Toughest CPC Exam Quiz! Trivia
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM SECTION OF SURGERY SECTION :A new patient presents to the urgent care center with a laceration to the left elbow that happened 10 days ago and was not treated. An infected gaping wound was found, with resulting cellulitis to the forearm and upper left arm. Extensive irrigation and debridement using sterile water were performed but closure was not attempted pending resolution of the infection. Culture of the wound revealed streptococcus. The patient received 1, 200, 000 units of Bicillin CR IM and is to return in 3 days for follow up. The history and physical examination were problem focused.
- A.
881.11, 682.3, 041.00, 99201, 96372, J0540
- B.
881.11, 682.3, 041.00, 96372-LT, J0540
- C.
884.0, 041.00, 99201
- D.
881.01, 99281, 96372, J0540
Correct Answer
A. 881.11, 682.3, 041.00, 99201, 96372, J0540Explanation
The correct answer is 881.11, 682.3, 041.00, 99201, 96372, J0540. This answer includes the appropriate codes for the patient's condition and the procedures performed. The codes 881.11 and 682.3 indicate the laceration and cellulitis, respectively. The code 041.00 indicates the streptococcus infection. The code 99201 represents the level of evaluation and management service provided. The code 96372 represents the therapeutic, prophylactic, or diagnostic injection administered. The code J0540 represents the medication administered.Rate this question:
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- 2.
12-year-old female was chasing her friend when she fell through a sliding glass door sustaining three lacerations. Left knee 5.5 cm laceration, involving deep subcutaneous tissue and fascia, was repaired with layered closure using 1% lidocaine anesthetic. Right knee: 7.2 cm laceration was repaired under local anesthetic with a single-layer closure. Right hand: 2.5 cm laceration of the dermis was repaired with simple closure using Dermabond tissue adhesive.What are the correct ICD-9-CM and CPT procedure codes? Do not code anesthesia administration.
- A.
891.0, 882.0, E920.8, E849.0, 12005
- B.
891.1, 882.0, 12002-RT, 12032-51-LT, 17999-51-LT
- C.
894.0, 12032, 12002-LT, E/M code for Dermabond adhesive
- D.
891.0, 882.0, E920.8, E849.0, 12032-LT, 12004-51-RT
Correct Answer
D. 891.0, 882.0, E920.8, E849.0, 12032-LT, 12004-51-RTExplanation
The correct ICD-9-CM code for the left knee laceration is 891.0, which represents an open wound of the knee. The correct ICD-9-CM code for the right knee laceration is 882.0, which represents an open wound of the lower leg. The E codes E920.8 and E849.0 indicate the external causes of the injuries, with E920.8 representing an accident occurring in a place for recreation and sport, and E849.0 representing an accident occurring in a residential institution. The CPT procedure code 12032-LT represents the repair of a superficial wound of the lower leg, and the CPT procedure code 12004-51-RT represents the repair of a superficial wound of the hand.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Excision lesion on left shoulder, 2.5 X 1.0 X .5 cm, including circumferential margins. Excision lesion, skin of right cheek, 1.0 X 1.0 X .5 cm, including margins. Pathology report states that the skin lesion on the left shoulder is a lipoma and the lesion on the right cheek is a squamous cell carcinoma. The physician progress note states that the left shoulder was sutured with a layered closure, and the cheek was repaired with a simple repair. What are the correct code sets?
- A.
173.3, 214.8, 11641-RT, 11403-51-LT, 12031-51-LT
- B.
173.3, 214.8, 11641-RT, 12031-51-LT
- C.
173.3, 214.1, 11641-RT, 12031-51-LT
- D.
173.3, 11643-RT, 12031-51-LT
Correct Answer
A. 173.3, 214.8, 11641-RT, 11403-51-LT, 12031-51-LTExplanation
The correct code set is 173.3, 214.8, 11641-RT, 11403-51-LT, 12031-51-LT. The code 173.3 represents the diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma, and 214.8 represents the diagnosis of lipoma. The code 11641-RT represents the excision of the lesion on the left shoulder, and 11403-51-LT represents the excision of the lesion on the right cheek. The code 12031-51-LT represents the repair of the left shoulder with a layered closure.Rate this question:
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- 4.
