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3dx5x CDC Volume 1

100 Questions
CDC Quizzes & Trivia

Unit Review Questions from Volume 1 CDCs.

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)?
    • A. 

      Core task

    • B. 

      Duty competency

    • C. 

      Core competency

    • D. 

      Duty position task

  • 2. 
    Which enlisted training element is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?
    • A. 

      Core task

    • B. 

      Duty competency

    • C. 

      Core competency

    • D. 

      Duty position task

  • 3. 
    Which 3D AFS focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout AF installations worldwide?
    • A. 

      Cyber Surety

    • B. 

      Client Systems

    • C. 

      Cyber Transport

    • D. 

      Cyber Systems Operations

  • 4. 
    Which 3D AFS responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and "hands-on"  maintenance actions?
    • A. 

      Cyber Surety

    • B. 

      Client Systems

    • C. 

      Cyber Transport

    • D. 

      Cyber Systems Operations

  • 5. 
    Which 3D AFS responisibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing fo standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?
    • A. 

      Spectrum Operations

    • B. 

      Ground Radar Systems

    • C. 

      Cable and Antenna Systems

    • D. 

      Radio Frequency Transmission

  • 6. 
    Which 3D AFS responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems?
    • A. 

      Spectrum Operations

    • B. 

      Ground Radar Systems

    • C. 

      Cable and Antenna Systems

    • D. 

      Radio Frequency Transmissions

  • 7. 
    Which 3D AFS responsibilites include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
    • A. 

      Spectrum Operations

    • B. 

      Ground Radar Systems

    • C. 

      Cable and Antenna Systems

    • D. 

      Radio Frequency Transmission

  • 8. 
    Who is the advisor for ALL matters affecting the career field?
    • A. 

      Unit Training Manager (UTM)

    • B. 

      Base functional manager (BFM)

    • C. 

      Major command functional manager (MFM)

    • D. 

      AF Career field manager (AFCFM)

  • 9. 
    Who is the FINAL authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the AFS career development course (CDC)?
    • A. 

      Unit Training Manager (UTM)

    • B. 

      Base Functional Manager (BFM)

    • C. 

      Major command functional manager (MFM)

    • D. 

      AF career field Manager (AFCFM)

  • 10. 
    Who assissts with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?
    • A. 

      UTM

    • B. 

      BFM

    • C. 

      MFM

    • D. 

      AFCFM

  • 11. 
    What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?
    • A. 

      UTM

    • B. 

      BFM

    • C. 

      MFM

    • D. 

      AFCFM

  • 12. 
    What is the MAIN goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?
    • A. 

      Modify training

    • B. 

      Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

    • C. 

      Conduct climate training surveys

    • D. 

      Review the occupational analysis report

  • 13. 
    Which AF Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would you reference safety information on "Material Handling and Storage Equipment?"
    • A. 

      91-46

    • B. 

      91-50

    • C. 

      91-64

    • D. 

      91-68

  • 14. 
    Which AF Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would you reference safety information on "Communications cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems?"
    • A. 

      91-46

    • B. 

      91-50

    • C. 

      91-64

    • D. 

      91-68

  • 15. 
    The (AFOSH) standard that you would reference safety information on data processing facilities is called AFOSH standard
    • A. 

      91-46

    • B. 

      91-50

    • C. 

      91-64

    • D. 

      91-68

  • 16. 
    From which of the following can a person absorb SELECTIVELY DAMAGING amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?
    • A. 

      Sunlight

    • B. 

      Microwaves

    • C. 

      Ionizing Radiation

    • D. 

      Nonionizing Radiation

  • 17. 
    Which (ORM) principle states that MOST logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the LOWEST acceptable risk?
    • A. 

      Accept no unnecessary risk

    • B. 

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level

    • C. 

      Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs

    • D. 

      Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels

  • 18. 
    Which (ORM) principle requests you to weight the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capability?
    • A. 

      Accept no unnecessary risk

    • B. 

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level

    • C. 

      Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs

    • D. 

      Integrate ORM into Operations and planning at all levels

  • 19. 
    Which ORM principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process?
    • A. 

      Accept no unnecessary risk

    • B. 

      Make risk decisions at hte appropriate level

    • C. 

      Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs

    • D. 

      Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels

  • 20. 
    Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by
    • A. 

