Patient care Quiz 2

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| By Mn.clark124
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Mn.clark124
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Quizzes Created: 6 | Total Attempts: 4,332
Questions: 51 | Attempts: 434

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Patient Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Mr. X has been a patient at Happy Valley Community Hospital for 5 days. During his stay in the hospital, he was taken to the diagnostic imaging department several times for diagnostic imaging procedures, He was cared for each time he went to that department by a radiographer who had a severe upper respiratory infection. Two days after he returned home from the hospital, he also developed a severe respiratory infection. It would be appropriate to say that Mr.X had developed:

    • A.

      An iatrogenic infection

    • B.

      A nosocomial infection

    • C.

      A community acquired infection

    • D.

      A blood borne infection

    Correct Answer
    B. A nosocomial infection
    Explanation
    Mr. X developed a nosocomial infection. This is because he acquired a severe respiratory infection after being cared for by a radiographer who had a severe upper respiratory infection at the hospital. Nosocomial infections are infections that are acquired in a hospital or healthcare facility.

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  • 2. 

    Mary Mandura, an 82-year-old white female, has been hospitalized for several weeks as a result of multiple injuries suffered in an automobile accident. She has been treated with a series of broad spectrum antibiotics to discourage infection. Ms. Mandura now has severe diarrhea, and the stool culture has produced C. difficle. This would be called:

    • A.

      A blood borne infection

    • B.

      A community acquired infection

    • C.

      A viral infection

    • D.

      A superinfection

    Correct Answer
    D. A superinfection
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a superinfection. A superinfection refers to an infection that occurs on top of an existing infection or after the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics. In this case, Mary Mandura has developed severe diarrhea and a stool culture has shown the presence of C. difficile, which is a type of bacteria that commonly causes superinfections, especially in individuals who have been on antibiotics for an extended period.

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  • 3. 

    Hepatitis B and hepatitis C are bloodborne viral infections. When you are caring for persons known to have either of these disease, use the following infection control techniques:

    • A.

      Wear gloves if you may come in contact with blood or body substances

    • B.

      Wear goggles if there is a possibility of your being splashed with blood or body substances

    • C.

      Wear a particulate mask at all times

    • D.

      Both a and b are correct

    Correct Answer
    D. Both a and b are correct
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Both a and b are correct" because both wearing gloves and wearing goggles are effective infection control techniques when caring for persons known to have hepatitis B or hepatitis C. Wearing gloves helps to prevent direct contact with blood or body substances, while wearing goggles protects the eyes from potential splashes of blood or body substances. By following these infection control techniques, the risk of transmission of the viruses can be minimized.

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  • 4. 

    There is currently less reason to be concerned about contracting HIV because there is improved treatment and the disease is no longer fatal.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement in the question suggests that there is less reason to be concerned about contracting HIV because of improved treatment and the disease no longer being fatal. However, this statement is false. While it is true that there have been significant advancements in HIV treatment, it is still a serious and chronic condition that requires lifelong management. HIV can still lead to serious health complications if left untreated, and it is important to take precautions to prevent transmission. Therefore, there is still a valid reason to be concerned about contracting HIV.

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  • 5. 

    HIV, or the disease that it produces, is transmitted by direct or indirect contact with infected blood or body substances.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    HIV is a virus that causes the disease known as AIDS. It can be transmitted through direct contact with infected blood or body substances such as semen, vaginal fluids, or breast milk. This can occur through activities like unprotected sex, sharing needles, or from mother to child during childbirth or breastfeeding. Therefore, the statement that HIV is transmitted by direct or indirect contact with infected blood or body substances is true.

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  • 6. 

    The radiographer should always dress for the workplace with infection control in mind. This means that:

    • A.

      Clothing must be washable; fingernails must be kept short; shoes must be comfortable and have closed toes; and no jewelry is worn.

    • B.

      The radiographer must look unattractive b/c anything that looks good spreads infection

    • C.

      A scrub suit must be worn at all times

    • D.

