war principle never permeis hostile factions to acquire a military, political, or infomational advantage?
- A.
  
  Unity of effort
- B.
  
  Objective
- C.
  
  Restraint
- D.
  
  Security
Correct Answer
D. Security

Explanation
The principle of security in military operations other than war aims to prevent hostile factions from gaining any military, political, or informational advantage. It focuses on safeguarding sensitive information, maintaining operational security, and protecting critical infrastructure. By implementing security measures, the military ensures that hostile factions are unable to exploit vulnerabilities or gain an upper hand in any aspect, thereby maintaining the overall stability and effectiveness of the operation.

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31.

As a total force organization, a typical air and space expeditionary force is responsive and capable of
- A.
  
  Full spectrum of air and space domination
- B.
  
  Deploying to multiple geographic locations simultaneously
- C.
  
  Deploying to conduct broad range operations with minimum warning time
- D.
  
  Supporting multi-national forces under the control of host nation commanders
Correct Answer
C. Deploying to conduct broad range operations with minimum warning time

Explanation
A typical air and space expeditionary force is capable of deploying to conduct a broad range of operations with minimum warning time. This means that they can quickly and efficiently respond to various situations and carry out a wide range of missions, such as combat operations, humanitarian assistance, or disaster relief. They are able to do so with minimal advance notice, allowing them to rapidly mobilize and deploy to different locations as needed. This flexibility and responsiveness make them an effective force in addressing various challenges and supporting military operations.

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32.

What is the time limit for an air and space expeditionary force package to respond to any unexpected contingency?
- A.
  
  12 hours
- B.
  
  24 hours
- C.
  
  48 hours
- D.
  
  72 hours
Correct Answer
D. 72 hours

Explanation
The correct answer is 72 hours. This means that an air and space expeditionary force package has a time limit of 72 hours to respond to any unexpected contingency. This indicates that they must be prepared to mobilize and take action within 72 hours of being notified of a contingency situation. This timeframe allows for efficient and timely response to ensure readiness and effectiveness in addressing unexpected events.

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33.

What does securiy forces provide for the integrated base defense concept?
- A.
  
  Support
- B.
  
  Foundation
- C.
  
  Tactical operation
- D.
  
  Retrograde ooperations
Correct Answer
B. Foundation

Explanation
Security forces provide the foundation for the integrated base defense concept. They establish and maintain the necessary security measures and protocols to protect the base from potential threats. Without a strong foundation provided by security forces, the other aspects of integrated base defense, such as support, tactical operations, and retrograde operations, would not be effective. Security forces lay the groundwork for the overall security and protection of the base, making them an essential component of the integrated base defense concept.

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34.

Based on the integrated base defense concept of operations, what are all airmen cosidered?
- A.
  
  Detectors
- B.
  
  Monitors
- C.
  
  Fighters
- D.
  
  Sensors
Correct Answer
D. Sensors

Explanation
Based on the integrated base defense concept of operations, all airmen are considered sensors. This means that they play a crucial role in detecting and monitoring potential threats to the base. Airmen are responsible for observing their surroundings, reporting any suspicious activities, and providing important information to the base defense system. Their vigilance and awareness make them an integral part of the overall defense strategy.

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35.

Which essential element of the integrated base defense concepts slows the enemy whithout the need or a massive response at the outset of an engagement?
- A.
  
  Antcipate
- B.
  
  Detect
- C.
  
  Delay
- D.
  
  Deny
Correct Answer
C. Delay

Explanation
Delay is the correct answer because it refers to the essential element of the integrated base defense concepts that slows the enemy without requiring a massive response at the beginning of an engagement. By implementing delay tactics, such as deploying obstacles or conducting small-scale attacks, the enemy's progress can be hindered, buying time for a more effective response or reinforcements to arrive. This approach allows for a more strategic and controlled approach to defense, rather than immediately resorting to overwhelming force.

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36.

What does the risk management process llow the commander to determine?
- A.
  
  Countermeasures options
- B.
  
  If reassessments and ollow ups are needed
- C.
  
  Whether to introduce risk management process raining
- D.
  
