Research Methods And Statistics Midterm

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  • 1. 
    Which of the following is an example of a business decision maker?
    • A. 

      Politician's election consultant

    • B. 

      Church pastor

    • C. 

      Manager of a non-profit program

    • D. 

      Business manager of a consumer goods product

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 2. 
    The acronym, RFP, stands for _____ and refers to the document used to invite research firms to propose ideas for addressing the research needs of the organization.
    • A. 

      Request for proposal

    • B. 

      Recency frequency population

    • C. 

      Research firm proposal

    • D. 

      Recognition of problem

    • E. 

      Recently formed protocols


  • 3. 
    The problem or opportunity that requires a business decision on the part of the decision maker is called a _____.
    • A. 

      Management dilemma

    • B. 

      Research problem

    • C. 

      Challenge

    • D. 

      Measurement approach

    • E. 

      Return on business investment


  • 4. 
    Northwest Airlines applied mathematical models to determine which customers in its database were currently responsible for most of its profitability and which customers were not currently profitable but had similar characteristics to the most profitable customers. Northwest Airlines utilized _____ to identify these customers.
    • A. 

      Computer programming

    • B. 

      Data warehousing

    • C. 

      Customer relationships management

    • D. 

      Data mining

    • E. 

      Intervention


  • 5. 
    The main purpose of a(n) _____ is to share company information and computing resources among internal audiences.
    • A. 

      Decision support system

    • B. 

      Intranet

    • C. 

      Extranet

    • D. 

      Internet

    • E. 

      Data warehouse


  • 6. 
    A private network that uses internet protocols and the public telecommunication system to share an organization's information, data or operations the external suppliers, vendors, or customers is called a(n) ____.
    • A. 

      Decision support system

    • B. 

      Intranet

    • C. 

      Extranet

    • D. 

      Internet

    • E. 

      Data warehouse


  • 7. 
    The question, "Should we do business research?" is often stimulated by data from a(n) _____.
    • A. 

      Data warehouse

    • B. 

      Intelligence system

    • C. 

      Decision support system

    • D. 

      Intranet

    • E. 

      Both b and c


  • 8. 
    Which of the following is not a possible source of business intelligence?
    • A. 

      Competitor web sites

    • B. 

      Government reports

    • C. 

      Business research reports

    • D. 

      Clipping services

    • E. 

      All of the above are possible sources


  • 9. 
    Recordings of public proceedings, speeches by elected officials, and information on agency web sites are all examples of business intelligence available from _____ sources.
    • A. 

      Competitive

    • B. 

      Cultural

    • C. 

      Government

    • D. 

      Demographic

    • E. 

      Tecnological


  • 10. 
    Intuitive decision makers tend to base business decisions on _____.
    • A. 

      Business research

    • B. 

      Secondary data

    • C. 

      Primary data

    • D. 

      Proprietary research

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 11. 
    Visionary decision makers tend to base business decisions on _____.
    • A. 

      Proprietary business research

    • B. 

      Instinct

    • C. 

      Secondary data

    • D. 

      Past experience

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 12. 
    Which tier in the hierarchy of business decision makers sees research as the fundamental first step in any business venture?
    • A. 

      Base tier

    • B. 

      Middle tier

    • C. 

      Top tier

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 13. 
    Minute Maid sees research as the fundamental first step in any business decision and it created proprietary methods for conducting research. At what level of the hierarchy of business decision makers does Minute Maid operate?
    • A. 

      Top tier

    • B. 

      Middle tier

    • C. 

      Base tier

    • D. 

      Foundation tier

    • E. 

      Information tier


  • 14. 
    Some organizations make decisions based on past experience, instincts, or qualitative data collection. These organizations are operating at the _____ tier of the hierarchy of business decision makers.
    • A. 

      Top

    • B. 

      Middle

    • C. 

      Base

    • D. 

      Pinnacle

    • E. 

      Information


  • 15. 
    Business research may be considered unnecessary when _____.
    • A. 

      Management has insufficient resources to conduct an appropriate study

    • B. 

      The risk associated with the decision at hand is low

    • C. 

      The information is applicable to the critical decision

    • D. 

      Both A and B

    • E. 

      Both A and C


  • 16. 
    When a business research firm provides both quantitative and qualitative methodology expertise and conducts all phases of research from planning to execution and reporting, the firm is considered a(n) _____ firm.
    • A. 

      Internal

    • B. 

      Interactive

    • C. 

      Proprietary

    • D. 

      Omnibus

    • E. 

      Full-service


  • 17. 
    Which term below refers to a research program or technique that is owned by a single firm?
    • A. 

      Proprietary

    • B. 

      Omnibus

    • C. 

      Full-service

    • D. 

      Limited service

    • E. 

      Internal


  • 18. 
    All of the following terms except _____ can be used to describe custom full-service business research firms?
    • A. 

      Ad hoc research

    • B. 

      Custom-designed research

    • C. 

      Custom researchers

    • D. 

      Syndicated panel

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 19. 
    What type of research firm dominates the small research firms operated by a single person or a small staff?
    • A. 

      Proprietary

    • B. 

      Syndicated

    • C. 

      Full-service

    • D. 

      Specialty

    • E. 

      Internal


  • 20. 
    Specialty firms can establish expertise in all of the following areas except _____.
    • A. 

      Methodology

    • B. 

      Process

    • C. 

      Industry

    • D. 

      Incentives

    • E. 

      Geographic region


  • 21. 
    Researchers who study retail shoppers by tracing their footsteps and recording the amount of time a shopper spends reading labels are conducting _____ studies.
    • A. 

      Survey

    • B. 

      Interviewing

    • C. 

      Observation

    • D. 

      Focus groups

    • E. 

      Empathic


  • 22. 
    Specialty research suppliers who provide the screening and recruiting of probability samples for a wide range of survey studies are called _____.
    • A. 

      Sampling specialists

    • B. 

      Field business specialists

    • C. 

      Head hunters

    • D. 

      Screeners

    • E. 

      Syndicators


  • 23. 
    A _____ study combines one or a few questions from several business decision makers who need information from the same population.
    • A. 

      Syndicated

    • B. 

      Proprietary research

    • C. 

      Omnibus

    • D. 

      Sampling

    • E. 

      Full service


  • 24. 
    Which of the following is an advantage of using an omnibus study?
    • A. 

      Ability to reach a convenience sample of consumers

    • B. 

      Cost of less than $2000 per question

    • C. 

      Ability to receive full-service research services

    • D. 

      Ability to receive results in 24-48 hours

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 25. 
    What type of research do trade associations generally conduct?
    • A. 

      Basic

    • B. 

      Practical

    • C. 

      Ad hoc

    • D. 