OPERATIVE REPORT :Postoperative Diagnosis : Full thickness burn wound to anterior left lower leg. Operation: Split-thickness graft, approximately 35 centimeters; preparation of the wound. Procedure: Left lower leg was prepped and draped in the usual sterile fashion. The ulcer, which measured approximately 8 X 4 to 4.5 cm, was debrided sharply with Goulian knife until healthy bleeding was seen. Split-thickness skin graft was harvested from the left lateral buttock area approximately 4.5 to 5 cm X 8 cm at the depth of 14/1000 of an inch.What are the correct procedure codes reported by the physician for this procedure performned in the hospital outpatient surgical suite?
- A.
15220-LT, 15221-51-LT, 15002-51-LT
- B.
15100-LT
- C.
14021-LT, 15002-51-LT
- D.
15100-LT, 15002-51-LT
Correct Answer
D. 15100-LT, 15002-51-LTExplanation
The correct procedure codes reported by the physician for this procedure performed in the hospital outpatient surgical suite are 15100-LT and 15002-51-LT. The operative report states that a split-thickness graft was performed on the left lower leg to treat the full thickness burn wound. Code 15100-LT represents the debridement of the ulcer, which was done with a Goulian knife. Code 15002-51-LT represents the harvesting of the split-thickness skin graft from the left lateral buttock area.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Postoperative Diagnosis : Basal Cell Carcinoma of the forehead.Procedure: Excision of basal cell carcinoma with split-thickness skin graft.The area of the excision measured 5 X 4 cm in total.Attention was then turned to the skin graft. A pattern of the defect was transferred to the left anterior thigh using a new needle. A local infiltration was performed on the thigh. Using a free-hand knife, a split-thickness skin graft was harvested.
- A.
195.0, 15120
- B.
173.3, 15120
- C.
173.3, 15120, 11646
- D.
195.0, 15002, 15120
Correct Answer
C. 173.3, 15120, 11646Explanation
The given answer, 173.3, 15120, 11646, represents the correct CPT codes for the procedure described in the postoperative diagnosis. CPT code 173.3 corresponds to the excision of the basal cell carcinoma, while CPT code 15120 represents the harvesting of the split-thickness skin graft. The additional code 11646 indicates the transfer of the defect pattern to the left anterior thigh. Therefore, this answer accurately reflects the different components of the procedure performed.Rate this question:
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- 6.
A five-year-old boy was brought to the ER by a social worker who discovered him alone in spasms, and seizures. The Social Worker relates that the child's older sister told her the boy was bitten on the hand by a raccoon he played with 11 days ago. No treatment was sought for the injury at the time, but the area was inflamed and hot. According to the Social Worker, the mother is a drug addict and often leaves the children unattended, illness actually began 2 days ago with a headache and restlessness and inflammation at the wound site.The child expired due to cardiorespiratory failure before any effectivetreatment could be administered. CPR was performed but was not successful. The physician's diagnosis was listed as Rhabdovirus from infected raccoon bite, not treated due to child's neglect. Critical care was provided for 60 minutes. Which of the following code sets will be provided?
- A.
071, 882.1, E906.3, E968.4, E967.2, 99291, 92950
- B.
079.89, 99285
- C.
799.1, 780.39, 780.6, 882.1, E906.3, E968.4, E967.2, 92950
- D.
071,780.39, 780.6, 92950
Correct Answer
A. 071, 882.1, E906.3, E968.4, E967.2, 99291, 92950Explanation
The correct answer is 071, 882.1, E906.3, E968.4, E967.2, 99291, 92950. The diagnosis of Rhabdovirus from an infected raccoon bite, combined with the neglect of the child's wound and the mother's drug addiction, suggests that the child's condition was a result of an untreated infection. The codes provided include 071 for the viral infection, 882.1 for the wound, E906.3 for the neglect, E968.4 for the drug addiction, E967.2 for the child being left unattended, 99291 for critical care, and 92950 for CPR.Rate this question:
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- 7.
A 49-year-old female sustained injuries to the forehead, 1.5 cm. And a 1 cm wound to the eyebrow when she hit her steering wheel with her head. The closure was layered. Code the service only.
- A.
12001
- B.
12011
- C.
13131
- D.
12051
Correct Answer
D. 12051Explanation
The correct answer is 12051. This code is used for the repair of a wound on the forehead and eyebrow, which were both closed using a layered closure technique. The size of the wounds (1.5 cm and 1 cm) is not relevant for coding purposes in this case.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The burn patient had a 20 sq cm Biobrane skin graft the upper right leg and a 30 sq cm Biobrane skin graft of the lower left leg.
- A.
15271
- B.
15271-RT
- C.
15271-RT; 15271-LT, 15272-LT
- D.
