A&p Muscle And Nervous System

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  • 1. 
    Which of the following structures is not part of the central nervous system?
    • A. 

      The brain

    • B. 

      A nerve

    • C. 

      The spinal cord

    • D. 

      A tract


  • 2. 
    Identify which type(s) of supporting cell is being described. Myelinates nerve fibers in the CNS
    • A. 

      Astrocyte

    • B. 

      Ependymal cell

    • C. 

      Microgilia

    • D. 

      Oligodendrocyte

    • E. 

      Satellite cell

    • F. 

      Schwann cell


  • 3. 
    Lines brain cavities
    • A. 

      Astrocyte

    • B. 

      Ependymal cell

    • C. 

      Satellite cell


  • 4. 
    Myelinates nerve fibers in the PNS
    • A. 

      Schwann cell

    • B. 

      Oligodendrocyte

    • C. 

      Microgilia


  • 5. 
    CNS Phagocytes
    • A. 

      Ependymal cell

    • B. 

      Microgilia

    • C. 

      Astrocyte


  • 6. 
    Helps regulate the ionic composition of CNS extracellular fluid
    • A. 

      Astrocytes

    • B. 

      Schwann cells

    • C. 

      Satellite cells


  • 7. 
    What type of current flows through the axolemma during the steep phase of repolarization?
    • A. 

      Chiefly a sodium current

    • B. 

      Chiefly a potassium current

    • C. 

      Sodium and potassium current


  • 8. 
    Assume that an EPSP is being generated on the dendritic membrane.  Which will occur?
    • A. 

      Specific Na+ channels will open

    • B. 

      Specific K+ channels will open

    • C. 

      A single type of channel will open, permitting simultaneous flow of Na+ and K+

    • D. 

      Na+ channels will open first and then close as K+ channels open


  • 9. 
    The velocity of nerve impulse conduction is greatest in
    • A. 

      Heavily myelinated, large-diameter fibers

    • B. 

      Myelinated, small-diameter fibers

    • C. 

      Unmyelinated, small-diameter fibers

    • D. 

      Unmyelinated, large-diameter fibers


  • 10. 
    Chemical synapses are characterized by all of the following except
    • A. 

      The release of neurotransmitter by the presynaptic membranes

    • B. 

      Postsynaptic membranes bearing receptors that bind neurotransmitter

    • C. 

      Ions flowing through protein channels from the presynaptic to the postsynaptic neuron

    • D. 

      A fluid-filled gap seperating the nuerons


  • 11. 
    Biogenic amine neurotransmitters include all but
    • A. 

      Norepinephrine

    • B. 

      Acetylcholine

    • C. 

      Dopamine

    • D. 

      Serotonin


  • 12. 
    The neuropeptides that act as natural opiates are:
    • A. 

      Substance P

    • B. 

      Somatostatin

    • C. 

      Cholecystokinin

    • D. 

      Enkephalins


  • 13. 
    Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase by poisoning blocks neurotransmission at the neuromuscular junction because
    • A. 

      ACh is no longer released by the presynaptic terminal

    • B. 

      ACh synthesis in the presynaptic terminal is blocked

    • C. 

      ACh is not degraded, hence prolonged depolarization is enforced on the posysynaptic cell

    • D. 

      ACh is blocked from attaching to the postsynaptic ACh receptors


  • 14. 
    The anatomical region of a multipolart neuron that has the lowest threshold for generating an AP is the
    • A. 

      Soma

    • B. 

      Dendrites

    • C. 

      Axon hillock

    • D. 

      Distal axon


  • 15. 
    An IPSP is inhibitory because
    • A. 

      It hyperpolarizes the posysynaptic membrane

    • B. 

      It reduces the amount of neurotransmitter released by the presynaptic terminal

    • C. 

      It prevents calcium ion entry into the presynaptic terminal

    • D. 

      It changes the threshold of the neuron


  • 16. 
    Identify the neuronal circuits described the choosing the correct response. (1) Impulses continue around and around the circuit until one neuron stops firing.
    • A. 

      Converging

    • B. 

      Diverging

    • C. 

      Parallel after-discharge

    • D. 

      Reverberating


  • 17. 
    (2) One or a few inputs ultimately influence large numbers of neurons
    • A. 

      Converging

    • B. 

      Diverging

    • C. 

      Parallel after-discharge

    • D. 

      Reverberating


  • 18. 
    (3) Many neurons influence a few neurons
    • A. 

      Converging

    • B. 

      Diverging

    • C. 

      Reverberating

    • D. 

      Parallel after-discharge


  • 19. 
    (4) may be involved in exacting types of mental activity
    • A. 

      Converging

    • B. 

      Diverging

    • C. 

      Parallel after-discharge

    • D. 

      Reverberating


  • 20. 
    A muscle that assists an agonist by causing a like movement or by stabilizing a joint over which an agonist acts is
    • A. 