  If there is a need to maximize live-fire training on full impact ranges
Correct Answer
A. Countermeasures options

Explanation
The risk management process allows the commander to determine countermeasures options. This means that by going through the risk management process, the commander can identify and evaluate potential risks and then decide on the appropriate actions or countermeasures to mitigate those risks. It enables the commander to assess the available options and choose the most effective measures to minimize or eliminate the identified risks.

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37.

An expeditionary military force is defined as a force that conducts military operations
- A.
  
  Within 24 hours of notification in response to a crisis with forces tailoed to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives
- B.
  
  On short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives
- C.
  
  On short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve unlimited and unclear objectives
- D.
  
  Within 72 hours in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stateed objectives
Correct Answer
B. On short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives

Explanation
An expeditionary military force is a force that can quickly respond to crises and conduct military operations with limited and clearly stated objectives. The force is specifically tailored to the situation at hand and can be deployed within a short notice, typically within 24 hours. This allows for a swift and targeted response to address the crisis effectively.

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38.

What does the air force maintain to support the on-call air and space expeditionary force, as well as on-call lead wings to open expeditionary bases?
- A.
  
  Two bomber group leads
- B.
  
  Three BGL's
- C.
  
  Four BGL's
- D.
  
  Five BGL's
Correct Answer
D. Five BGL's

Explanation
The air force maintains five BGL's to support the on-call air and space expeditionary force, as well as on-call lead wings to open expeditionary bases. These BGL's are responsible for coordinating and leading bomber group operations, ensuring effective communication and organization within the force. Having five BGL's allows for sufficient coverage and support for the various missions and operations that the air force undertakes.

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39.

The key to potimizing peacetime participation of the traditional guardsman and reservists whomust balance military duties wit full-time ivilian employment is
- A.
  
  Predictability
- B.
  
  Flexibility
- C.
  
  Mobility
- D.
  
  Stability
Correct Answer
A. Predictability

Explanation
The key to optimizing peacetime participation of traditional guardsmen and reservists who must balance military duties with full-time civilian employment is predictability. This means that these individuals need to have a clear understanding of their military obligations and schedules in advance, allowing them to effectively plan and manage their civilian work commitments. Predictability ensures that they can fulfill their military responsibilities without negatively impacting their civilian careers, ultimately maximizing their ability to contribute in both roles.

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40.

Since unit type codes are functionally grouped, what will all security forces UTCs have as a designator?
- A.
  
  UT
- B.
  
  FP
- C.
  
  AT
- D.
  
  QF
Correct Answer
D. QF

Explanation
The correct answer is QF because the question states that unit type codes are functionally grouped, implying that different types of units have different designators. Since the question specifically asks about security forces UTCs, it suggests that security forces units have the designator QF.

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41.

When the need for a new unity type code or a major change in an exiting UTC is required, who may initiate the action for the change?
- A.
  
  Any level
- B.
  
  Unit level
- C.
  
  Major command level
- D.
  
  Air staff level only
Correct Answer
A. Any level

Explanation
Any level may initiate the action for a new unity type code or a major change in an existing UTC. This means that individuals at any level within the organization have the authority and ability to propose and initiate these changes. It is not limited to a specific level or rank within the hierarchy. This allows for flexibility and adaptability within the organization to address evolving needs and requirements.

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42.

What is the list of all unit type codes approved for use in planning?
- A.
  
  Air force unit tasking document
- B.
  
  Air force-wide unit type code roster
- C.
  
  Air expeitionary unit tasking summary sheet
- D.
  
  Air force-wide unit type code availability system
Correct Answer
D. Air force-wide unit type code availability system

Explanation
The correct answer is "air force-wide unit type code availability system". This is the most appropriate option as it suggests a system that provides a list of all unit type codes approved for use in planning. The other options, such as the air force unit tasking document and air force-wide unit type code roster, may contain some unit type codes but do not specifically indicate that they provide a comprehensive list. The air expeditionary unit tasking summary sheet is unrelated to the question.

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43.