      Applied

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 26. 
    Which term below refers to norms or standards of behavior that guide moral choices about research behavior?
    • A. 

      Politics

    • B. 

      Ethics

    • C. 

      Standards

    • D. 

      Philosophy

    • E. 

      Integrity


  • 27. 
    The goal of ethics in research is to _____
    • A. 

      To ensure that no one is harmed

    • B. 

      To protect researchers from legal liability

    • C. 

      Identify what behavior is appropriate

    • D. 

      Ensure research sponsors fulfill their legal obligations

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 28. 
    All of the following are unethical activities except _____.
    • A. 

      Violating nondisclosure agreements

    • B. 

      Revealing the names of research participants

    • C. 

      Stating that a survey will take 10 minutes to complete when the actual time is 15 minutes

    • D. 

      Invoicing for time that was not spent on the project

    • E. 

      Providing incentives for respondents


  • 29. 
    Which approach to ethics advocates that ethical behavior should be directed by "duties" regardless of the positive circumstances that might result from behavior that is in contradiction to the duty?
    • A. 

      Relativism

    • B. 

      Deontology

    • C. 

      Empiricism

    • D. 

      Utilitarian

    • E. 

      Scientology


  • 30. 
    When a person follows his belief that one should not lie, and then tells the truth even when it hurts another person, he has illustrated the _____ approach to ethics.
    • A. 

      Ethical relativism

    • B. 

      Deontology

    • C. 

      Empiricism

    • D. 

      Utilitarian

    • E. 

      Scientology


  • 31. 
    The approach to ethics that relies upon each individual's own sense of morality is known as _____.
    • A. 

      Ethical relativism

    • B. 

      Deontology

    • C. 

      Empiricism

    • D. 

      Utilitarian


  • 32. 
    Research should be designed such that participants do not experience _____.
    • A. 

      Physical harm

    • B. 

      Discomfort

    • C. 

      Embarrassment

    • D. 

      Loss of privacy

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 33. 
    To ensure the ethical treatment of participants, researchers should do all of the following except _____.
    • A. 

      Explain the benefits of the study

    • B. 

      Provide incentives to participants

    • C. 

      Explain the participants rights

    • D. 

      Explain what steps have been taken to protect participants

    • E. 

      Obtain informed consent


  • 34. 
    Inducements offered to participants as encouragement to participate in research that are disproportionate to the task are considered _____.
    • A. 

      Persuasive

    • B. 

      Informative

    • C. 

      Appropriate

    • D. 

      Coercive

    • E. 

      Illegal


  • 35. 
    _____ occurs when the participants are told only part of the truth or when the truth is fully compromised.
    • A. 

      Coercion

    • B. 

      Deception

    • C. 

      Informed consent

    • D. 

      Debriefing

    • E. 

      Manipulation


  • 36. 
    Which of the following is an appropriate use of deception in research?
    • A. 

      To collect data to compile lists for selling something

    • B. 

      Develop competitive intelligence

    • C. 

      To collect personal information for fraudulent purposes

    • D. 

      To prevent biasing the respondents

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 37. 
    Deception is considered inappropriate unless _____.
    • A. 

      The study's value justifies the use of deception

    • B. 

      No alternatives to justification are feasible

    • C. 

      It is necessary to protect a third party

    • D. 

      The respondents would be biased

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 38. 
    Which of the following situations does not require signed consent forms from participants?
    • A. 

      A study of cereal preferences among children ages 9-12

    • B. 

      A study of the effectiveness of prescription arthritis medications

    • C. 

      A study of travel preferences among frequent fliers

    • D. 

      A study that requires information about the medical history of participants

    • E. 

      All of the above require consent


  • 39. 
    Anne is introducing a group of research participants to the study at hand. To ensure adequate oral consent, she should include all of the following components in her introduction except _____.
    • A. 

      Research organization

    • B. 

      Promise of anonymity and confidentiality

    • C. 

      Sponsoring organization

    • D. 

      Purpose of the research

    • E. 

      Estimate of when the research study will be published


  • 40. 
    Organizations receiving federal support are required to have a(n) _____ review all research proposals.
    • A. 

      Advisory board

    • B. 

      Institutional review board

    • C. 

      Health and human service board

    • D. 

      Scientific methods board

    • E. 

      Lawyer


  • 41. 
    Institutional Review Boards concentrate on two key areas. One is the guarantee of obtaining complete, informed consent from participants. The other is _____.
    • A. 

      Risk/benefit analysis

    • B. 

      Value assessment

    • C. 

      Scientific importance

    • D. 

      Assessment of the fit between the research question and proposed research design

    • E. 

      Evaluation of the proposed budget


  • 42. 
    The guarantee of informed consent can be traced to the first ten points in the _____.
    • A. 

      Consumer Bill of Rights

    • B. 

      Nuremberg Code

    • C. 

      Constitution

    • D. 

      5th Amendment

    • E. 

      Kyoto Treaty


  • 43. 
    All of the following are characteristics of complete informed consent except _____.
    • A. 

      The participant must be competent to give consent

    • B. 

      Consent must be voluntary

    • C. 

      Participants must be adequately informed to make a decision

    • D. 

      Participants must be able to consult legal counsel if they wish

    • E. 

      Participants should know the possible risks associated with the research


  • 44. 
    IRBs exist in order to _____
    • A. 

      Guarantee complete, informed consent is obtained from participants

    • B. 

      Apply knowledge gained from research

    • C. 

      Evaluate the research design chosen

    • D. 

      Evaluate the allocation of expenses in the project

    • E. 

      Protect the researchers from legal liability


  • 45. 
    When participants are intentionally or accidentally deceived, they should be _____ once the research is complete.
    • A. 

      Paid

    • B. 

      Debriefed

    • C. 

      Thanked

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 46. 
    _____ involves explaining any deception, describing the purpose of the study, sharing the results after the study, and providing any medical or psychological attention.
    • A. 

      Informed consent

    • B. 

      IRB review

    • C. 

      Debriefing

    • D. 

      Interviewing

    • E. 

      Nondisclosure


  • 47. 
    Debriefing differs from informed consent in that _____.
    • A. 

      Debriefing occurs after the study while informed consent occurs before

    • B. 

      Debriefing discloses any deception while informed consent does not

    • C. 

      Informed consent discloses the purpose of the study while a debriefing does not

    • D. 

      Individuals who are not competent to give consent and simply be debriefed

    • E. 

      Debriefing guidelines are based on the Nuremberg Code while informed consent guidelines are based on the American Psychological Association's code of ethics


  • 48. 
    In a restaurant complaint study, Dr. Jackson used deception to avoid biasing the participants. In this situation, what should Dr. Jackson do once the research is complete?
    • A. 

      Apologize

    • B. 

      Pay the participants

    • C. 