      The rules must be followed when TJC is inspecting

    Correct Answer
    A. Clothing must be washable; fingernails must be kept short; shoes must be comfortable and have closed toes; and no jewelry is worn.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that clothing must be washable, fingernails must be kept short, shoes must be comfortable and have closed toes, and no jewelry is worn. This is because these practices adhere to infection control protocols in the workplace. Washable clothing helps prevent the spread of contaminants, short fingernails are easier to clean and reduce the risk of scratching or injuring patients, closed-toe shoes protect the feet from potential hazards, and no jewelry reduces the risk of cross-contamination. Following these guidelines helps maintain a safe and hygienic environment for both the radiographer and the patients.

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  • 7. 

    Microorganisms that need a host cell to reproduce and are virtually unresponsive to antimicrobial drugs are:

    • A.

      Bacteria

    • B.

      Fungi

    • C.

      Protozoa

    • D.

      Viruses

    Correct Answer
    D. Viruses
    Explanation
    Viruses are microorganisms that require a host cell in order to reproduce. They cannot reproduce on their own and rely on infecting a host cell to replicate. Additionally, viruses are known to be virtually unresponsive to antimicrobial drugs. This is because antimicrobial drugs, such as antibiotics, are designed to target bacteria and fungi, which have distinct cellular structures and mechanisms compared to viruses. Therefore, viruses cannot be effectively treated with antimicrobial drugs, making them a unique and challenging group of microorganisms to combat.

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  • 8. 

    The radiographer must use strict infection control measures that include blood and body substance precautions for:

    • A.

      Every patient who enters the diagnostic imaging department.

    • B.

      Patients who have known communicable diseases

    • C.

      Only patients with AIDS

    • D.

      Patients who seem ill

    Correct Answer
    A. Every patient who enters the diagnostic imaging department.
    Explanation
    The radiographer must use strict infection control measures for every patient who enters the diagnostic imaging department because it is important to prevent the spread of infections and ensure the safety of both the patients and the healthcare staff. Infection control measures, such as wearing gloves, masks, and gowns, and practicing proper hand hygiene, help to minimize the risk of transmission of infectious diseases. By applying these precautions to every patient, regardless of their specific condition or symptoms, the radiographer can maintain a safe and hygienic environment for everyone involved.

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  • 9. 

    When a person is in the incubation period of the disease process, the radiographer has no control over its transmission.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    During the incubation period of a disease, the person may not show any symptoms but can still transmit the infection to others. As a radiographer, one does not have control over the transmission of the disease during this period. Therefore, the statement is false.

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  • 10. 

    Blood and body substance precautions include:

    • A.

      Use of clean disposable gloves for sick person

    • B.

      Use of clean, disposable gloves for contact of the hands with blood or body fluids, a mask and goggles if blood or body fluids may spray on your face, and a gown if the blood and body fluids may touch your clothing for any patient care that may involve contact with blood or body fluids.

    • C.

      Clean disposable gloves as necessary

    • D.

      Gown, gloves, mask, and goggles for all patient care

    Correct Answer
    B. Use of clean, disposable gloves for contact of the hands with blood or body fluids, a mask and goggles if blood or body fluids may spray on your face, and a gown if the blood and body fluids may touch your clothing for any patient care that may involve contact with blood or body fluids.
    Explanation
    Blood and body substance precautions require the use of clean, disposable gloves when coming into contact with blood or body fluids. Additionally, if there is a risk of blood or body fluids spraying onto the face, a mask and goggles should be worn. Furthermore, if there is a possibility of blood or body fluids touching clothing during patient care, a gown should also be worn. These precautions are necessary to minimize the risk of transmission of infectious diseases and maintain a safe and hygienic healthcare environment.

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  • 11. 

    The most common means of spreading infection are:

    • A.

      Soiled instruments

    • B.

      Infected patients

    • C.

      Human hands

    • D.

      Domestic animals

    Correct Answer
    C. Human hands
    Explanation
    Human hands are a common means of spreading infection because they come into contact with various surfaces and objects, including infected patients and soiled instruments. When people touch their faces or other body parts, they can transfer pathogens from their hands to their mucous membranes, leading to infection. Additionally, hands can also contaminate food, water, and other items that are then touched by others, facilitating the transmission of infectious agents. Therefore, proper hand hygiene, such as regular handwashing, is crucial in preventing the spread of infections.

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  • 12. 

    The elements need to produce an infection are a source, a host, and a means of transmission. An example of a source of infection might be:

    • A.