15271-RT; 15271-LT X 2
Correct Answer
C. 15271-RT; 15271-LT, 15272-LTExplanation
The correct answer is 15271-RT; 15271-LT, 15272-LT. This answer is correct because it includes the appropriate codes for the skin grafts performed on both the upper right leg and the lower left leg. The code 15271-RT represents the skin graft on the upper right leg, while 15271-LT represents the skin graft on the lower left leg. Additionally, the code 15272-LT is included to indicate an additional skin graft performed on the lower left leg.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Stacey a 35-year-old female presents for biopsies of both breasts. The biopsies were done using fine-needle aspiration with imaging guidance.
- A.
19103-50
- B.
19102-50
- C.
10022-50
- D.
10021
Correct Answer
C. 10022-50Explanation
The correct answer is 10022-50. This code represents a biopsy procedure that was done on both breasts using fine-needle aspiration with imaging guidance. The "-50" modifier indicates that the procedure was performed bilaterally. The other codes listed do not accurately describe the specific procedure and circumstances mentioned in the question.Rate this question:
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- 10.
MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM ----- 20000 SeriesDon a 36-year-old male, fell 4 feet off scaffolding and hit his left heel on the bottom rung of the support, fracturing his calcaneal bone in several locations. The surgeon manipulated the bone pieces back in to position and secured the fracture sites with percutaneous fixation.
- A.
28456-LT
- B.
28415-LT
- C.
28405-LT
- D.
28406-LT
Correct Answer
D. 28406-LTExplanation
The correct answer is 28406-LT. This code represents an open treatment of a complicated calcaneal fracture, which involves manipulation of the bone pieces and securing the fracture sites with percutaneous fixation. The other codes listed do not accurately describe the specific treatment performed in this case.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Tracy a 5-year-old female fell down stairs at a daycare. She hit her coccygeal bone and fractured it. The doctor manually manipulated the bone into the proper alignment and told Tracy's mom to have her sit on a rubber ring to alleviate pain.
- A.
27200
- B.
27202
- C.
27510
- D.
28445
Correct Answer
A. 27200Explanation
Tracy fell down the stairs and fractured her coccygeal bone. The doctor manually manipulated the bone into the proper alignment, which suggests that Tracy had a dislocation or subluxation of the coccyx. The code 27200 is for manipulation of the coccyx, which aligns with the doctor's action. The other codes listed do not pertain to the specific treatment mentioned in the scenario.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Fred, a 40-year old carpenter at a local college. While working on a window frame from a ladder, the weld on the rung of the metal ladder loosened and he fell backward 8 ft. He landed on his left hip, dislocating it. Under general anesthesia, the Allis maneuver is used to repair the anterior dislocation of the right hip. The pelvis is stabilized and pressure applied to the thigh to reduce the hip and bring it into proper alignment.
- A.
27252
- B.
27253-LT
- C.
27250-LT
- D.
27252-LT
Correct Answer
D. 27252-LTExplanation
The correct answer is 27252-LT. This code represents the repair of an anterior dislocation of the right hip using the Allis maneuver under general anesthesia. The procedure involves stabilizing the pelvis and applying pressure to the thigh to reduce the hip and bring it into proper alignment. The -LT modifier indicates that the procedure was performed on the left side of the body.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A 12-year-old female sustained multiple tibial tuberosity fractures of the left knee while playing soccer at her local track meet. The physician extended the left leg and manipulated several fragments back into place. The knee was then aspirated. A long-leg knee brace was then placed on the knee.
- A.
27330-LT
- B.
27550-LT
- C.
27334-LT
- D.
27538-LT
Correct Answer
D. 27538-LTExplanation
The correct answer is 27538-LT. This code represents the application of a long-leg knee brace. In this case, the 12-year-old female sustained multiple tibial tuberosity fractures, and after the physician manipulated the fragments back into place and aspirated the knee, a long-leg knee brace was placed on the knee. Therefore, 27538-LT is the appropriate code to represent this procedure.Rate this question:
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- 14.
By manipulation, under general anesthesia a 6-year-old left tarsal's dislocation was reduced. Correct alignment was confirmed by a two-view intraoperative x-rays. A short leg cast was then applied to the left leg. Code only the reduction service.
- A.
28545-LT
- B.
28545-LT, 29405-LT, 73620
- C.
28545-LT, 29405-LT-51
- D.