      Debrief the participants

    • D. 

      Seek psychological attention for the participants

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 49. 
    How does debriefing interact with the effects of deception?
    • A. 

      Debriefing is associated with more positive feelings about the value of research

    • B. 

      Debriefing is associated with resentment among those who have been deceived

    • C. 

      Debriefing has no effect

    • D. 

      Debriefing is associated with dissatisfaction among those who have been deceived

    • E. 

      Debriefing negatives any effects of deception


  • 50. 
    Which law was the first to guarantee Americans the right to privacy?
    • A. 

      The Bill of Rights

    • B. 

      Privacy protection act

    • C. 

      Privacy act

    • D. 

      Civil rights act


  • 51. 
    Direct observation of phenomena, empirically testable hypotheses, and the ability to rule out rival hypotheses are all essential tenets of the _____.
    • A. 

      Experiential method

    • B. 

      Scientific method

    • C. 

      Intuitive process

    • D. 

      Strategic management process

    • E. 

      Account planning philosophy


  • 52. 
    _____ is said to denote observations and propositions based on sensory experience and/or derived from such experience by methods of inductive logic.
    • A. 

      Empiricism

    • B. 

      Scientific management

    • C. 

      Exposition

    • D. 

      Deduction

    • E. 

      Propositional research


  • 53. 
    Which of the following activities can be used to describe the scientific method?
    • A. 

      Playing checkers

    • B. 

      Watching Jeopardy

    • C. 

      Chess

    • D. 

      Puzzles

    • E. 

      Investing in stocks


  • 54. 
    The statement, "Sales in Pacific Timber Products have increased in the past six months," is an example of a(n) _____.
    • A. 

      Inductive argument

    • B. 

      Deductive argument

    • C. 

      Exposition

    • D. 

      Research question

    • E. 

      Proposition


  • 55. 
    _____ is a form of argument that purports to be conclusive – the conclusion must necessarily follow from the reasons given.
    • A. 

      Induction

    • B. 

      Deduction

    • C. 

      Logic

    • D. 

      Philosophy

    • E. 

      Exposition


  • 56. 
    Which form of argument presents a conclusion based on reasons or proof?
    • A. 

      Induction

    • B. 

      Deduction

    • C. 

      Logic

    • D. 

      Philosophy

    • E. 

      Exposition


  • 57. 
    Which of the following is a requirement for a deduction to be considered correct?
    • A. 

      Validity

    • B. 

      Reliability

    • C. 

      Inference

    • D. 

      Empiricism

    • E. 

      Conclusiveness


  • 58. 
    Consider the following statements: "Inner-city household interviewing is especially difficult and expensive. This survey involves substantial inner-city household interviewing. The interviewing in this survey will be especially difficult and expensive." This is an example of a(n) _____.
    • A. 

      Empirical argument

    • B. 

      Inductive argument

    • C. 

      Exposition

    • D. 

      Deductive argument

    • E. 

      Hypothesis


  • 59. 
    _____ is a form of reasoning that draws a conclusion from one or more particular facts or pieces of evidence.
    • A. 

      Induction

    • B. 

      Deduction

    • C. 

      Empiricism

    • D. 

      Logic

    • E. 

      Association


  • 60. 
    Because of the nature of induction, the conclusion can be thought of as _____.
    • A. 

      Fact

    • B. 

      One explanation among many

    • C. 

      Proof

    • D. 

      Evidence

    • E. 

      Empirical


  • 61. 
    Consider the following example: "Retail sales increases in the 2005 holiday season were below projections. Sales were disappointing because consumers were not confident about economic growth." This is an example of a(n) _____.
    • A. 

      Inductive argument

    • B. 

      Deductive argument

    • C. 

      Empirical argument

    • D. 

      Fact

    • E. 

      Premise


  • 62. 
    _____ occurs when we observe a fact and ask, "Why is this?"
    • A. 

      Deduction

    • B. 

      Induction

    • C. 

      Exposition

    • D. 

      Empiricism

    • E. 

      Curiousity


  • 63. 
    _____ is the process by which we test whether a hypothesis is capable of explaining the fact.
    • A. 

      Deduction

    • B. 

      Induction

    • C. 

      Exposition

    • D. 

      Empiricism

    • E. 

      Curiousity


  • 64. 
    Which term below refers to a bundle of meanings or characteristics associated with certain concrete, unambiguous events, objects, conditions, or situations?
    • A. 

      Variable

    • B. 

      Construct

    • C. 

      Concept

    • D. 

      Theory

    • E. 

      Model


  • 65. 
    A _____ is an image or abstract idea specifically invented for a given research and/or theory-building purpose.
    • A. 

      Variable

    • B. 

      Construct

    • C. 

      Concept

    • D. 

      Theory

    • E. 

      Model


  • 66. 
    Automobile is a(n) _____ concept, while service quality is a(n) _____ concept.
    • A. 

      Abstract, objective

    • B. 

      Subjective, objective

    • C. 

      Intangible, tangible

    • D. 

      Objective, abstract

    • E. 

      Factual, perceptual


  • 67. 
    Abstract concepts such as personality, need for variety, and materialism are often called _____.
    • A. 

      Variables

    • B. 

      Constructs

    • C. 

      Concepts

    • D. 

      Theories

    • E. 

      Models


  • 68. 
    Concepts are more _____, while constructs are more _____.
    • A. 

      Concrete, abstract

    • B. 

      Abstract, concrete

    • C. 

      Intangible, tangible

    • D. 

      Conceptual, factual

    • E. 

      Intuitive, logical


  • 69. 
    Jack observes his neighbor's purchase behavior with new automobiles. His neighbor purchases a new car every year and always seems to have a nicer model than the year before. Jack thinks the dealership must sell to his neighbor's fascination with new car styles. In this example, interest in new car styles is a(n) _____.
    • A. 

      Construct

    • B. 

      Fact

    • C. 

      Concept

    • D. 

      Theory

    • E. 

      Model


  • 70. 
    Bill often feels insecure about how others view him. To increase his feelings of self-esteem, Bill often buys expensive, luxury items. Self-esteem is an example of a(n) _____.
    • A. 

      Construct

    • B. 

      Fact

    • C. 

      Concept

    • D. 

      Theory

    • E. 

      Model


  • 71. 
    A(n) _____ describes the interrelationships between concepts and constructs.
    • A. 

      Hypothetical construct

    • B. 

      Postulation

    • C. 

      Conceptual scheme

    • D. 

      Operational definition

    • E. 

      Inductive argument


  • 72. 
    Which term below refers to a construct that is presumed to exist, but can only be inferred from data?
    • A. 

      Conceptual scheme

    • B. 

      Hypothetical construct

    • C. 

      Operational definition

    • D. 