      A student who has a cold and comes to work

    • B.

      A visitor in the hospital who has a fever blister on his or her mouth

    • C.

      A patient who develops pneumonia

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the given examples can be considered as sources of infection. A student who has a cold and comes to work can spread the cold virus to others. A visitor in the hospital who has a fever blister on his or her mouth can transmit the herpes simplex virus to patients or healthcare workers. A patient who develops pneumonia can release infectious respiratory droplets that can infect others. Therefore, all of the above examples can potentially serve as sources of infection.

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  • 13. 

    A safety precaution that must be taken when disposing o fused hypodermic needles and syringes is:

    • A.

      Place needle in tie waste basket as soon as possible

    • B.

      Recap needle and dispose of it quickly

    • C.

      To place the syringe immediately after use with the uncapped needle attached directly into the contaminated waste receptacle provided

    • D.

      Detach needle from syringe and place only the needle in the contaminated waste bin

    Correct Answer
    C. To place the syringe immediately after use with the uncapped needle attached directly into the contaminated waste receptacle provided
    Explanation
    To place the syringe immediately after use with the uncapped needle attached directly into the contaminated waste receptacle provided is the correct answer because it ensures that the needle is disposed of safely and prevents any accidental injuries or contamination. By keeping the needle attached to the syringe, there is a reduced risk of needlestick injuries during disposal. Placing it directly into the designated waste receptacle also ensures proper containment of hazardous materials.

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  • 14. 

    When caring for a patient whom you know to be infected with HIV and who does not have AIDS, you use standard blood and body fluid precautions and:

    • A.

      Share the information with the tech in the next room who has no contact with the patient

    • B.

      Keep all information concerning the patient confidential

    • C.

      Keep the patients chart in a place where it cannot be read by others

    • D.

      Both b and C

    Correct Answer
    D. Both b and C
    Explanation
    When caring for a patient infected with HIV but without AIDS, it is important to use standard blood and body fluid precautions to prevent the transmission of the virus. In addition to these precautions, it is necessary to keep all information concerning the patient confidential to protect their privacy and prevent any potential discrimination or stigma. This includes keeping the patient's chart in a place where it cannot be read by others, ensuring that their medical information remains private. Therefore, the correct answer is both option B and C.

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  • 15. 

    The radiographer who has received a needle-stick injury is obliged to notify his supervisor at the end of the work day.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The radiographer who has received a needle-stick injury is not obliged to notify his supervisor at the end of the work day. It is important for the radiographer to report the injury immediately to ensure proper medical attention and follow-up procedures can be carried out promptly. Delaying the notification could potentially lead to complications or further harm.

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  • 16. 

    Hand hygiene is to be used in the following situations by radiographers in the workplace:

    • A.

      Before caring for a patient

    • B.

      After caring for a patient

    • C.

      When preparing of an invasive procedure

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Hand hygiene is crucial for radiographers in the workplace in order to prevent the spread of infections. They should practice hand hygiene before caring for a patient to ensure that their hands are clean and free from any potential pathogens. After caring for a patient, hand hygiene is necessary to remove any potential contaminants that may have been acquired during the care process. Additionally, hand hygiene is essential when preparing for an invasive procedure to minimize the risk of introducing pathogens into the patient's body. Therefore, all of the given situations require radiographers to practice hand hygiene.

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  • 17. 

    If it is not possible to find a sink to wash hands, it is safe to use alcohol-based hand rubs.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Alcohol-based hand rubs are an effective alternative to handwashing when a sink is not available. These hand rubs contain alcohol as the main active ingredient, which helps to kill germs and bacteria on the hands. When used correctly, they can significantly reduce the risk of spreading infections and diseases. Therefore, it is safe to use alcohol-based hand rubs in situations where handwashing facilities are not accessible.

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  • 18. 

    The route of transmission of MRSA, VRE, VRSA, and ESBL is

    • A.

      Droplet contact

    • B.

      Airborne contact

    • C.

      Direct contact

    • D.