28540-LT, 73620
Correct Answer
A. 28545-LTExplanation
The correct answer is 28545-LT because it is the only code that represents the reduction service. The other codes included in the options are either unrelated or not applicable to the given scenario.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Dr. Devine applied a cranial halo to Gary to stabilize the cervical spine in preparation for x-rays and subsequent surgery. The scalp was sterilized and local anesthesia injected over the pin insertion sites. Posterior and anterior cranial pins are inserted and the halo device attached.
- A.
20664
- B.
20664, 96372
- C.
20661
- D.
20661, 96372
Correct Answer
C. 20661Explanation
The correct answer is 20661. This code represents the insertion of cranial pins for a halo device. In the given scenario, Dr. Devine applied a cranial halo to stabilize the cervical spine. The procedure involved sterilizing the scalp, injecting local anesthesia, and inserting posterior and anterior cranial pins. Therefore, the correct code to represent this procedure is 20661.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Charley was playing in the backyard when his sister fired a pellet gun at his left leg and hit him from close range. The pellet penetrated the skin and lodged in the muscle underlying the area. The doctor removed the pellet without complication or incident. Code the procedure only.
- A.
10121-LT
- B.
20520-LT
- C.
20525-LT
- D.
10120-LT
Correct Answer
B. 20520-LTExplanation
The correct answer is 20520-LT. This code represents the procedure of removing a foreign body from the subcutaneous tissue or muscle. In this case, the pellet that penetrated Charley's skin and lodged in the muscle was successfully removed by the doctor.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Steve presents with a deep, old hematoma on his right shoulder. After examination of the shoulder area, the doctor decides that the hematoma needs to be incised and drained.
- A.
10160-RT
- B.
23030-RT
- C.
10140-RT
- D.
10060-RT
Correct Answer
B. 23030-RTExplanation
The correct answer is 23030-RT. This code represents the incision and drainage of a soft tissue abscess or hematoma. Since Steve presents with a deep, old hematoma on his right shoulder, this procedure is necessary to remove the accumulated blood and promote healing. The -RT modifier indicates that the procedure was performed on the right side of the body.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The surgeon performed an arthrodesis, including a laminectomy of the L1 and L2 segments. Approach was posterior with a posterior interbody technique.
- A.
22630; 22632
- B.
22633 X 2
- C.
22634 X 2
- D.
22633; 22634
Correct Answer
D. 22633; 22634Explanation
The correct answer is 22633; 22634. The surgeon performed a laminectomy of the L1 and L2 segments, which is coded as 22633. Additionally, they performed an arthrodesis, which is coded as 22634. Since the question states that the approach was posterior with a posterior interbody technique, it suggests that two levels were treated, hence the need for two codes.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Brandon comes into the orthopedic department today with his father after falling from the top bunk bed, where he and his sister were playing. Cole is having pain in his left lower leg and is unable to bear weight on it. Brandon istaken to the x-ray department. After the physician talks with the radiologist regarding the diagnosis of sprained ankle, the physician decides to apply a short leg cast, designed for walking, just below Brandon's knee to his toes.
- A.
29405-LT, 845.00, E884.4, E849.0
- B.
29425-LT, 845.00, E884.4, E849.0
- C.
29515-LT, 845.00, E888.9, E849.0
- D.
29405-LT, 845.00, E844.4
Correct Answer
B. 29425-LT, 845.00, E884.4, E849.0 -
- 20.
A child is seen in the office for a superficial laceration of the right knee. The physician repairs the 3.0 cm. laceration with simple suturing.
- A.
12002-RT
- B.
13120-RT
- C.
12031-RT
- D.
12007-50
Correct Answer
A. 12002-RTExplanation
The correct answer is 12002-RT. This code represents the repair of a superficial laceration of the right knee using simple suturing. The code 13120-RT is incorrect because it represents the repair of a complex laceration, not a superficial one. The code 12031-RT is incorrect because it represents the repair of a deep laceration, not a superficial one. The code 12007-50 is incorrect because it represents the repair of a wound that requires complex closure techniques, such as the use of adhesive strips or tissue adhesives, not simple suturing.Rate this question:
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- 21.
A woman presents to the Emergency Department for a deep 3.5 cm wound of the right arm. A routine cleansing and layer closure was required.
- A.
12031-RT
- B.
12032-RT
- C.
10121-RT
- D.
10061-RT
Correct Answer
B. 12032-RTExplanation
The correct answer is 12032-RT. This code represents the closure of a wound that requires a more extensive procedure, such as layered closure, due to its depth. The other codes listed do not specify the closure of a deep wound or the need for layered closure.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Sam is treated for multiple wounds of the right forearm, hand and knee. The physician sutured the following : simple repair, 2.5 cm forearm; intermediate repair, 1.5 cm. hand; 2.0 cm. simple repair, right knee.