      Confounding variable

    • E. 

      Extraneous variable


  • 73. 
    A customer is defined as a patron and a patron is defined as a client of an establishment. This is an example of a(n) _____.
    • A. 

      Hypothetical construct

    • B. 

      Conceptual scheme

    • C. 

      Operational definition

    • D. 

      Dictionary definition

    • E. 

      Mediating variable


  • 74. 
    To be categorized as a customer, an individual must have a history of shopping at the establishment at least twice prior to the start of the study with expenditures of more than $10. This is an example of a(n) _____.
    • A. 

      Hypothetical construct

    • B. 

      Conceptual scheme

    • C. 

      Operational definition

    • D. 

      Dictionary definition

    • E. 

      Mediating variable


  • 75. 
    A(n) _____ defines a variable in terms of specific measurement and testing criteria.
    • A. 

      Hypothetical construct

    • B. 

      Operational definition

    • C. 

      Dictionary definition

    • D. 

      Conceptual scheme

    • E. 

      Moderating variable


  • 76. 
    The problem or opportunity that requires a business decision is called the _____.
    • A. 

      Research question

    • B. 

      Management-research-question hierarchy

    • C. 

      Management dilemma

    • D. 

      Management question

    • E. 

      Investigative question


  • 77. 
    The process of stating the basic dilemma and then developing other questions by progressively breaking down the original question into more specific ones is called the _____.
    • A. 

      Research question

    • B. 

      Management-research-question hierarchy

    • C. 

      Management dilemma

    • D. 

      Management question

    • E. 

      Investigative question


  • 78. 
    Participants in a research study are asked _____ questions.
    • A. 

      Research

    • B. 

      Management

    • C. 

      Measurement

    • D. 

      Investigative

    • E. 

      Dilemma


  • 79. 
    Who answers measurement questions?
    • A. 

      Management decision makers

    • B. 

      Researchers

    • C. 

      Field workers

    • D. 

      Participants

    • E. 

      Statisticians


  • 80. 
    Who answers investigative questions?
    • A. 

      Management decision makers

    • B. 

      Researchers

    • C. 

      Field workers

    • D. 

      Participants

    • E. 

      Statisticians


  • 81. 
    To satisfactorily answer a research question, researchers must first answer _____ questions.
    • A. 

      Management

    • B. 

      Investigative

    • C. 

      Measurement

    • D. 

      Dilemma

    • E. 

      Deductive


  • 82. 
    Which form of budgeting involves taking a fixed percentage of some criterion such as sales as the basis for the research budget?
    • A. 

      Percentage-of-sales budgeting

    • B. 

      Percentage-of-sales budgeting

    • C. 

      Departmental budgeting

    • D. 

      Task budgeting

    • E. 

      Functional-area budgeting


  • 83. 
    Which form of budgeting allocates a portion of total expenditures in the unit to research activities?
    • A. 

      Rule-of-thumb budgeting

    • B. 

      Percentage-of-sales budgeting

    • C. 

      Departmental budgeting

    • D. 

      Task budgeting

    • E. 

      Competitive parity


  • 84. 
    Departmental budgeting means that research budgets are determined by _____.
    • A. 

      Allocating the same amount to research that competing firms allocate

    • B. 

      The contributions of various departments to fund department-specific projects

    • C. 

      Evaluating projects on a case-by-case basis

    • D. 

      Taking a fixed percentage of some criterion

    • E. 

      Allocating whatever is left after covering other required expenditures


  • 85. 
    Which term below refers to a criterion for judging the attractiveness of two or more alternatives when using a decision variable?
    • A. 

      Decision theory

    • B. 

      Decision rule

    • C. 

      Ex post facto evaluation

    • D. 

      Success probability

    • E. 

      Success probability


  • 86. 
    The quantifiable characteristic, attribute, or outcome on which a choice decision will be made is called a _____.
    • A. 

      Decision theory

    • B. 

      Decision rule

    • C. 

      Ex post facto evaluation

    • D. 

      Decision variable

    • E. 

      Success probability


  • 87. 
    Which of the following statements is false regarding the evaluation of alternatives?
    • A. 

      The selection of alternatives is determined by the decision variable chosen and the decision rule used

    • B. 

      Each alternative must be explicitly stated

    • C. 

      A decision variable is defined by an outcome that may be measured

    • D. 

      A decision rule is determined by which outcomes may be compared

    • E. 

      All of the above are true


  • 88. 
    Ex Post Facto evaluation means that the research is evaluated _____.
    • A. 

      Prior to execution

    • B. 

      Based on the facts

    • C. 

      After the research concludes

    • D. 

      Each day throughout the project

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 89. 
    Which of the following terms fails to capture the meaning of a research design?
    • A. 

      Map

    • B. 

      Blueprint

    • C. 

      Manual

    • D. 

      Dictionary

    • E. 

      Guidebook


  • 90. 
    Dell plans to survey every customer who has purchased a Dell computer in the last 5 years. Dell plans to use a _____.
    • A. 

      Convenience sample

    • B. 

      Snowball sample

    • C. 

      Systematic sample

    • D. 

      Census

    • E. 

      Random sample


  • 91. 
    McGraw-Hill is planning a study of educator preferences to determine the needs of college instructors. Because of the number of college instructors, McGraw-Hill will select a portion of the target population, known as a(n) _____, to participate in the study.
    • A. 

      Element

    • B. 

      Sample

    • C. 

      Sampling frame

    • D. 

      Census

    • E. 

      Extent


  • 92. 
    A _____ is a trial collection of data to detect weaknesses in the design or instrument.
    • A. 

      Test market

    • B. 

      Census

    • C. 

      Sample

    • D. 

      Pilot test

    • E. 

      Sampling frame


  • 93. 
    Pilot tests typically use a sample size of _____ participants.
    • A. 

      Less than 100

    • B. 

      100-500

    • C. 

      501-1000

    • D. 

      More than 1000

    • E. 

      It depends on budgetary constraints


  • 94. 
    All of the following are benefits of pilot tests except _____.
    • A. 

      Provision of proxy data for probability sampling

    • B. 

      Identification of measurement errors

    • C. 

      Detection of weaknesses in research design

    • D. 

      Sensitization of respondents to the purpose of the study

    • E. 

      All of the above are benefits


  • 95. 
    Information collected from participants, by observation, or from secondary sources is called _____.
    • A. 

      Response

    • B. 

      Data

    • C. 

      Knowledge

    • D. 

      Fact

    • E. 

      Perceptual content


  • 96. 
    If a _____ sampling design is chosen, the process for choosing the sample must give every person within the target population a known nonzero chance of selection.
    • A. 

      Census

    • B. 

      Judgement

    • C. 

      Nonprobability

    • D. 