      Vector contact

    Correct Answer
    C. Direct contact
    Explanation
    The correct answer is direct contact. MRSA, VRE, VRSA, and ESBL are all bacteria that can be transmitted from person to person through direct contact, such as touching an infected wound or sharing personal items. This means that the bacteria can be spread through physical contact between individuals. It is important to practice good hand hygiene and take precautions to prevent the spread of these bacteria through direct contact.

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  • 19. 

    When the radiographer is to enter the newborn nursery, he must do the following:

    • A.

      Always wear cap and mask

    • B.

      Always scrub his or her hands for 3 minutes

    • C.

      Always clean his equipment with a disinfectant solution

    • D.

      Both b and c

    Correct Answer
    D. Both b and c
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Both b and c." When the radiographer enters the newborn nursery, they must always scrub their hands for 3 minutes and clean their equipment with a disinfectant solution. Wearing a cap and mask is not mentioned as a requirement in this scenario.

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  • 20. 

    The radiographer entering the room of a patient with tuberculosis must wear the following:

    • A.

      An N95 respirator mask

    • B.

      Gloves

    • C.

      Gown and water proof apron

    • D.

      B and C are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. An N95 respirator mask
    Explanation
    The radiographer entering the room of a patient with tuberculosis must wear an N95 respirator mask because it provides a high level of filtration and protection against airborne particles, including tuberculosis bacteria. Gloves are also necessary to prevent direct contact with the patient's bodily fluids or contaminated surfaces. Additionally, wearing a gown and waterproof apron provides further protection by preventing any potential contamination of clothing. Therefore, both options B and C are correct and should be followed to ensure the safety of the radiographer.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following are essential parts of the initial assessment of a patient who is in the diagnostic imaging department for an invasive procedure? Select all that apply. 

    • A.

      Taking a blood pressure

    • B.

      Taking a pulse

    • C.

      Listening for rales in the lungs

    • D.

      Taking a respiration rate

    • E.

      Doing blood gas assessment

    • F.

      Finding out the oxygen saturation level

    • G.

      Taking a temperature

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Taking a blood pressure
    B. Taking a pulse
    D. Taking a respiration rate
    Explanation
    The initial assessment of a patient in the diagnostic imaging department for an invasive procedure includes taking a blood pressure, taking a pulse, and taking a respiration rate. These vital signs provide important information about the patient's cardiovascular and respiratory status, which is crucial for ensuring their safety during the procedure. Listening for rales in the lungs, doing a blood gas assessment, finding out the oxygen saturation level, and taking a temperature may also be important assessments, but they are not specifically mentioned as essential parts of the initial assessment in this question.

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  • 22. 

    Systolic blood pressure can be defined as: 

    • A.

      The lowest point to which the blood pressure drops during relaxation of the ventricles

    • B.

      The highest point reached during contraction of the left ventricle

    • C.

      The difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure

    • D.

      The pressure in the pulmonary vein

    Correct Answer
    B. The highest point reached during contraction of the left ventricle
    Explanation
    Systolic blood pressure refers to the highest point reached during contraction of the left ventricle. This is when the heart is pumping blood out to the rest of the body. It is an important measurement in assessing the health of the cardiovascular system and is typically the top number in a blood pressure reading.

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  • 23. 

    What range of breaths/min is the normal adult respiratory rate?

    • A.

      8 to 10

    • B.

      15 to 20

    • C.

      20 to 30

    • D.

      80 to 90

    Correct Answer
    B. 15 to 20
    Explanation
    The normal adult respiratory rate is typically between 15 to 20 breaths per minute. This range is considered normal for a healthy adult and indicates efficient lung function and oxygen exchange in the body. A respiratory rate below or above this range may indicate underlying health conditions or respiratory distress.

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  • 24. 

    An adult patient is considered to be hypertensive or to have hypertension if the systolic blood pressure and diastolic blood pressure are consistently greater than: 

    • A.

      100 systolic and 60 diastolic

    • B.

      120 systolic and 80 diastolic

    • C.

      130 systolic and 86 diastolic

    • D.

      140 systolic and 90 diastolic

    Correct Answer
    D. 140 systolic and 90 diastolic
    Explanation
    An adult patient is considered to be hypertensive or to have hypertension if their systolic blood pressure consistently exceeds 140 and their diastolic blood pressure consistently exceeds 90.

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  • 25. 