- A.
12041-RT, 12002-RT
- B.
12041-RT, 12002-RT-51
- C.
11600-RT, 11420-RT
- D.
11400-RT, 11420-51-RT
Correct Answer
B. 12041-RT, 12002-RT-51Explanation
The correct answer is 12041-RT, 12002-RT-51. The physician performed a simple repair on a 2.5 cm wound on the forearm (12041-RT) and an intermediate repair on a 1.5 cm wound on the hand (12002-RT). The -RT modifier indicates that the procedure was performed on the right side of the body. The -51 modifier indicates that the second procedure (12002-RT) is a separate and distinct procedure from the first one (12041-RT).Rate this question:
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- 23.
CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM : 30000 SeriesA 69-year-old male is admitted for coronary ASHD. A prior cardiac catheterization showed numerous native vessels to be 70% to 100% blocked. The patient was then taken to the operating room. After opening the chest and separating the rib cage, a coronary artery bypass was performed using five venous grafts and four coronary arterial grafts. Code the graft procedure(s) and the diagnosis :
- A.
33514, 414
- B.
33536, 33517-51, 414.9
- C.
33533, 33522, 414.05
- D.
33536, 33522, 414.01
Correct Answer
D. 33536, 33522, 414.01Explanation
The correct answer is 33536, 33522, 414.01. The code 33536 represents the coronary artery bypass procedure using five venous grafts, and the code 33522 represents the coronary artery bypass procedure using four arterial grafts. The diagnosis code 414.01 represents coronary atherosclerosis of native coronary artery with angina pectoris. Therefore, this answer accurately represents the graft procedure(s) performed and the diagnosis of the patient.Rate this question:
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- 24.
An arterial catheterization is coded how?
- A.
36600
- B.
36620
- C.
36640
- D.
36620, 36625
Correct Answer
B. 36620Explanation
An arterial catheterization is coded as 36620.Rate this question:
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- 25.
A patient is taken to the operating room for a ruptured spleen. A partial splenectomy and repair of a rupture was done.
- A.
38101, 865.14
- B.
38101-58, 38115-51, 289.59
- C.
38115, 289.59
- D.
38120, 865.04
Correct Answer
C. 38115, 289.59Explanation
The correct answer is 38115, 289.59. This answer is correct because 38115 represents the code for a partial splenectomy, which is the surgical procedure that was performed on the patient. Additionally, 289.59 represents the code for the repair of a rupture, which was also done during the surgery. Therefore, this answer accurately represents the procedures that were performed on the patient in the operating room.Rate this question:
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- 26.
A 50-year-old patient has a PICC line with a port placed for chemotherapy infusion. Fluoroscopic guidance was used to gain access to check placement.
- A.
35651, 77001
- B.
36568, 76937
- C.
36571, 76937
- D.
36571, 77001
Correct Answer
D. 36571, 77001Explanation
The correct answer is 36571, 77001. The first code, 36571, represents the placement of a central venous catheter, which includes fluoroscopic guidance. This code is appropriate for the insertion of the PICC line with a port. The second code, 77001, represents fluoroscopic guidance for needle placement, which is used to confirm the correct positioning of the PICC line. Together, these codes accurately describe the procedure performed on the 50-year-old patient with a PICC line and port for chemotherapy infusion.Rate this question:
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- 27.
The 55-year-old female was seen previously for a laparoscopic biopsy of her cervical lymph nodes. The biopsy came back showing abnormal cells. The decision was made to do a lymphadenectomy. The patient was brought to the operating room and put under general anesthesia. When the radical neck dissection was complete, the lymph nodes were excised. The patient was returned to recovery in satisfactory condition. Code the lymphadenectomy only.
- A.
38724
- B.
38571
- C.
38720, 38570-51
- D.
38720, 38500-51
Correct Answer
A. 38724Explanation
The correct answer is 38724. This code is used to report a complete lymphadenectomy, which involves the removal of lymph nodes in a specific area. In this case, the patient underwent a radical neck dissection, which is a type of lymphadenectomy. The other options do not accurately represent the procedure performed.Rate this question:
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- 28.
For revascularization therapy of the femoral/popliteal territory, how many codes should be used for a combination angioplasty, stent and angioplasty?
- A.
One ----- 37230
- B.