      Providing adversaries access to useless data files on legacy systems

    • B. 

      Taking offensive measures to track adversaries and correct damage to sensitive data

    • C. 

      Denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary's ability to use cyberspace

    • D. 

      Allowing the adversaries to use the cyberspace domain so we can document the country they're from

  • 21. 
    Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control idustrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas?
    • A. 

      Joint Operability network

    • B. 

      Tactical data links network

    • C. 

      Strategic data control network

    • D. 

      Supervisory control and data acquisition

  • 22. 
    Which CENTER has the OVERALL authoritative sourcefor the status, control, and defense of AF networks?
    • A. 

      Area Processing Center (APC)

    • B. 

      Network Control Center (NCC)

    • C. 

      AF Network Operations Center (AFNOC)

    • D. 

      Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC)

  • 23. 
    Which CENTER is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provides Tier 3 (local level) on-site, and implements technical and physical network changes?
    • A. 

      Area Processing Center (APC)

    • B. 

      Network Control Center (NCC)

    • C. 

      AF Network Operations Center (AFNOC)

    • D. 

      Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC)

  • 24. 
    Which funtion or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages?
    • A. 

      Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)

    • B. 

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)

    • C. 

      Combat Communications Squadron (CCS)

    • D. 

      Expeditinary Communications Squadron (ECS)

  • 25. 
    Which function or organization was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF)?
    • A. 

      Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)

    • B. 

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)

    • C. 

      Combat Communications Squadron (CCS)

    • D. 

      Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS)

  • 26. 
    Which funciton or organization has the goal to manage AF core services, within the AFNetOps community to; reduce training, maintenance costs; increase operational flexibility and capacity to the warfighter?
    • A. 

      Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)

    • B. 

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)

    • C. 

      Combat Communications Squadron(CCS)

    • D. 

      Espeditionary Communications Sq. (ECS)

  • 27. 
    Which document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States?
    • A. 

      Constitution

    • B. 

      Bill of Rights

    • C. 

      United States Title Code 10

    • D. 

      Uniform Code of Military Justice

  • 28. 
    Which document authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of government and established ALL subordinate agencies including the ARMY, NAVY, AF, and Marine Corps?
    • A. 

      Constitution

    • B. 

      Bill of Rights

    • C. 

      United States Title Code 10

    • D. 

      Uniform Code of Military Justice

  • 29. 
    Which document serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding instruction and law?
    • A. 

      Constitution

    • B. 

      Bill of Rights

    • C. 

      US Title Code 10

    • D. 

      UCMJ

  • 30. 
    In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidate their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine?
    • A. 

      1994

    • B. 

      1995

    • C. 

      1997

    • D. 

      1998

  • 31. 
    In what year did the AF finalize and publish its information operations (IO) doctrine in August, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine?
    • A. 

      1994

    • B. 

      1995

    • C. 

      1997

    • D. 

      1998

  • 32. 
    Which publication type are directive policy statements of Office of the Secretary of the AF and HQ USAF to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility?
    • A. 

      AF Doctrines

    • B. 

      AF Pamphlets

    • C. 

      AF Instructions

    • D. 

      AF Policy Directives

  • 33. 
    Which publication type are informational publications which are "how to" documents?
    • A. 

      AF Pamphlets

    • B. 

      AF Instructions

    • C. 

      AF Publications

    • D. 

      AF Policy Directives

  • 34. 
    What provides us with the transmission of analog or digital bits of info to convey data over significant geographical distances to communicate?
    • A. 

      Broadcasts

    • B. 

      Transmissions

    • C. 

      Telecommunications

    • D. 

      Voice over Internet Protocol.

  • 35. 
    What tool provides essential online resoureces for the AF and its users at a single location?
    • A. 

      MyPay

    • B. 

      E-publishing

    • C. 

      AF Portal

    • D. 

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight

  • 36. 
    What tool is considered a KEY enabler for the info technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces?
    • A. 

      MyPay

    • B. 

      E-publishing

    • C. 

      AF Portal

    • D. 

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight

  • 37. 
    Which AF Portal feature enables authorized users to enter passwords once to gain access to ALL applications with no further log-in requirements/
    • A. 

      My base

    • B. 

      Single-sign-on

    • C. 

      Community of Practice

    • D. 