      An antagnonist

    • B. 

      Prime mover

    • C. 

      Synergist

    • D. 

      Agonist


  • 21. 
    The arrangement of muscle fibers in which the fibers are arranged at an angle to a central longitudinal tendon is
    • A. 

      Circular

    • B. 

      Longitudinal

    • C. 

      Pennate

    • D. 

      Parallel


  • 22. 
    Match the facial muscle description to the appropriate name. (1) Squints the eye
    • A. 

      Corrugator supercilii

    • B. 

      Zygomaticus

    • C. 

      Obicularis oculi


  • 23. 
    (2) raises the eyebrows
    • A. 

      Frontal belly of epicranius

    • B. 

      Occipital belly of epicranius

    • C. 

      Depressor anguli oris


  • 24. 
    (3) Smiling muscle
    • A. 

      Obicularis oris

    • B. 

      Zygomaticus

    • C. 

      Corrugator supercilii


  • 25. 
    (4) Puckers the lips
    • A. 

      Depressor anguli oris

    • B. 

      Orbicularis oculi

    • C. 

      Orbicularis oris


  • 26. 
    (5) Pulls the scalp posteriorly
    • A. 

      Zygomaticus

    • B. 

      Occipital belly of epicranius

    • C. 

      Corrugator spercilii


  • 27. 
    The primer mover of inspiration is the
    • A. 

      Diaphragm

    • B. 

      Internal intercostals

    • C. 

      External intercostals

    • D. 

      Abdominal wall muscles


  • 28. 
    The arm muscle that both flexes the elbow and supinates the forarm is the
    • A. 

      Brachialis

    • B. 

      Brachioradialis

    • C. 

      Biceps brachii

    • D. 

      Triceps brachii


  • 29. 
    The chewing muscles that protrude the mandible and produce side-to-side grinding movements are
    • A. 

      Buccinators

    • B. 

      Masseters

    • C. 

      Temporalis

    • D. 

      Pterygoids


  • 30. 
    Muscles that depress the hyoid bone and larnyx include all but the
    • A. 

      Sternohyoid

    • B. 

      Omohyoid

    • C. 

      Geniohyoid

    • D. 

      Sterno-thyroid


  • 31. 
    Intrinsic muscles of the back that promote extension of the spine (or head) include all but
    • A. 

      Splenius muscles

    • B. 

      Semispinalis muscles

    • C. 

      Scalene muscles

    • D. 

      Erector spinae


  • 32. 
    Several muscles act to move and/or stabilize the scapula.  Which of the following are small rectangular muscles that square the shoulders as they act together to retract the scapula?
    • A. 

      Levator scapulae

    • B. 

      Rhomboids

    • C. 

      Serratus anterior

    • D. 

      Trapezius


  • 33. 
    The quadriceps include all but
    • A. 

      Vastus lateralis

    • B. 

      Vastus intermedius

    • C. 

      Vastus medialis

    • D. 

      Biceps femoris

    • E. 

      Rectus femoris


  • 34. 
    A prime mover of hip flexion is the
    • A. 

      Rectus femoris

    • B. 

      Iliopsoas

    • C. 

      Vasti muscles

    • D. 

      Gluteus maximus


  • 35. 
    The prime mover of hip extension against resistance is the
    • A. 

      Gluteus maximus

    • B. 

      Gluteus medius

    • C. 

      Biceps femoris

    • D. 

      Semi-membranosus


  • 36. 
    Muscles that cause plantar flexion include all but the
    • A. 

      Gastrocnemius

    • B. 

      Soleus

    • C. 

      Tibialis anterior

    • D. 

      Tibialis posterior

    • E. 

      Fibularis muscles


  • 37. 
    In walking, which two lower limb muscles keep the forward-swinging foot from dragging on the ground?
    • A. 

      Pronator teres and popliteus

    • B. 

      Flexor digitorum longus and popliteus

    • C. 

      Adductor longus and abductor digiti minimi in foot

    • D. 

      Gluteus medius and tibialis anterior


  • 38. 
    Which criterion (or criteria) are used in naming the gluteus medius?
    • A. 

      Relative size

    • B. 

      Muscle location

    • C. 

      Muscle shape

    • D. 

      Action

    • E. 

      Number of origins


  • 39. 
    Which of the following is a large, deep muscle that protracts the scapula during punching?
    • A. 

      Serratus anterior

    • B. 

      Rhomboids

    • C. 

      Levator scapulae

    • D. 

      Subscapularis


  • 40. 
    The connective tissue covering that encloses the sarcolemma of an individual muscle fiber is called the
    • A. 

      Epimysium

    • B. 

      Perimysium

    • C. 

      Endomysium

    • D. 

      Periosteum


  • 41. 
    A fascicle is a
    • A. 