      Probability

    • E. 

      Primary


  • 97. 
    Which type of sample provides a group of participants who are most representative of the target population?
    • A. 

      Census

    • B. 

      Judgement

    • C. 

      Probability

    • D. 

      Nonprobability

    • E. 

      Primary


  • 98. 
    During the _____ stage, the analyst will look for patterns of responses to the survey questions.
    • A. 

      Data editing

    • B. 

      Data collection

    • C. 

      Data analysis

    • D. 

      Sampling

    • E. 

      Reporting


  • 99. 
    Ensuring consistency among respondents, locating omissions, and reducing errors in recording are all benefits of _____.
    • A. 

      Data collection

    • B. 

      Data editing

    • C. 

      Sampling

    • D. 

      Coding

    • E. 

      Data analysis


  • 100. 
    Reducing data to a manageable size, developing summaries, and applying statistical techniques are all aspects of _____.
    • A. 

      Sampling

    • B. 

      Data collection

    • C. 

      Pilot testing

    • D. 

      Data analysis

    • E. 

      Data transformation


  • 101. 
    Which of the following is not a type of secondary sources used during the exploratory phase of the research process?
    • A. 

      Research studies

    • B. 

      Case studies

    • C. 

      Books

    • D. 

      Group discussions

    • E. 

      Information from organization's database


  • 102. 
    What is the first step in conducting a literature search?
    • A. 

      Define the management dilemma or question

    • B. 

      Identify key terms, people, or events

    • C. 

      Search indexes, bibliographies, and the Web

    • D. 

      Locate and review secondary sources

    • E. 

      Evaluate the value and credibility of secondary sources


  • 103. 
    _____ are original works of research or raw data without interpretation that represent an official opinion or position.
    • A. 

      Secondary sources

    • B. 

      Primary sources

    • C. 

      Statistical sources

    • D. 

      Bibliographies

    • E. 

      Indexes


  • 104. 
    Which of the following is an example of a primary source of information?
    • A. 

      Census data

    • B. 

      Newspaper article

    • C. 

      Encyclopedias

    • D. 

      Google searches

    • E. 

      Internal sales reports


  • 105. 
    All of the following are examples of primary sources of information except _____.
    • A. 

      Memos

    • B. 

      Letters

    • C. 

      Transcripts of speeches

    • D. 

      Google searches

    • E. 

      Economic data


  • 106. 
    Micah is reviewing encyclopedia entries, textbooks, handbooks, and magazine and newspaper articles to gather information for her project. These are all examples of _____ sources of information.
    • A. 

      Secondary

    • B. 

      Primary

    • C. 

      Tertiary

    • D. 

      Statistical

    • E. 

      External


  • 107. 
    Which information source may be interpretations of a secondary source but is generally represented by indexes, bibliographies, and Internet search engines?
    • A. 

      Secondary

    • B. 

      Primary

    • C. 

      Tertiary

    • D. 

      Statistical

    • E. 

      External


  • 108. 
    Google search can be classified as which type of information source?
    • A. 

      Secondary

    • B. 

      Primary

    • C. 

      Tertiary

    • D. 

      Statistical

    • E. 

      External


  • 109. 
    Timothy wants to identify and locate books and journal articles from a large set. What type of information source should he use?
    • A. 

      Index

    • B. 

      Bibliography

    • C. 

      Encyclopedia

    • D. 

      Handbook

    • E. 

      Dictionary


  • 110. 
    Which of the following is a reason researchers use encyclopedias?
    • A. 

      To verify spelling

    • B. 

      To find authors and titles of prior works

    • C. 

      To locate articles from a large set

    • D. 

      To find historical information

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 111. 
    Which of the following is not included in a good handbook?
    • A. 

      Statistics

    • B. 

      Directory information

    • C. 

      A glossary of terms

    • D. 

      Lists of consultants in the field

    • E. 

      References


  • 112. 
    Contact information for professional organizations and companies in a field may be located in a(n) _____.
    • A. 

      Index

    • B. 

      Bibliography

    • C. 

      Handbook

    • D. 

      Dictionary

    • E. 

      Directory


  • 113. 
    All of the following are factors useful in evaluating a source except _____.
    • A. 

      Purpose

    • B. 

      Scope

    • C. 

      Cost

    • D. 

      Authority

    • E. 

      Audience


  • 114. 
    When researchers consider the explicit or hidden agenda of an information source, the source's _____ is under evaluation.
    • A. 

      Purpose

    • B. 

      Scope

    • C. 

      Authority

    • D. 

      Audience

    • E. 

      Format


  • 115. 
    All of the following questions address the authority of a source except _____.
    • A. 

      What are the credentials of the author or institution?

    • B. 

      Does the source give you a means of contacting anyone for further information?

    • C. 

      What is the reputation of the sponsoring organization?

    • D. 

      How old is the information?

    • E. 

      If facts are supplied, were do they come from?


  • 116. 
    When evaluating an information source, the time period and geographic limitations are considered as part of the _____ factor.
    • A. 

      Purpose

    • B. 

      Scope

    • C. 

      Authority

    • D. 

      Audience

    • E. 

      Format


  • 117. 
    In Nicolas Perricone's first book, his affiliation with the Yale School of Dermatology was identified on the front cover of the book. This enhanced the perceived credibility of the information in the book using the _____ factor.
    • A. 

      Purpose

    • B. 

      Scope

    • C. 

      Authority

    • D. 

      Audience

    • E. 

      Format


  • 118. 
    All of the following are popular bibliographic databases used by business researchers except _____.
    • A. 

      ABI/Inform

    • B. 

      Business Source

    • C. 

      InfoTrac

    • D. 

      Dow Jones Interactive

    • E. 

      Lexis-Nexis


  • 119. 
    The _____ describes the function of every government agency and is useful for identifying key personnel and agency contacts, including those at the local and regional levels.
    • A. 

      ABI/Inform

    • B. 

      Congressional Directory

    • C. 

      U.S. Government Manual

    • D. 

      Monthly Catalog of U.S. Government Publications

    • E. 

      J.D. Power


  • 120. 
    Which source of information listed below lists members of congress and congressional committees as well as key personnel throughout the U.S. government?
    • A. 

      ABI/Inform

    • B. 

      U.S. Government Manual

    • C. 

      J.D. Power

    • D. 

      Congressional Directory

    • E. 

      Monthly Catalog of U.S. Government Publications


  • 121. 
    Which database listed below provides the texts of laws as they are passed?
    • A. 

      Public Laws

    • B. 

      U.S. Code

    • C. 

      Federal Register

    • D. 

      Congressional Bills

    • E. 

      Congressional Directory


  • 122. 
    Which of the following is not a source for finding government statistics? A. Statistical Abstract of the United States
    • A. 