Three
- C.
One but use an Add-on code for any additional Vessels
- D.
None of the Answers are Correct
Correct Answer
A. One ----- 37230Explanation
For revascularization therapy of the femoral/popliteal territory, only one code should be used for a combination angioplasty, stent, and angioplasty. The correct code for this procedure is 37230. This means that the correct answer is "One - 37230." The other options, including using three codes or using an add-on code for additional vessels, are not applicable in this case.Rate this question:
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- 29.
RESPIRATORY SYSTEMPREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS : Deviated septum.PROCEDURE PERFORMED : Septoplasty; Resection of inferior turbinatesThe patient was taken to the operating room and placed under general anesthesia. The fracture of the inferior turbinates was first performed to do the septoplasty. Once this was done, the septoplasty was completed and the turbinates were placed back in their original position. The patient was taken to recovery in satisfactory condition. Code the procedure(s) and the diagnosis :
- A.
30520, 30140-51, 470
- B.
30520, 30130, 470
- C.
30520, 30130-51, 470
- D.
30520, 30140-51, 802.0
Correct Answer
A. 30520, 30140-51, 470Explanation
The correct answer is 30520, 30140-51, 470. The reason for this is that the preoperative diagnosis was a deviated septum, and the procedure performed was a septoplasty and resection of inferior turbinates. The code 30520 represents the septoplasty, the code 30140-51 represents the resection of inferior turbinates, and the code 470 represents the deviated septum diagnosis.Rate this question:
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- 30.
RESPIRATORY SYSTEMThe patient is seen at the clinic for chronic sinusitis. It is determined that an endoscopic sinus surgery is scheduledd for the next day. The patient arrives for same-day surgery, and the physician performs an endoscopic total ethmoidectomy with an endoscopic maxillary antrostomy with removal of maxillary tissue. Code the procedure(s) and diagnosis.
- A.
31255, 31267-51, 473.9
- B.
31200, 31225-51, 473.9
- C.
31254, 31256-51, 473.9
- D.
31255, 31267-51, 461.9
Correct Answer
A. 31255, 31267-51, 473.9Explanation
The correct answer is 31255, 31267-51, 473.9. This is because the physician performed an endoscopic total ethmoidectomy and an endoscopic maxillary antrostomy with removal of maxillary tissue. The codes 31255 and 31267-51 accurately represent these procedures. The diagnosis code 473.9 is appropriate for chronic sinusitis.Rate this question:
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- 31.
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM : 40000 seriesGary is admitted to same-day surgery for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy.
- A.
47562
- B.
47600
- C.
47562, 47550
- D.
47560
Correct Answer
A. 47562Explanation
The correct answer is 47562. This code represents a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, which is the surgical removal of the gallbladder using a minimally invasive technique. The other codes listed do not accurately describe this specific procedure.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Code an excision of a ruptured appendix with generalized peritonitis.
- A.
49020
- B.
49021
- C.
44960
- D.
44960-22
Correct Answer
C. 44960Explanation
The correct answer is 44960. This code represents the excision of a ruptured appendix with generalized peritonitis. Generalized peritonitis refers to inflammation and infection of the lining of the abdominal cavity. The code 44960 specifically indicates the surgical removal of the appendix in this condition.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Code an ERCP with sphincterotomy
- A.
43260
- B.
43264
- C.
43262
- D.
43262, 43273
Correct Answer
C. 43262Explanation
The correct answer is 43262. This code represents an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) procedure with sphincterotomy. ERCP is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure used to visualize the bile ducts and pancreatic ducts. Sphincterotomy is the cutting of the sphincter muscle to allow better access to these ducts. Therefore, 43262 is the appropriate code for this combination of procedures.Rate this question:
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- 34.
When the physician does not specify the method used to remove a lesion during an endoscopy, what is the appropriate procedure?
- A.
Assign the removal by snare technique code as a default.
- B.
Assign the removal by hot biopsy forceps code
- C.
Assign the ablation code
- D.
Query the physician as to the method used.
Correct Answer
D. Query the physician as to the method used.Explanation
When the physician does not specify the method used to remove a lesion during an endoscopy, the appropriate procedure is to query the physician as to the method used. This is necessary because accurate coding requires specific information about the procedure performed. Without knowing the method used, it is not possible to assign the correct code for the removal of the lesion. Therefore, it is important to communicate with the physician to obtain the necessary information for accurate coding.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Excision of parotid tumor or gland or both. Once the patient was under general anesthesia, successfully, Dr. White assisted by Dr. Green, opened the area in which the parotid gland is located. After inspecting the gland, the decision was made to excise the total gland because of the size of the tumor (5 cm.). With careful dissection and preservation of the facial nerve, the parotid gland was removed. The wound was cleaned and closed, and the patient was brought to recovery in satisfactory condition. Report one Dr. Green's service.