Directing your operaion toward a defined and attainable objective that contributes to operational and tactical claim is what principle of war?
- A.
  
  Maneuver
- B.
  
  Offensive
- C.
  
  Objective
- D.
  
  Mass
Correct Answer
C. Objective

Explanation
The principle of war being referred to in this question is "objective." This principle emphasizes the importance of having a clear and achievable goal in any military operation. By directing one's operations towards a defined objective, it ensures that the efforts are focused and purposeful, contributing to both operational and tactical success. The objective serves as a guiding point, allowing for effective planning and coordination of resources to achieve the desired outcome.

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44.

Avoiding unnecessary complexity in norganizing, preparing, planning, and conductging military operations is what principle of war?
- A.
  
  Unity of command
- B.
  
  Simplicity
- C.
  
  Objective
- D.
  
  Offensive
Correct Answer
B. Simplicity

Explanation
The principle of simplicity in war emphasizes the importance of avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting military operations. By keeping things simple, it becomes easier to understand and execute strategies, leading to more efficient and effective operations. This principle helps in reducing confusion, ensuring clear communication, and maximizing the chances of success on the battlefield.

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45.

Commanders do not use rules of engagement to ensure operations
- A.
  
  Follow the rule of law
- B.
  
  Meet manning standards
- C.
  
  Follow national policy goals
- D.
  
  Follow mission requirements
Correct Answer
B. Meet manning standards

Explanation
Commanders do not use rules of engagement to ensure operations, but they do meet manning standards. Manning standards refer to the requirement of having an adequate number of personnel to carry out a mission effectively. It is crucial for commanders to meet these standards to ensure that there are enough personnel available to perform the necessary tasks and responsibilities. Meeting manning standards helps ensure the smooth execution of operations and enhances the overall effectiveness of the unit or organization.

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46.

Guidance on the application of force and exercising of the inherent right and oblligation of self-defense is the purpose of the
- A.
  
  United nations
- B.
  
  Geneva convention
- C.
  
  Joint force commander's directives
- D.
  
  US military's standing rules of engagement
Correct Answer
D. US military's standing rules of engagement

Explanation
The US military's standing rules of engagement provide guidance on the application of force and the exercise of the inherent right and obligation of self-defense. These rules outline the specific circumstances under which military personnel are authorized to use force, including the types of threats that justify self-defense actions. They ensure that military operations are conducted within legal and ethical boundaries, promoting the protection of civilians and minimizing unnecessary harm. By following these rules, the US military aims to maintain discipline, accountability, and adherence to international laws during combat operations.

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47.

What is one of the fundamental purposes of the law of armed conflict?
- A.
  
  Prevent unnecessary suffering
- B.
  
  Prevent use of political influence
- C.
  
  Maintain a well-defined military plan
- D.
  
  Provide equal representation of all combatants
Correct Answer
A. Prevent unnecessary suffering

Explanation
The law of armed conflict is designed to prevent unnecessary suffering during times of war. It aims to establish rules and regulations that govern the conduct of armed forces, with the objective of minimizing the human cost of war. By prohibiting certain actions such as targeting civilians or using weapons that cause excessive harm, the law seeks to protect individuals who are not directly involved in the conflict. This helps to maintain a level of humanity and limit the suffering inflicted upon those affected by war.

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48.

What is the key elment in the design of forces that should be paramount to plannerrs?
- A.
  
  Sustainability
- B.
  
  Attainability
- C.
  
  Flexibility
- D.
  
  Simplicity
Correct Answer
C. Flexibility

Explanation
Flexibility is the key element in the design of forces that should be paramount to planners because it allows for adaptability and responsiveness to changing circumstances. In the planning process, it is important to anticipate and accommodate unforeseen challenges or opportunities. By incorporating flexibility into the design of forces, planners can ensure that their strategies and actions can be adjusted as needed, enabling them to effectively address evolving needs and achieve desired outcomes. This helps to increase the overall effectiveness and success of the planning process.

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49.

What unit type code is a r person team designed to provide 24 hour security forces augmentation to immediate headquarters for ground defense and weapons systems security functions?
- A.
  