      Virtual Military Personnel Flgiht

  • 38. 
    Which AF portal feature provides a SECURE, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic where members of a group share info and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and/or solve group problems?
    • A. 

      My base

    • B. 

      Single-sign-on

    • C. 

      Community of Practice

    • D. 

      Virtual military personnel flight

  • 39. 
    Which AF Portal feature is considered a MAJOR benefit of the AF Portal?
    • A. 

      My base

    • B. 

      Single-sign on

    • C. 

      Community of Practice

    • D. 

      Virtal Military Personnel Flight

  • 40. 
    Which document would you reference for guidance on "Web Management and Internet Use?"
    • A. 

      AFI 33-118

    • B. 

      AFI 33-119

    • C. 

      AFI 33-127

    • D. 

      AFI 33-129

  • 41. 
    Prior to posting web content on an AF web page; which document would you reference regarding compliance of local clearance and approval Public Affairs rpocedures for posting information to the Internet/public Web sites?
    • A. 

      AFI 33-127

    • B. 

      AFI 33-129

    • C. 

      AFI 35 101

    • D. 

      AFI 35 108

  • 42. 
    When corresponding to an e-mail, which would you NOT use ot follow proper e-mail etiquette?
    • A. 

      Keep emails brief and to the point

    • B. 

      Read your email out loud to yourself

    • C. 

      Conssitently use the "Reply to All" feature

    • D. 

      Ensure attachments are appropriate to supplement your message

  • 43. 
    Which document is NOT considered an official government record?
    • A. 

      Published doctrines

    • B. 

      Geographical base maps

    • C. 

      Photographs of a retreat Ceremony

    • D. 

      Library reference or museum exhibtions

  • 44. 
    Records that are cosidered to be in FINAL format have which characteristic?
    • A. 

      Officially signed and not releaseed

    • B. 

      Officially signed and officially released

    • C. 

      Can be altered and are not officially released

    • D. 

      Can't be altered, but are not officially released

  • 45. 
    Records that are considered to be in DRAFT format
    • A. 

      Can be altered and are not officially released

    • B. 

      Cant be altered, but are officially released

    • C. 

      Cant be altered and are officially signed

    • D. 

      Officially signed and officially released

  • 46. 
    Who is charged wiht the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed BRMs?
    • A. 

      Base Records Manager

    • B. 

      Chief of Office of Records

    • C. 

      Command Records Manager

    • D. 

      FARM

  • 47. 
    Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?
    • A. 

      BRM

    • B. 

      COR

    • C. 

      CRM

    • D. 

      FARM

  • 48. 
    Who is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an AF org or contractor to perform records management?
    • A. 

      BRM

    • B. 

      COR

    • C. 

      CRM

    • D. 

      FARM

  • 49. 
    Who has the authority to appoint RCs within an office of Record?
    • A. 

      BRm

    • B. 

      COR

    • C. 

      CRM

    • D. 

      FARM

  • 50. 
    A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful info is know as a(n)?
    • A. 

      File

    • B. 

      Electronic Record

    • C. 

      Database

    • D. 

      Enterprise

  • 51. 
    A logical group of records are called a(n)?
    • A. 

      File

    • B. 

      Field

    • C. 

      Database

    • D. 

      Enterprise

  • 52. 
    An organized collection of data or data structures is known as a(n)?
    • A. 

      File

    • B. 

      Record

    • C. 

      Database

    • D. 

      Enterprise

  • 53. 
    Who is responsible for creating UNIQUE passwords for the office of primary responsibility (OPR) records custodian?
    • A. 

      BRM

    • B. 

      COR

    • C. 

      CRM

    • D. 

      FARM

  • 54. 
    Marking the records for filing is considered which step of file management?
    • A. 

      First

    • B. 

      Second

    • C. 

      Third

    • D. 

      Fourth

  • 55. 
    The PRIMARY purpose for maintaining records is to ensure
    • A. 

      Historical events are not forgotten

    • B. 

      The collection of data creates a welath of information

    • C. 

      We can provide information to deceision makeers whenever and wherever it is needed

    • D. 

      Data for individuals is readily available upon requrest and privacy act info is protected

  • 56. 
    What authorization generates a file disposition control label for EACH item listed on the office's file plan?
    • A. 

      NARA

    • B. 