      Statistical Abstract of the United States

    • B. 

      U.S. Code

    • C. 

      FedStats

    • D. 

      U.S. Bureau of the Census

    • E. 

      All of the above are sources for government statistics


  • 123. 
    Boolean operators enable a search to _____.
    • A. 

      Combine terms or sets of terms

    • B. 

      Identify which source fits the search term the best

    • C. 

      Identify the most current source

    • D. 

      Eliminate sources that lack credibility

    • E. 

      Include encyclopedia listings


  • 124. 
    All of the following are basic Boolean operators except _____.
    • A. 

      Or

    • B. 

      And

    • C. 

      Not

    • D. 

      Adj

    • E. 

      But


  • 125. 
    Suppose you were starting a research study based upon secondary sources about the use of computers for educational purposes in colleges. You should probably begin by:
    • A. 

      Checking your library's online catalog

    • B. 

      Search Books-in-Print for new publications on this topic

    • C. 

      Checking several bibliographic indexes

    • D. 

      Consulting the government research librarian

    • E. 

      Since this is a new technology area, consult the appropriate Doctoral Dissertation Abstracts bulletins


  • 126. 
    Research design strategy encompasses all of the components below except _____.
    • A. 

      Data collection design

    • B. 

      Sampling design

    • C. 

      Instrument development

    • D. 

      Data analysis

    • E. 

      All of the above are part of the design strategy


  • 127. 
    Which type of study is loosely structured and designed to expand understanding of a topic and provide insights?
    • A. 

      Formal

    • B. 

      Causal

    • C. 

      Exploratory

    • D. 

      Experimental

    • E. 

      Descriptive


  • 128. 
    The goal of a formal study is to _____.
    • A. 

      Discover future research tasks

    • B. 

      Expand understanding of a topic

    • C. 

      Test hypotheses

    • D. 

      Provide insight

    • E. 

      Develop hypotheses


  • 129. 
    All of the following are possible goals of an exploratory study except _____.
    • A. 

      Discover future research tasks

    • B. 

      Expand understanding of a topic

    • C. 

      Provide insight

    • D. 

      Test hypotheses

    • E. 

      Develop hypotheses


  • 130. 
    A statistical study is one that _____.
    • A. 

      Attempts to capture a population's characteristics by making inferences from a sample's characteristics and testing resulting hypotheses

    • B. 

      Emphasizes a full contextual analysis of a few events or conditions and their interrelations

    • C. 

      Discovers answers to the questions who, what, when, where, or how much

    • D. 

      Attempts to reveal why or how one variable produces changes in another

    • E. 

      Provides repeated measures over an extended period of time


  • 131. 
    A case study is one that _____.
    • A. 

      Attempts to capture a population's characteristics by making inferences from a sample's characteristics and testing resulting hypotheses

    • B. 

      Emphasizes a full contextual analysis of a few events or conditions and their interrelations

    • C. 

      Discovers answers to the questions who, what, when, where, or how much

    • D. 

      Attempts to reveal why or how one variable produces changes in another

    • E. 

      Provides repeated measures over an extended period of time


  • 132. 
    In the book, In Search of Excellence, the authors examined the characteristics of highly successful companies by studying the full context of each organization, using multiple sources of information, and identifying the relationship between managerial decisions and success. This is an example of a(n) _____.
    • A. 

      Case study

    • B. 

      Exploratory study

    • C. 

      Descriptive study

    • D. 

      Statistical study

    • E. 

      Causal study


  • 133. 
    A descriptive study is one that _____.
    • A. 

      Attempts to capture a population's characteristics by making inferences from a sample's characteristics and testing resulting hypotheses

    • B. 

      Emphasizes a full contextual analysis of a few events or conditions and their interrelations

    • C. 

      Discovers answers to the questions who, what, when, where, or how much

    • D. 

      Attempts to reveal why or how one variable produces changes in another

    • E. 

      Provides repeated measures over an extended period of time


  • 134. 
    A causal study is one that _____.
    • A. 

      Attempts to capture a population's characteristics by making inferences from a sample's characteristics and testing resulting hypotheses

    • B. 

      Emphasizes a full contextual analysis of a few events or conditions and their interrelations

    • C. 

      Discovers answers to the questions who, what, when, where, or how much

    • D. 

      Attempts to reveal why or how one variable produces changes in another

    • E. 

      Provides repeated measures over an extended period of time


  • 135. 
    A(n) _____ study explains what happened to a measured variable after-the-fact.
    • A. 

      Ex post facto

    • B. 

      Exploratory

    • C. 

      Experimental

    • D. 

      Statistical

    • E. 

      Causalcausal


  • 136. 
    A(n) _____ study involves manipulation of one or more variables to determine the effect on another variable.
    • A. 

      Ex post facto

    • B. 

      Exploratory

    • C. 

      Experimental

    • D. 

      Statistical

    • E. 

      Causal


  • 137. 
    An experimental study is one that _____.
    • A. 

      Attempts to capture a population's characteristics by making inferences from a sample's characteristics and testing resulting hypotheses

    • B. 

      Involves manipulation of one or more variables to determine the effect on another variable

    • C. 

      Discovers answers to the questions who, what, when, where, or how much

    • D. 

      Attempts to reveal why or how one variable produces changes in another

    • E. 

      Provides repeated measures over an extended period of time


  • 138. 
    What type of study is being conducted when Land's End Home mails a catalog with a fluffy set of towels on the cover to one group of consumers and the same catalog with a cover graphic of a beautifully-made bed to another consumer group in order to test differences in response between the two groups?
    • A. 

      Case study

    • B. 

      Longitudinal study

    • C. 

      Exploratory study

    • D. 

      Experiment

    • E. 

      Ex post facto study


  • 139. 
    InStyle magazine wants to examine the pull power of two types of copy in increasing the level of newsstand sales for a given month. The issue will feature Nicole Kidman but InStyle wants to know whether newsstand sales will be higher for a cover that mentions Kidman's love life or one that promises to share Kidman's style secrets. The issues are identical with the exception of the copy underneath the cover graphic of Kidman. Which type of study is this an example of?
    • A. 

      Case study

    • B. 

      Experimental study

    • C. 

      Exploratory study

    • D. 

      Longitudinal study

    • E. 

      Ex post facto study


  • 140. 
    Kroger, a grocery store chain, wants to identify the ideal store layout for increasing store sales. Because it primarily uses two store designs, one a grid layout with vertical aisles divided by a center aisle and another using a traditional straight-aisle pattern, Kroger will match pairs of stores that have different designs but similar shopper demographics and location. Sales between each pair will then be compared to determine if store design is related to sales. Which type of study is this an example of?
    • A. 

      Case study

    • B. 

      Experimental study

    • C. 