    A patient may be considered to have tachycardia if the pulse rate is higher than: 

    • A.

      60 beats/min

    • B.

      80 beats/min

    • C.

      90 beats/min

    • D.

      100 beats/min

    Correct Answer
    D. 100 beats/min
    Explanation
    Tachycardia is a medical condition characterized by a rapid heart rate. A pulse rate higher than 100 beats per minute is considered to be tachycardia.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following items must be in the diagnostic imaging department and in working order? More than one may apply. 

    • A.

      Catheterization sets

    • B.

      Blood pressure monitoring equipment

    • C.

      Oxygen delivery system

    • D.

      Both B and C

    Correct Answer
    D. Both B and C
    Explanation
    In a diagnostic imaging department, it is essential to have both blood pressure monitoring equipment and an oxygen delivery system in working order. Blood pressure monitoring equipment is necessary to monitor the patient's blood pressure during imaging procedures, ensuring their safety and well-being. An oxygen delivery system is crucial in case a patient experiences any respiratory distress or requires supplemental oxygen during the imaging process. Therefore, both B (blood pressure monitoring equipment) and C (oxygen delivery system) must be present and functioning properly in the diagnostic imaging department.

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  • 27. 

    Point where the blood pressure is most often measured 

    • A.

      Clinical thermometer

    • B.

      Stethoscope

    • C.

      Brachial artery

    • D.

      Radial artery

    Correct Answer
    C. Brachial artery
    Explanation
    The brachial artery is the point where blood pressure is most often measured. This artery is located in the upper arm and is easily accessible for measuring blood pressure using a blood pressure cuff and a stethoscope. By placing the cuff around the upper arm and listening for the sounds of blood flow with the stethoscope, healthcare professionals can accurately measure a person's blood pressure at this location.

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  • 28. 

    Measures apical pulse 

    • A.

      Sphygmomanometer

    • B.

      Clinical thermometer

    • C.

      Stethoscope

    • D.

      Brachial artery

    Correct Answer
    C. Stethoscope
    Explanation
    The stethoscope is used to measure the apical pulse. The apical pulse is the heartbeat heard at the apex (bottom) of the heart, which is located on the left side of the chest. The stethoscope allows healthcare professionals to listen to the heart sounds and count the beats per minute, providing an accurate measurement of the apical pulse rate. The other options listed, such as the sphygmomanometer (used to measure blood pressure), clinical thermometer (used to measure body temperature), and brachial artery (a blood vessel in the arm), are not directly involved in measuring the apical pulse.

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  • 29. 

    Measures body temperature 

    • A.

      Sphygmomanometer

    • B.

      Clinical thermometer

    • C.

      Stethoscope

    • D.

      Radial artery

    Correct Answer
    B. Clinical thermometer
    Explanation
    The clinical thermometer is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to measure body temperature. A sphygmomanometer is used to measure blood pressure, a stethoscope is used to listen to internal body sounds, and the radial artery is a blood vessel in the wrist. Only the clinical thermometer is directly related to measuring body temperature.

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  • 30. 

    Measures blood pressure

    • A.

      Sphygmomanometer

    • B.

      Clinical thermometer

    • C.

      Stethoscope

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Sphygmomanometer
    Explanation
    A sphygmomanometer is a device used to measure blood pressure. It consists of an inflatable cuff that is placed around the upper arm, a pressure gauge, and a stethoscope. The cuff is inflated to temporarily occlude the blood flow in the artery, and then slowly released while listening to the sounds of blood flow with the stethoscope. The pressure at which the sounds are first heard (systolic pressure) and the pressure at which the sounds disappear (diastolic pressure) are recorded as the blood pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is sphygmomanometer.

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  • 31. 

    Point where the pulse is most often measured 

    • A.

      Radial artery

    • B.

      Brachial artery

    • C.

      Brachial vein

    • D.

      Radial vein

    Correct Answer
    A. Radial artery
    Explanation
    The pulse is most often measured at the radial artery. This is because the radial artery is easily accessible and located close to the surface of the skin on the wrist. It is also a major artery that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the hand, making it an ideal location to feel the pulse and assess the heart rate.

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  • 32. 