      Muscle

    • B. 

      Bundle of muscle fibers enclosed by a connective tissue sheath

    • C. 

      Bundle of myofibrils

    • D. 

      Group of myofilaments


  • 42. 
    Thick and thin myofilaments have different compositions. For each descriptive phrase, indicate whether the filament is thick or thin. (1) Contains actin
    • A. 

      Thick

    • B. 

      Thin


  • 43. 
    (2) Contains ATPases
    • A. 

      Thick

    • B. 

      Thin


  • 44. 
    (3) attaches to the Z disc
    • A. 

      Thick

    • B. 

      Thin


  • 45. 
    (4) Contains myosin
    • A. 

      Thick

    • B. 

      Thin


  • 46. 
    (5) Contains troponin
    • A. 

      Thick

    • B. 

      Thin


  • 47. 
    (6) does not lie in the I band
    • A. 

      Thick

    • B. 

      Thin


  • 48. 
    The function of the T tubules in muscle contraction is to
    • A. 

      Make and store glycogen

    • B. 

      Release Ca2+ into the cell interior and then pick it up again

    • C. 

      Transmit the action potential deep into the muscle cells

    • D. 

      Form proteins


  • 49. 
    The sites where the motor nerve impulse is transmitted from the nerve endings to the skeletal muscle cell membranes are the
    • A. 

      Neuromuscular junctions

    • B. 

      Sacromeres

    • C. 

      Myofilaments

    • D. 

      Z discs


  • 50. 
    Contraction elicited by a single brief stimulus is called a
    • A. 

      Twitch

    • B. 

      Wave summation

    • C. 

      Multiple motor unit summation

    • D. 

      Fused tetanus


  • 51. 
    A smooth, sustained contraction resulting form very rapid stimulation of the muscle, in which no evidence of relaxation is seen, is called a
    • A. 

      Twitch

    • B. 

      Wave summation

    • C. 

      Multiple motor unit summation

    • D. 

      Fused tetanus


  • 52. 
    Characteristics of isometric contractions include all but
    • A. 

      Shortening

    • B. 

      Increased muscle tension throughout the contraction phase

    • C. 

      Absence of shortening

    • D. 

      Use in resistance training


  • 53. 
    During muscle contraction, ATP is provided by (a) coupled reaction of creatine phosphate with ADP, (b) aerobic respiration of glucose and (c) anaerobic glycolysis.  Which provides ATP fastest?
    • A. 

      Coupled reaction of creatine phosphate with ADP

    • B. 

      Aerobic respiration of glucose

    • C. 

      Anaerobic glycolysis


  • 54. 
    Which does (do) not require that oxygen be available?
    • A. 

      Coupled reaction of creatine phosphate with ADP

    • B. 

      Aerobic respiration of glucose

    • C. 

      Anaerobic glycolysis


  • 55. 
    Which provides the highest yield of ATP per glucose molecule?
    • A. 

      Coupled reaction of creatine phosphate with ADP

    • B. 

      Aerobic respiration of glucose

    • C. 

      Anerobic glycolysis


  • 56. 
    Which results in the formation of lactic acid?
    • A. 

      Coupled reaction of creatine phosphate with ADP

    • B. 

      Aerobic respiration of glucose

    • C. 

      Anerobic glycolysis


  • 57. 
    Which has carbon dioxide and water products?
    • A. 

      Coupled reaction of creatine phosphate with ADP

    • B. 

      Aerobic respiration of glucose

    • C. 

      Anerobic glycolysis


  • 58. 
    Which is most important in endurance sports?
    • A. 

      Coupled reaction of creatine phosphate with ADP

    • B. 

      Aerobic respiration of glucose

    • C. 

      Anerobic glycolysis


  • 59. 
    The neurotransmitter released by somatic motor neurons is:
    • A. 

      Acetylcholine

    • B. 

      Acetylcholinesterase

    • C. 

      Norepinephrine


  • 60. 
    The ions that enter the skeletal muscle during action potential generation are
    • A. 

      Calcium ions

    • B. 

      Chloride ions

    • C. 

      Sodium ions

    • D. 

      Potassium ions


  • 61. 
    Myoglobin has a special function in muscle tissue.  It ...
    • A. 

      Breaks down glycogen

    • B. 

      Is a contractile protein

    • C. 

      Holds a reserve supply of oxygen in the muscle


  • 62. 
    Aerobic exercise results in all of the following except
    • A. 

      Increased cardiovascular system efficiency

    • B. 

      More mitochondria in the muscle cells

    • C. 

      Increased size and strength of existing muscle cells

    • D. 

      Increased neuromuscular system coordination


  • 63. 
    The smooth muscle type found in the walls of digestive and urinary system organs that exhibits gap junctions and pace-maker cells is
    • A. 

      Multiunit

    • B. 

      Single unit


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