  QFDB9
- B.
  
  QFEBA
- C.
  
  QFEBB
- D.
  
  QFEBD
Correct Answer
A. QFDB9

Explanation
The correct answer is QFDB9. This unit type code refers to a 24-hour security forces team designed to provide augmentation to immediate headquarters for ground defense and weapons systems security functions.

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50.

What unit type code , when deployed with UTCs QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ staff support for a medium to large deployed security forces unit?
- A.
  
  QFEBU
- B.
  
  QFEPR
- C.
  
  QFFPF
- D.
  
  QFEBA
Correct Answer
D. QFEBA

Explanation
The correct answer is QFEBA. When deployed with UTCs QFEBB and QFEBS, QFEBA provides HQ staff support for a medium to large deployed security forces unit.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

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Current Version
Mar 21, 2023

Quiz Edited by
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Jan 10, 2010

Quiz Created by
Bradyk

7 Level Vol 2(Aircraft Technology)

The tactical area of responsibility begins at the

The primary responsibility of air base defense forces is

At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base defense operations center?

What is the staff make-up for the S3?

In what way can subordinate joint force commands organize?

The primay mission of a joint operation is

When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, what is their mission?

A terrorist grup that generally operatss independently of , but receives support from, on or more governments is

A typical organization of a terrorist group consist of

Generally, specially trained terrorists are of abover average intelligence and between the ages of

When are terrorist team members brought toegher for final rehearsal?

The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is

The USAF antiterrorism program is designed around what three principles?

What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interets?

Our first line o defense against intelligence collection efforts is

The primary purpose of the operations security program is to

When should commanders and planners identify mission-critical information?

Which threat spectrum level consits of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerrillas?

Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?

Missions that primarilyy target nuclear weapons-related facilities are what threat spectrum levels?

Which threat level uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers?

What group routinely manages the risk assessment process fro commanders?

Compliling and examining all available information concerning potential threats by threat analysts is a/an

What assesment addresses the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel and assets, and should be conducted periodically?

The key to force protection countermeasure planning is

The capability to reduce the capability of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy to protect friendly assets and aim points with mateials and equipment that alter or obscure part of al of their multispectral signatures is

To modify to prevent recognition of the true identiy of character of an asset or activity is to

The political-military nature of military operations other than war requires you to coordinate your activities

Military operations other than war missions do not include

Which millitary operations other than war principle never permeis hostile factions to acquire a military, political, or infomational advantage?

As a total force organization, a typical air and space expeditionary force is responsive and capable of

What is the time limit for an air and space expeditionary force package to respond to any unexpected contingency?

What does securiy forces provide for the integrated base defense concept?

Based on the integrated base defense concept of operations, what are all airmen cosidered?

Which essential element of the integrated base defense concepts slows the enemy whithout the need or a massive response at the outset of an engagement?

What does the risk management process llow the commander to determine?

An expeditionary military force is defined as a force that conducts military operations

What does the air force maintain to support the on-call air and space expeditionary force, as well as on-call lead wings to open expeditionary bases?

The key to potimizing peacetime participation of the traditional guardsman and reservists whomust balance military duties wit full-time ivilian employment is

Since unit type codes are functionally grouped, what will all security forces UTCs have as a designator?

When the need for a new unity type code or a major change in an exiting UTC is required, who may initiate the action for the change?

What is the list of all unit type codes approved for use in planning?

Directing your operaion toward a defined and attainable objective that contributes to operational and tactical claim is what principle of war?

Avoiding unnecessary complexity in norganizing, preparing, planning, and conductging military operations is what principle of war?

Commanders do not use rules of engagement to ensure operations

Guidance on the application of force and exercising of the inherent right and oblligation of self-defense is the purpose of the

What is one of the fundamental purposes of the law of armed conflict?

What is the key elment in the design of forces that should be paramount to plannerrs?

What unit type code is a r person team designed to provide 24 hour security forces augmentation to immediate headquarters for ground defense and weapons systems security functions?

What unit type code , when deployed with UTCs QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ staff support for a medium to large deployed security forces unit?