- A.
11426. 239.8
- B.
42420-80, 239.8
- C.
42410-80, 97597, 142.0
- D.
42426-62, 210.2
Correct Answer
B. 42420-80, 239.8Explanation
The correct answer is 42420-80, 239.8. The code 42420-80 represents the excision of the parotid gland or tumor. The modifier -80 indicates that an assistant surgeon (Dr. Green) was involved in the procedure. The diagnosis code 239.8 corresponds to the size of the tumor (5 cm).Rate this question:
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- 36.
This 10-year-old girl presents for a tonsillectomy because of chronic tonsillitis and possible adenoidectomy. On inspection the adenoids were found not to be inflamed. Only the tonsillectomy was done. Code the tonsillectomy only.
- A.
42825, 474.00
- B.
42820, 474.10
- C.
42826, 42835-51, 474.02
- D.
42830, 42825-51, 474.1
Correct Answer
A. 42825, 474.00Explanation
The correct answer is 42825, 474.00. This is the correct code for a tonsillectomy only. The patient presented with chronic tonsillitis and possible adenoidectomy, but upon inspection, the adenoids were found not to be inflamed. Therefore, only the tonsillectomy was performed. The code 42825 accurately represents this procedure. The diagnosis code 474.00 is also correct, as it corresponds to chronic tonsillitis.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which code would you use to report a rigid proctosigmoidoscopy with guide wire?
- A.
45303
- B.
45339
- C.
52260
- D.
45386
Correct Answer
A. 45303 -
- 38.
A 63-year-old male present to Acute Surgical Care for a sigmoidoscopy. The physician inserts a flexible scope into the patient's rectum and determines the rectum is clear of polyps. The scope is advanced to the sigmoid colon, and a total of three polyps are found. Using the snare technique, the polyps are removed. The remainder of the colon is free of polyps. The flexible scope is withdrawn.
- A.
44110, 153.9
- B.
44111, 153.3
- C.
45383, 211.3
- D.
45338, 211.3
Correct Answer
D. 45338, 211.3Explanation
The correct answer is 45338, 211.3. The given scenario describes a sigmoidoscopy procedure where three polyps are found and removed using the snare technique. The code 45338 represents the removal of polyps by snare technique in the sigmoid colon. The diagnosis code 211.3 corresponds to benign neoplasm of the colon. Therefore, the correct answer represents the correct CPT code for the procedure performed and the corresponding ICD-10 code for the diagnosis.Rate this question:
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- 39.
This woman is in for multiple external hemorrhoids. After inspection of the hemorrhoids, the physician decides to excise all the hemorrhoids.
- A.
46250, 455.3
- B.
46083, 455.5
- C.
46615, 455.0
- D.
46255, 455.5
Correct Answer
A. 46250, 455.3Explanation
The correct answer is 46250, 455.3. In this scenario, the physician diagnoses the patient with multiple external hemorrhoids and decides to perform an excision of all the hemorrhoids. The correct answer, 46250, represents the excision of multiple external hemorrhoids. The additional code, 455.3, indicates the specific type of hemorrhoids being excised, which in this case is external thrombosed hemorrhoids.Rate this question:
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- 40.
URINARY SYSTEM : 50000 SeriesOPERATIVE REPORT DIAGNOSIS: Acute renal insufficiencyprocedure : Renal biopsyThe patient was taken to the operating room for percutaneous needle biopsy of the right and left kidneys.
- A.
50200-50
- B.
49000-50
- C.
50555-50
- D.
50542-LT, 50542-RT
Correct Answer
A. 50200-50Explanation
The correct answer is 50200-50. This code represents a percutaneous needle biopsy of the kidneys. The operative report states that the patient underwent a renal biopsy, which aligns with the code 50200-50. The other options do not accurately represent the procedure performed.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Code a biopsy of the bladder?
- A.
52354
- B.
52204
- C.
52250
- D.
52224
Correct Answer
B. 52204Explanation
The correct answer is 52204. This code is used for a biopsy of the bladder. A bladder biopsy is a procedure in which a small sample of tissue is taken from the bladder for further examination. This code specifically represents a transurethral biopsy of the bladder, which involves inserting a cystoscope through the urethra to access the bladder and take the biopsy sample.Rate this question:
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- 42.