      AFRIMS

    • C. 

      Local operations instructions

    • D. 

      Command operations directives

  • 57. 
    What determines the cutoff for active records/
    • A. 

      End period

    • B. 

      Archive date

    • C. 

      Retention Period

    • D. 

      Superseded date

  • 58. 
    A comprehensive term that specifies the destruction, salvage, and donation of records, or the transfer to a staging area or records center; and the transfer of records from one org to another is called a
    • A. 

      Retire

    • B. 

      Archive

    • C. 

      Acquisition

    • D. 

      Disposition

  • 59. 
    • A. 

      Casualties

    • B. 

      Base Closures

    • C. 

      Deployed AF Units

    • D. 

      Joint force operations

  • 60. 
    Which document is used for accountability purposes when retirement records are identified and prepared for federal records centers, staging areas or to transfer records to another org?
    • A. 

      AF Form 55

    • B. 

      AF Form 457

    • C. 

      Standard Form 50

    • D. 

      Standard Form 135

  • 61. 
    The proper way we destroy records to prevent compromise is by
    • A. 

      Placing them in approved staging containers

    • B. 

      Shipping it to Federan Records Centers in approved containers

    • C. 

      Altering the data on the records so in the event is compromised, it is recognizable

    • D. 

      Any method such as tearing, burning, or shredding; as long as personal data is not recognizable and byond reconstruction

  • 62. 
    AFPD 10-4, Operations planning: Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) aligns what requirements with a matching force generation model?
    • A. 

      Posturing

    • B. 

      Tempo Bands

    • C. 

      Unit type codes

    • D. 

      Joint manning document

  • 63. 
    Which org is responsible for (AEF) sourching of individual augmentees, joint manning document authorizations, and managing replacements for 365 day or greaters requirements?
    • A. 

      Global Force Management

    • B. 

      Air Force Personnel Center

    • C. 

      Combatant Commander

    • D. 

      Commander Air Combat Command

  • 64. 
    What places AEF forces in a "ready to deploy" state and supports global requirements, home station requirements or support to Combatant Commanders?
    • A. 

      Posturing

    • B. 

      Tempo bands

    • C. 

      Unit Type Codes

    • D. 

      Joint manning document

  • 65. 
    Who has the primary mission of providing the joint force air component commander JFACC with the tools necessary to fight and win a major theater war within the scope and coordination of all land, sea, and air forces?
    • A. 

      Global Force management

    • B. 

      AF Personnel Center

    • C. 

      Commander, AF Forces

    • D. 

      Air and Space Operations Center

  • 66. 
    Which document is the BASIC building block used in joint force planning and deployments of air and space expeditionary forces (AEF)?
    • A. 

      Posturing

    • B. 

      Tempo Bands

    • C. 

      Unit Type Codes

    • D. 

      Joint manning document

  • 67. 
    Which funtion is a stat of are ground to ground comm infrastructure designed to exchange secure and non secure voice, data, and video comms by way of line of sight (LOS), saterllite, or hard-wired resources/
    • A. 

      Designed operational capability

    • B. 

      Theater deployable communications

    • C. 

      Manpower and equipment force packaging

    • D. 

      Joint operation planning and execution system

  • 68. 
    Defense Support of Civil Authorites, Humanitarian Relief Operations, Non-combatant Evacuation Operations and support to International Law Enforement are all examples of
    • A. 

      Operational Capabilities Packages

    • B. 

      Theater deployable communications

    • C. 

      Manpower and equipment force packaging

    • D. 

      Air and Space Espeditionary Task Force force modules

  • 69. 
    Which funtion has the primary purpose of providing standard force pakcage descriptions of the force pakcages to be used to support contingency planning at all levels of command?
    • A. 

      Operational capabilities packages

    • B. 

      Theater deployable comms

    • C. 

      Manpower and equipment force packaging (MEFPAK)

    • D. 

      Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) force modules

  • 70. 
    A remotely piloted or self-piloted aircraft that can carry cameras, sensors, communications equipment, or other payloads is called a(n)?
    • A. 

      High altitude endurance

    • B. 

      Unmanned aerial vehicles (UAV)

    • C. 

      Type unit equipment detail file (TUDET)

    • D. 

      Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES)

  • 71. 
    As of September 2004, how many total flight hours have coaliton unmanned aircrafts flown to support Operation ENDURING FREEDOM and Operation IRAQI FREEDOM?
    • A. 

      80,000

    • B. 

      90,000

    • C. 

      100,000

    • D. 

      120,000

  • 72. 
    Which system focuses on providing exploitable digital imagery to the warfighter in near real-time?
    • A. 

      High altitued endurance

    • B. 

      Unmanned aerial vehicles

    • C. 

      Tactical unmanned Aerial vehicle

    • D. 

      Deiberate crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES)

  • 73. 
    Which theater deployable communications equipment characteristic requires equipment modules to be expandable and packaged for deployment in standard 19inch-rack mounted transit cases, vehicles, or shelterized configurations/
    • A. 

      Mobility

    • B. 

      Survivability

    • C. 

      Interoperavility

    • D. 

      Modularity-scalability

  • 74. 
    Which theater deployable communications equipment characteristic requires size, weight, power requirements, and equipment set-up times are kept to an absolute minimum to support the transportation, deployment, and operations in a deployed environment?
    • A. 

      Mobility

    • B. 

      Survivability

    • C. 

      Interoperability

    • D. 

      Modularity-Scalability

  • 75. 
    Which component of theater deployable communications (TDC) is a suite of modules and accessory kits serving as the backbone of a deployed communications network?
    • A. 

      Basic access module (BAM)

    • B. 

      Integrated communications access package (ICAP)

    • C. 

      Promina multiplexer (P-MUX)

    • D. 

      Flyaway tri-band satellite terminal (FTSAT)

  • 76. 
    Which system provides the capability to identify, sequence, and separate aircraft; provide final apprach guidance, and control instructions to aircraft at deployed locations in all types of weather?
    • A. 

      Global Command and Control System (GCCS)

    • B. 

      Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS)

    • C. 

      Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS)

    • D. 

      Deployable Air Traffic-Control and landing Systems (DATCALS)

  • 77. 
    Which system asset can be  tasked to provide liaison, control tower, Radar Apprach Control (RAPCON), precision landing, and mobile Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN) services as a standalone unit or in any combination?
    • A. 

      GCCS

    • B. 

      JWICS

    • C. 

      TBMCS

    • D. 

      Deployable Air Traffic Control and landing systems (DATCALS)

  • 78. 
    The 85th Engineering and Installation Squadron (EIS) is assigned to the
    • A. 

      ACC

    • B. 

      AMC

    • C. 

      AFSC

    • D. 

      SOC

  • 79. 
    Under what program does the DOD collect, process, produce, disseminate, and use info?
    • A. 

      GIG

    • B. 

      GCCS

    • C. 

      C4ISR

    • D. 

      TBMCS

  • 80. 
    What system provides connectivity between the US and allied forces for critical missions and enhances worlwide readiness, mobility, responsiveness, and operations?
    • A. 

      Global Info Grid (GIG)

    • B. 

      Global Command and Control System (GCCS)

    • C. 

      (C4ISR)

    • D. 

      TBMCS

  • 81. 
    Which system is emplyed at more than 600 sites across the global information grid (GIG) and interconnected through the SIPRNET?
    • A. 

      Global Broadcast Servie (GBS)

    • B. 

      Global command and Control System (GCCS)

    • C. 

      C4ISR

    • D. 

      TBMCS

  • 82. 
    Which MAJOR system emplys the Joint Operation Planning and Executiong System (JOPES), (GSORTS), (DCAPES), and (COP)?
    • A. 

      GBS

    • B. 

      GCCS

    • C. 

      C4ISR

    • D. 

      TBMCS

  • 83. 
    Which system PRIMARILY deals with logistics planning data, such as transportation, personnel, and material requirements?
    • A. 

      GBS

    • B. 

      GCCS

    • C. 

      GCSS

    • D. 

      TBMCS

  • 84. 
    Which system of interconnected computer networks is used by the United States Department of Defense and the US Department of State?
    • A. 

      GCCS

    • B. 

      JWICS

    • C. 

      TBMCS

    • D. 

      DATCALS

  • 85. 
    Which AF Specific system uses the GIG bakcbone for inter-site communications and was designed to provide an automated and integrated planning and execution capability to the Combat AFs (CAF) and Joint/Combined Forces?
    • A. 

      GCCS

    • B. 