      Exploratory study

    • D. 

      Longitudinal study

    • E. 

      Ex post facto study


  • 141. 
    Which of the following is not an example of a monitoring study?
    • A. 

      Counting traffic at an intersection

    • B. 

      Recording license plates in a parking lot

    • C. 

      Mystery shopping in a competitor's store

    • D. 

      Documenting interactions between customers and a call center

    • E. 

      Telephone interview


  • 142. 
    The primary difference between a monitoring study and a communication study is that in a communication study, the researcher _____.
    • A. 

      Observes participants

    • B. 

      Documents activities without eliciting direct responses

    • C. 

      Asks questions of participants

    • D. 

      Collects data

    • E. 

      Records information over a period of time


  • 143. 
    Which of the following is a type of monitoring study?
    • A. 

      Telephone interview

    • B. 

      Counting Mall cars in a parking lot

    • C. 

      Mall-intercept interview

    • D. 

      E-mail survey

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 144. 
    InZone Research will survey fans attending one of the Final Four games to assess preferences for pricing and products offered at concession stands. What type of study is this an example of?
    • A. 

      Formal

    • B. 

      Cross-sectional

    • C. 

      Longitudinal

    • D. 

      Monitoring

    • E. 

      Ex post facto


  • 145. 
    When political researchers assess opinions towards President Bush's plan for social security reform, a(n) ______ study is used. However, when political researchers want to assess the change in opinion towards the war in Iraq from the initial deployment of troops to the elections in Iraq, a(n) _____ study should be used.
    • A. 

      Monitoring, communication

    • B. 

      Experimental, ex post facto

    • C. 

      Cross-sectional, longitudinal

    • D. 

      Exploratory, formal

    • E. 

      Laboratory, field


  • 146. 
    HarrisInteractive surveys members of its KidZone, a group of consumers ages 12-17. These participants report consumption data on a variety of products and response to various promotional methods. The KidZone members are part of a(n) _____.
    • A. 

      Longitudinal panel

    • B. 

      Cross-sectional study

    • C. 

      Monitoring study

    • D. 

      Statistical study

    • E. 

      Cohort study


  • 147. 
    Longitudinal studies of cohort groups _____.
    • A. 

      Study the same people over time

    • B. 

      Use panel members as participants

    • C. 

      Study attitudes at a single point in time

    • D. 

      Use different participants for each sequenced measurement

    • E. 

      Occur under actual environmental conditions


  • 148. 
    When studies are conducted under controlled conditions that do not simulate actual environmental conditions, the study is conducted _____.
    • A. 

      Experimentally

    • B. 

      Ex post facto

    • C. 

      Under field conditions

    • D. 

      Under laboratory conditions

    • E. 

      Via monitoring


  • 149. 
    Studies that are conducted in the field _____.
    • A. 

      Occur under actual environmental conditions

    • B. 

      Simulate environmental conditions

    • C. 

      Imitate reality

    • D. 

      Facilitate measurement of the variables of interest

    • E. 

      Control for extraneous variables


  • 150. 
    Which of the following is true of studies conducted under laboratory conditions?
    • A. 

      Occur under actual environmental conditions

    • B. 

      Simulate environmental conditions

    • C. 

      Imitate reality

    • D. 

      Dependent variable naturally occurs

    • E. 

      Facilitate measurement of the variables of interest


  • 151. 
    Which type of research includes an array of interpretative techniques which seek to describe, decode, translate, and otherwise come to terms with the meaning of certain phenomena?
    • A. 

      Quantitative

    • B. 

      Qualitative

    • C. 

      Statistical

    • D. 

      Descriptive

    • E. 

      Causal


  • 152. 
    The primary concern with using qualitative techniques is that qualitative data are too _____.
    • A. 

      Expensive

    • B. 

      Time-consuming

    • C. 

      Subjective

    • D. 

      Objective

    • E. 

      Structured


  • 153. 
    Which type of research attempts a precise measurement of some behavior, knowledge, opinion, or attitude?
    • A. 

      Quantitative

    • B. 

      Qualitative

    • C. 

      Exploratory

    • D. 

      Cross-sectional

    • E. 

      Longitudinal


  • 154. 
    Qualitative research seeks to _____ theory while quantitative research _____ it.
    • A. 

      Examine, interprets

    • B. 

      Build, tests,

    • C. 

      Test, understands

    • D. 

      Apply, builds

    • E. 

      Justify, applies


  • 155. 
    Which of the following research purposes are associated with qualitative research?
    • A. 

      Description

    • B. 

      Prediction

    • C. 

      Theory building

    • D. 

      Theory testing

    • E. 

      Forecasting


  • 156. 
    Which of the following is true of quantitative research?
    • A. 

      It uses a nonprobability sampling method

    • B. 

      Results are generalizable

    • C. 

      Data analysis is ongoing during the project

    • D. 

      Sample sizes are generally small

    • E. 

      It uses multiple data collection methods


  • 157. 
    Exercises that prepare participants for individual or group interviews on a topic are called _____.
    • A. 

      Calisthenics

    • B. 

      Projection techniques

    • C. 

      Homework

    • D. 

      Pretasking

    • E. 

      Focused preparation


  • 158. 
    Which type of sampling technique involves selecting research participants with no attempt at generating a statistically representative sample?
    • A. 

      Probability

    • B. 

      Nonprobability

    • C. 

      Random

    • D. 

      Systematic

    • E. 

      Cluster


  • 159. 
    All of the following are types of nonprobability sampling techniques except _____.
    • A. 

      Purposive sampling

    • B. 

      Snowball sampling

    • C. 

      Convenience sampling

    • D. 

      Random sampling

    • E. 

      All are types of nonprobability techniques


  • 160. 
    Which type of nonprobability sampling technique involves choosing participants arbitrarily for their unique characteristics, experiences, attitudes, or perceptions?
    • A. 

      Random sampling

    • B. 

      Purposive sampling

    • C. 

      Convenience sampling

    • D. 

      Snowball sampling

    • E. 

      Quota sampling


  • 161. 
    Which type of nonprobability sampling technique involves choosing participants who then refer others with similar or different characteristics?
    • A. 

      Random sampling

    • B. 

      Purposive sampling

    • C. 

      Convenience sampling

    • D. 

      Snowball sampling

    • E. 

      Quota sampling


  • 162. 
    Snowball sampling is a nonprobability sampling technique in which _____.
    • A. 

      Participants are chosen arbitrarily for their unique characteristics, experiences, or attitudes

    • B. 

      Participants are chosen and then refer others with similar or different characteristics

    • C. 

      Researchers select any readily available individuals as participants

    • D. 

      Researchers chose readily available individuals as participants but seek to ensure a good mix of demographic characteristics

    • E. 