    A nasal cannula and face mask are the two most commonly used oxygen delivery systems.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A nasal cannula and face mask are indeed the two most commonly used oxygen delivery systems. A nasal cannula is a small, lightweight tube that is inserted into the nostrils, delivering oxygen directly to the patient's lungs. It is comfortable and allows the patient to talk, eat, and drink while receiving oxygen. On the other hand, a face mask covers the nose and mouth, delivering oxygen to the patient's airway. It is commonly used in cases where a higher concentration of oxygen is required. Both of these delivery systems are widely used in medical settings to provide oxygen therapy to patients.

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  • 33. 

    Eighty percent of deaths in persons over age 65 are due to: 

    • A.

      Trauma, peritonitis, and emphysema

    • B.

      Fractures, chemical abuse, and schizophrenia

    • C.

      Cancer, heart disease, and strokes

    • D.

      Diabetes mellitus, arthritis, and hypertension

    Correct Answer
    C. Cancer, heart disease, and strokes
    Explanation
    The correct answer is cancer, heart disease, and strokes. As people age, they become more susceptible to these conditions. Cancer refers to the abnormal growth of cells in the body, which can lead to organ failure and death. Heart disease includes conditions such as coronary artery disease and heart failure, which can cause heart attacks and other life-threatening events. Strokes occur when blood flow to the brain is disrupted, leading to brain damage and potentially death. These three conditions are major causes of mortality in the elderly population.

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  • 34. 

    When the radiographer must schedule an elderly patient for a difficult diagnostic examination, it is best to schedule the examination for: 

    • A.

      Evening hours so that the patient has the day to rest

    • B.

      Early morning hours so that the patient can have breakfast as close to the usual time as possible

    • C.

      In the middle of the day so that traffic is less hectic

    • D.

      At a time that is convenient for the radiographer

    Correct Answer
    B. Early morning hours so that the patient can have breakfast as close to the usual time as possible
    Explanation
    Scheduling the examination for early morning hours allows the elderly patient to have breakfast as close to their usual time as possible. This is important because elderly patients may have specific dietary needs or medications that need to be taken with food. By scheduling the examination in the early morning, it minimizes the disruption to the patient's routine and ensures they are able to have a proper meal before the examination. This can help prevent any potential complications or discomfort during the diagnostic procedure.

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  • 35. 

    Physiologic changes that come with aging that the radiographer should consider as he works with the elderly patient include: 

    • A.

      Loss of the sensation of pain

    • B.

      Loss of sensitivity to heat or cold

    • C.

      Diminishing cough reflex

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    As people age, they may experience physiologic changes that can affect their response to certain stimuli. Loss of the sensation of pain can occur, which means that elderly patients may not feel pain as acutely as younger individuals. Similarly, they may also experience a loss of sensitivity to heat or cold, which can make it difficult for them to detect extreme temperatures. Additionally, the cough reflex tends to diminish with age, which can impact the ability of elderly patients to clear their airways effectively. Therefore, all of the given options are correct as they highlight important considerations for radiographers when working with elderly patients.

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  • 36. 

    Assessment of the elderly should include: 

    • A.

      Ability to see and hear

    • B.

      Ability to move without assistance

    • C.

      Level of understanding

    • D.

      Both a and b

    Correct Answer
    D. Both a and b
    Explanation
    The assessment of the elderly should include their ability to see and hear, as well as their ability to move without assistance. These factors are important in determining their overall health and independence. Assessing their vision and hearing abilities helps identify any sensory impairments that may affect their daily functioning and quality of life. Additionally, assessing their mobility without assistance provides insights into their physical strength and ability to perform activities of daily living independently. Therefore, including both a and b in the assessment ensures a comprehensive evaluation of the elderly's overall well-being.

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  • 37. 

    All of the following are caregiver indicators of elder abuse except: 

    • A.

      Caregiver is flirtatious in an inappropriate sexual approach to the patient

    • B.

      Caregiver responds for the elder, preventing the patient from responding

    • C.

      Caregiver lacks affection toward the patient

    • D.

      All of the following are signs

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the following are signs
  • 38. 

    Why is anaphylactic shock the most frequently seen type of shock in the diagnostic imaging department? 

    • A.

      Patients who come for diagnostic imaging procedures are weak and debilitated

    • B.