OPERATIVE REPORTDIAGNOSIS : Large bladder neck obstructionPROCEDURE PERFORMED : Cystoscopy and transurethral resection of the prostate.Code the procedure(s) performed and the diagnosis.
- A.
52450, 52001-51, 596.0
- B.
52450, 52000, 753.6
- C.
52450, 52001, 753.6
- D.
52450, 52000-59, 596.0
Correct Answer
D. 52450, 52000-59, 596.0Explanation
The correct answer is 52450, 52000-59, 596.0. This is because the operative report states that the procedure performed was a cystoscopy and transurethral resection of the prostate, which is coded as 52450. The diagnosis given is large bladder neck obstruction, which is coded as 596.0. Additionally, the modifier -59 is used with code 52000 to indicate that it is a separate and distinct procedure from the cystoscopy.Rate this question:
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- 43.
MALE GENITAL SYSTEM : 50000 SeriesCode reconstruction of the penis for straightening of chordee :
- A.
54300
- B.
54435
- C.
54328
- D.
54360
Correct Answer
A. 54300 -
- 44.
New born clamp circumcision.
- A.
54161
- B.
54162
- C.
54150
- D.
54150-52
Correct Answer
D. 54150-52 -
- 45.
Sam is a 40-year-old male in for a bilateral vasectomy that will include three postoperative semen examinations.
- A.
55250 X 3
- B.
52648
- C.
55250
- D.
52402 X 3
Correct Answer
C. 55250Explanation
The answer 55250 is most likely the cost or fee associated with the bilateral vasectomy procedure. The statement mentions that Sam is a 40-year-old male undergoing this procedure, and it also states that three postoperative semen examinations will be included. Therefore, the number 55250 could be the amount that Sam will need to pay for the vasectomy and the subsequent semen examinations.Rate this question:
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- 46.
FEMALE GENITAL SYSTEM : 50000 SeriesPatient is seen for Bartholin's gland abscess. The abscess is incised and drained by the physician.
- A.
56405
- B.
53060
- C.
50600
- D.
56420
Correct Answer
D. 56420Explanation
The correct answer is 56420. This code specifically represents the incision and drainage of a Bartholin's gland abscess. The other codes listed do not accurately describe this specific procedure.Rate this question:
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- 47.
A 22-year-old female is seen at the clinic today for a colposcopy. The physician will take multiple biopsies of the cervix uteri.
- A.
57455
- B.
57461
- C.
56821
- D.
57420
Correct Answer
A. 57455Explanation
The correct answer is 57455 because this code represents a colposcopy with directed biopsy of the cervix uteri. This is the most appropriate code for the procedure described in the scenario, as it specifically mentions taking multiple biopsies of the cervix uteri during the colposcopy.Rate this question:
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- 48.
MATERNITY CARE AND DELIVERY : 50000 SeriesSara is a 36-year-old female diagnosed with an ectopic pregnancy. The patient was taken to the operating room for treatment of a tubal ectopic pregnancy, abdominal approach.
- A.
59121
- B.
59120
- C.
59150
- D.
59130
Correct Answer
A. 59121Explanation
The correct answer is 59121. This code represents the treatment of a tubal ectopic pregnancy using an abdominal approach. The other options are not applicable in this case. 59120 is for treatment of a tubal ectopic pregnancy using a vaginal approach, 59150 is for treatment of a tubal ectopic pregnancy using a laparoscopic approach, and 59130 is for treatment of an ovarian pregnancy.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Code a cesarean delivery including the postpartum care.
- A.
59622
- B.
59400
- C.
58611, 59430
- D.
59515
Correct Answer
D. 59515 -
- 50.
FEMALE GENITAL SYSTEM : 50000 SeriesD & C performed for a woman with dysfunctional bleeding.
- A.
58100
- B.
58120
- C.
59160
- D.
57505
Correct Answer
B. 58120Explanation
The correct answer is 58120. This code represents a dilation and curettage (D&C) procedure performed on a woman with dysfunctional bleeding. D&C is a common gynecological procedure that involves dilating the cervix and scraping the lining of the uterus to remove tissue. In this case, the D&C was performed specifically for dysfunctional bleeding, which is abnormal or irregular bleeding from the uterus. The code 58120 accurately represents this procedure and the reason for its performance.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Dec 26, 2014Quiz Created by
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