      Researchers systematically select participants from a sampling frame


  • 163. 
    Convenience sampling is a nonprobability sampling technique in which _____.
    • A. 

      Participants are chosen arbitrarily for their unique characteristics, experiences, or attitudes

    • B. 

      Participants are chosen and then refer others with similar or different characteristics

    • C. 

      Researchers select any readily available individuals as participants

    • D. 

      Researchers systematically select participants from a sampling frame

    • E. 

      Researchers chose readily available individuals as participants but seek to ensure a good mix of demographic characteristics


  • 164. 
    Which type of nonprobability sampling technique is most useful when individuals with the desired characteristics, experiences, or attitudes are difficult to identify or reach?
    • A. 

      Random sampling

    • B. 

      Purposive sampling

    • C. 

      Convenience sampling

    • D. 

      Snowball sampling

    • E. 

      Quota sampling


  • 165. 
    Jane is conducting interviews in order to develop a customer profile for her client. She customizes each interview to each participant and does not ask specific questions. What type of interview format is Jane using?
    • A. 

      Structured

    • B. 

      Semistructured

    • C. 

      Unstructured

    • D. 

      Closed-ended

    • E. 

      Direct interviewing


  • 166. 
    _____ interviews have certain specific questions that are asked of all participants but also allow the interviewer freedom to probe the respondent based on his or her specific answers.
    • A. 

      Structured

    • B. 

      Semistructured

    • C. 

      Unstructured

    • D. 

      Closed-ended

    • E. 

      Direct interviewing


  • 167. 
    Which of the following is true of structured interviews?
    • A. 

      Permits direct comparability of responses

    • B. 

      Encourages variation in questions

    • C. 

      Interviewer probes may bias answers

    • D. 

      Responses are closed-ended

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 168. 
    Jackson is conducting interviews to identify patterns in consumer decision making for high-involvement products. Which type of interview should he use if he needs a high degree of comparability among responses, no question variability, and to maintain his own neutrality during the interviews?
    • A. 

      Unstructured

    • B. 

      Structured

    • C. 

      Semistructured

    • D. 

      Closed-ended

    • E. 

      Briefing


  • 169. 
    Which type of interview requires the least amount of skill and creativity on the part of the interviewer?
    • A. 

      Unstructured

    • B. 

      Structured

    • C. 

      Semistructured

    • D. 

      Exploratory

    • E. 

      Briefing


  • 170. 
    Which of the following channels of communication would not be used when conducting interviews?
    • A. 

      Face-to-face

    • B. 

      Telephone

    • C. 

      Chat room

    • D. 

      Mail

    • E. 

      Instant messaging


  • 171. 
    Qualitative methods that encourage participants to reveal hidden or suppressed attitudes, ideas, emotions, and motives are called _____ techniques.
    • A. 

      Deceptive

    • B. 

      Unstructured

    • C. 

      Projective

    • D. 

      Focus group

    • E. 

      Semistructured


  • 172. 
    Jack is participating in a research study. The interviewer asks Jack to say the first word that comes to mind when he hears a product's benefits. What type of projective technique is this an example of?
    • A. 

      Thematic apperception test

    • B. 

      Sentence completion

    • C. 

      Brand mapping

    • D. 

      Laddering

    • E. 

      Word association


  • 173. 
    When using the _____ projective technique, participants are asked to write the dialog for a cartoon picture.
    • A. 

      Word association

    • B. 

      Picture association

    • C. 

      Thematic apperception test

    • D. 

      Empty balloons

    • E. 

      Laddering


  • 174. 
    When using the _____, participants are confronted with a picture and asked to describe how the person in the picture feels and thinks.
    • A. 

      Word association

    • B. 

      Picture association

    • C. 

      Thematic apperception test

    • D. 

      Empty balloons

    • E. 

      Laddering


  • 175. 
    When using _____, participants are asked to relate the properties of one thing or person or brand to another.
    • A. 

      Imagination exercises

    • B. 

      Picture association

    • C. 

      The thematic apperception test

    • D. 

      Empty balloons

    • E. 

      Laddering


  • 176. 
    When observation employs standardized procedures, trained observers, schedules for recording, and other devices that reflect the scientific procedures of other primary data methods, it is said to be _____ observation.
    • A. 

      Simple

    • B. 

      Systematic

    • C. 

      Organized

    • D. 

      Structured

    • E. 

      Semistructured


  • 177. 
    Observation means to collect data by _____.
    • A. 

      Viewing

    • B. 

      Listening

    • C. 

      Touching

    • D. 

      Smelling

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 178. 
    Which of the following is a condition in which observation is an appropriate method for data collection?
    • A. 

      Anonymity is desired

    • B. 

      Respondents are widely dispersed

    • C. 

      Attitudinal information is needed

    • D. 

      Natural setting is imperative

    • E. 

      Extensive amount of information is needed


  • 179. 
    Observation is an appropriate method for data collection in all of the following conditions except _____.
    • A. 

      Purpose must be disguised

    • B. 

      Natural setting is necessary

    • C. 

      Anonymity is desired

    • D. 

      Memory decay is a factor

    • E. 

      Behavioral data is needed


  • 180. 
    Jason is developing a research design for a study of wine drinkers. The target population is widely dispersed. Jason needs to collect data on past consumption behavior and intentions for future behavior. Which type of data collection method is most appropriate for Jason's project?
    • A. 

      Communication

    • B. 

      Observation

    • C. 

      Monitoring

    • D. 

      Experimental

    • E. 

      Causal


  • 181. 
    Scott's Lawn Care has hired Henry Associates to find out whether home improvement warehouse stores communicate the benefits of various brands of lawn care products differently than smaller stores. Henry Associates needs to know what is communicated to consumers in the actual settings of the stores and wants to ensure that the message isn't filtered. Only behavioral data is required. Which type of data collection method is most appropriate in this situation?
    • A. 

      Communication

    • B. 

      Observation

    • C. 

      Surveys

    • D. 

      Experimental

    • E. 

      Causal


  • 182. 
    Which of the following is a type of behavioral observation?
    • A. 

      Nonverbal behaviour

    • B. 

      Linguistic behavior

    • C. 

      Activity observation

    • D. 

      Extralinguistic behavior

    • E. 

      Spatial behavior


  • 183. 
    The recording of physical actions or movements of participants is called _____ observation.
    • A. 

      Nonverbal

    • B. 

      Spatial

    • C. 

      Verbal

    • D. 

      Extralinguistic

    • E. 

      Nonbehavioral


  • 184. 
    The most prevalent category of observation study is _____ observation.
    • A. 

      Linguistic

    • B. 

      Extralinguistic

    • C. 

      Spatial

    • D. 

      Nonverbal

    • E. 

      Digital


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