      JWICS

    • C. 

      TBMCS

    • D. 

      DATCALS

  • 86. 
    Which system provides a solution to a decrease in manpower and increase in requirements, at the same time, taking advatntage of new technological developments to deliver superior connectivity, flexibility, speed, reliability, and joint interoperability?
    • A. 

      GCCS

    • B. 

      JWICS

    • C. 

      TBMCS

    • D. 

      DATCALS

  • 87. 
    Which command and control sturcture is a priority component of the GIG designed to support the President, SECDEF, and the JCS in the exercise of their responsibilities?
    • A. 

      GCCS

    • B. 

      NMCC

    • C. 

      NMCS

    • D. 

      SACCS

  • 88. 
    Which command an dcontrol sturcture is a primary network used to transmit the emergency atction messages (EAM) generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field?
    • A. 

      GCCS

    • B. 

      NMCS

    • C. 

      SACCS

    • D. 

      TBMCS

  • 89. 
    Which command and control structure has network node whose survivability is achieved using nuyclear hardened, equipment, redundant circuits, and alternate communications paths?
    • A. 

      GCCS

    • B. 

      NMCC

    • C. 

      NMCS

    • D. 

      SACCS

  • 90. 
    Which system was originally designed as a specialized system for ARMY, NAVY, and AF technicians to use as a tool to troubleshoot network problems?
    • A. 

      JEWELER

    • B. 

      SEAMARK

    • C. 

      NEWSDEALER

    • D. 

      STREAMLINER

  • 91. 
    Which program was created in response to the FY 97-03 Defense Planning Guidance that directed a "program to migrate to a multi-intelligence, common, interoperable, open systems ground systems architecture?
    • A. 

      DCGS

    • B. 

      NMCS

    • C. 

      SACCS

    • D. 

      TBMCS

  • 92. 
    Which sytems basic functions operational elements are tasking, processing, exploitation, and dissemination (TPED)?
    • A. 

      DCGS

    • B. 

      NMCS

    • C. 

      SACCS

    • D. 

      TBMCS

  • 93. 
    Which system is a radar tracker and correlator software program that is hosted on a powerful server based computer sstem, which takes inputs from long and short range radars and displays it all on a scope (computer monitor)?
    • A. 

      DCGS

    • B. 

      BCS-F

    • C. 

      NMCS

    • D. 

      SACCS

  • 94. 
    Which system capitalizes on the popular commercial direct broadcast satellite technology to provide critical information to the nation's warfighters?
    • A. 

      GBS

    • B. 

      DCGS

    • C. 

      BCS-F

    • D. 

      NMCS

  • 95. 
    Which system is a service that broadcasts via communication payloads on military satellites (Ka Band) and commercial satellites (Ku band)?
    • A. 

      GBS

    • B. 

      DCGS

    • C. 

      BCS-F

    • D. 

      NMCS

  • 96. 
    Which system is a USAF program supporting Global, DCS HF Entry, Mystic Star, and System of Inter-Americal Telecommunications for the AF (SITFAA) missions?
    • A. 

      GBS

    • B. 

      DCGS

    • C. 

      BCS-F

    • D. 

      HF-GCS

  • 97. 
    Which system provides high-quality voice/data HF and ultr-high frequency (UHF) satellite communications to the president, VP, cabinet members, andother senior government and military officials while aboard special airlift mission (SAM) aircraft?
    • A. 

      SEAMARK

    • B. 

      NORAD

    • C. 

      Mystic Star

    • D. 

      MISATCOM

  • 98. 
    Which system provides athe ability to rapidly detect and identify airborne targets with minimal or no support?
    • A. 

      GBS

    • B. 

      DCGS

    • C. 

      BCS-F

    • D. 

      GTACS

  • 99. 
    Which system can be deployed in either the Control Reporting Center or Control Reporting Element configurations?
    • A. 

      GBS

    • B. 

      DCGS

    • C. 

      BCS-F

    • D. 

      GTACS

  • 100. 
    What function provides the DOD with the capability to reach hundreds of thousands of people via Personal computers, Personal digital assistants, land and cell phones, pagers, BBs, and/or giant voice systems in real time?
    • A. 

      Command Post

    • B. 

      AtHoc's solutions

    • C. 

      Regional Warning System

    • D. 

      Command warning system