      Iodinated contrast agents are frequently used

    • C.

      Patients here have more allergies

    • D.

      X-radiation causes this problem

    Correct Answer
    B. Iodinated contrast agents are frequently used
    Explanation
    Anaphylactic shock is the most frequently seen type of shock in the diagnostic imaging department because iodinated contrast agents are frequently used. These contrast agents can cause an allergic reaction in some patients, leading to anaphylactic shock.

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  • 39. 

    General signs and symptoms that the radiographer must learn to recognize as probable indicators that the patient is in shock include (More than one may apply): 

    • A.

      Strong, irregular pulse

    • B.

      Hypertension

    • C.

      Flushed face

    • D.

      Respiration increases

    • E.

      Skin is cold and clammy

    • F.

      Acetone breath

    • G.

      Decreased temperature

    • H.

      Weak, thready pulse

    Correct Answer(s)
    D. Respiration increases
    E. Skin is cold and clammy
    F. Acetone breath
    H. Weak, thready pulse
    Explanation
    The signs and symptoms listed in the answer are all indicators that the patient may be in shock. An increase in respiration is a common response to shock as the body tries to compensate for decreased blood flow. Cold and clammy skin is also a sign of shock, as the body redirects blood flow away from the skin to vital organs. Acetone breath can indicate metabolic acidosis, which can occur in shock. A weak and thready pulse is another common sign of shock, as the heart struggles to pump blood effectively.

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  • 40. 

    All of the following are early symptoms of anaphylactic reaction, except 

    • A.

      Itching at the site of injection

    • B.

      Tearing of eyes

    • C.

      Sneezing

    • D.

      Decreasing blood pressure

    Correct Answer
    D. Decreasing blood pressure
    Explanation
    Anaphylactic reactions are severe allergic reactions that can be life-threatening. Common early symptoms include itching at the site of injection, tearing of eyes, and sneezing. These symptoms occur due to the release of histamine and other chemicals in response to the allergen. However, decreasing blood pressure is not an early symptom of an anaphylactic reaction. Instead, it is a later symptom that occurs as the reaction progresses and can lead to shock.

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  • 41. 

    Myrtle Maywriter is a 43-year-old female who has come to diagnostic imaging this morning from her home for an upper GI series. After she has been in the room for a short time, she complains of a severe headache. Shortly after, you notice that she has cold, clammy skin and speaks in a slurred manner. You suspect that Ms. Maywriter is: 

    • A.

      A diabetic and is having a ketoacidotic reaction

    • B.

      Having a cardiac arrest

    • C.

      An alcoholic and is drunk

    • D.

      An epileptic and is having a seizure

    • E.

      A diabetic and is having a hypoglycemic reaction

    Correct Answer
    E. A diabetic and is having a hypoglycemic reaction
    Explanation
    Based on the symptoms described, such as severe headache, cold clammy skin, and slurred speech, it is likely that Ms. Maywriter is experiencing a hypoglycemic reaction. These symptoms are commonly associated with low blood sugar levels in diabetics.

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  • 42. 

    Myrtle Maywriter is a 43-year-old female who has come to diagnostic imaging this morning from her home for an upper GI series. After she has been in the room for a short time, she complains of a severe headache. Shortly after, you notice that she has cold, clammy skin and speaks in a slurred manner.The immediate emergency treatment of Ms. Maywriter’s is imperative. Which is the best action to take? 

    • A.

      Prepare for oxygen administration and call the emergency team.

    • B.

      Check for an identification of the patient as a diabetic, give her some form of concentrated sugar, and notify the physician in charge.

    • C.

      Place the patient in a supine position, keep her warm, and call the emergency team.

    • D.

      Continue with your work, but do not leave the patient alone.

    Correct Answer
    A. Prepare for oxygen administration and call the emergency team.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to prepare for oxygen administration and call the emergency team. The patient's symptoms, including severe headache, cold and clammy skin, and slurred speech, suggest a potential medical emergency such as a stroke or hypoglycemia. Administering oxygen can help improve oxygenation to the brain, while calling the emergency team ensures that immediate medical attention is provided. This action prioritizes the patient's safety and well-being.

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  • 43. 

    Symptoms of a partially obstructed airway may include: 

    • A.

      Cold, clammy skin; pallor; weakness; anxiety

    • B.

      Flushed, hot skin; hyperactivity; confusion; seizures

    • C.

      Labored, noisy breathing; wheezing; use of neck muscles to assist with breathing

    • D.

      Acetone breath, irregular pulse, noisy respiration, rapid heartbeat, flushed skin

    Correct Answer
    D. Acetone breath, irregular pulse, noisy respiration, rapid heartbeat, flushed skin
  • 44. 

    A 16-year-old patient comes to the diagnostic imaging department for a CT scan. He is lying on the table in a supine position. He suddenly seems to lose consciousness and begins to move violently with jerking motions. You realize that he is having a generalized seizure. What is the best action to take? 

    • A.

      Go to the patient immediately and restrain him or her with immobilizers.

    • B.

      Call for help and do not leave the patient.

    • C.

      Place the patient on the floor and begin CPR.

    • D.

      Call for help and make sure the patient does not injure himself.

    Correct Answer
    D. Call for help and make sure the patient does not injure himself.
    Explanation
    The best action to take when a patient is having a generalized seizure is to call for help and make sure the patient does not injure themselves. Restraint or immobilization is not recommended as it can potentially cause harm to the patient. Placing the patient on the floor and beginning CPR is not necessary in this situation as the patient is still breathing.

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  • 45. 

    Mrs. Gertrude Glucose, age 35, had an open reduction of her left femur 3 days earlier and has been transported to the diagnostic imaging department by gurney from her hospital room for radiographs. As you prepare the patient for the radiograph, she suddenly begins to complain of pain in her mid-chest and appears to be out of breath. You stop your preparation and take her pulse and blood pressure. You find out that her blood pressure is 120/80 and her radial pulse is 120 per minute and is very difficult to palpate because it is so weak and thready. You quickly notify the physician of the problem, and he directs you to call the emergency team. You do this and make other emergency preparations. You believe that this patient may be having: 

    • A.

      A stroke

    • B.

      A seizure

    • C.

      A pulmonary embolus

    • D.

      An episode of syncope

    Correct Answer
    C. A pulmonary embolus
    Explanation
    The patient's sudden onset of chest pain and difficulty breathing, along with a weak and thready pulse, are indicative of a potential pulmonary embolus. A pulmonary embolus occurs when a blood clot travels to the lungs and blocks blood flow. This can cause chest pain, shortness of breath, and a rapid, weak pulse. Given the patient's recent surgery and immobilization, she is at an increased risk for developing a blood clot. Prompt notification of the physician and calling the emergency team is necessary to provide immediate medical intervention for this potentially life-threatening condition.

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  • 46. 

    Fainting is a common medical emergency in the diagnostic imaging department. If a patient appears to be fainting, what is the first thing to do? 

    • A.

      Assist the patient to a safe position and then call for help.

    • B.

      Give smelling salts.

    • C.

      Get the emergency cart.

    • D.

      Prepare to administer oxygen.

    Correct Answer
    A. Assist the patient to a safe position and then call for help.
    Explanation
    If a patient appears to be fainting, the first thing to do is to assist the patient to a safe position and then call for help. This is important to prevent any further injury to the patient and ensure their safety. Calling for help is necessary to get immediate medical assistance and to ensure that the patient receives the necessary care and treatment.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following is a question that must be asked of a patient before the patient receives an iodinated contrast agent? 

    • A.

      Are you allergic to any foods, medications, or any other substances?

    • B.

      If you have had this study before, did you have any allergic or unusual reaction?

    • C.

      Have you had this study before?

    • D.

      Do you have heart disease, hypotension, diabetes mellitus, sickle cell anemia, or asthma?

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the above questions must be asked of a patient before the patient receives an iodinated contrast agent. These questions are necessary to assess the patient's medical history, allergies, and previous reactions to the contrast agent. Knowing if the patient has any allergies or previous reactions is crucial to determine if the contrast agent can be safely administered. Additionally, asking about the patient's medical conditions such as heart disease, hypotension, diabetes mellitus, sickle cell anemia, or asthma helps in identifying any potential risks or contraindications for the use of the contrast agent.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 11, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Mn.clark124
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