Nurs 200 - Exam 2 - Chapter 38: Skin Integrity And Wound Care

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 Nurs 200 - Exam 2 - Chapter 38: Skin Integrity And Wound Care
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  • 1. 
    The skin is also known as the ______

  • 2. 
    The skin has ___ layers, in addition to the subcutaneous tissue layer

  • 3. 
    The dermis does not consists of
    • A. 

      Connective tissue

    • B. 

      Nerves

    • C. 

      Hair

    • D. 

      Blood vessels

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 4. 
    Which of the functions of the skin is defned as "water, electrolytes, and nitrogenous wastes are excreted in small amounts of sweat"

  • 5. 
    Which of the following influence resistance of skin integrity?
    • A. 

      Age

    • B. 

      Amount of underlying tissue

    • C. 

      Illness

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 6. 
    Which structure of the hair profects beyond the surface of the skin

  • 7. 
    A ____ is a break or disruption in the normal integrity of the skin and tissues.

  • 8. 
    This type of classification is a wound that is the result of planned invasive therapy or treatment. The would edges are clean.

  • 9. 
    A characteristic of an unintentional wound is:
    • A. 

      Accidental

    • B. 

      High risk for infection

    • C. 

      Clean edges

    • D. 

      A and C

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 10. 

    Far, far away, in a foreign country, Joe Swanson has been caught as a prisoner of war. He is sitting alone in his cell. The militants of this country use a unique method of torture against their prisoners - they peel the skin off the captive. What type of wound is this?

  • 11. 
    What classification of wounds is a result from a blow, force, or strain caused by trauma, such as a fall or car accident.

  • 12. 
    This classification of wound usually heals quickly, generally within days to weeks. The wound edges are well approximated and the risk of infection is lessened.
    • A. 

      Abrasion wound

    • B. 

      Acute wound

    • C. 

      Chronic wound

    • D. 

      Unintentional wound

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 13. 
    This classification of wounds remains in the inflammatory phase of healing.

  • 14. 
    There are ____ types of wound healing.

  • 15. 

    Lois Griffin has just had a heart transplant. The doctor made an incision into the chest, performed the surgery, and sutured the incision. This is:
    • A. 

      Primary intention

    • B. 

      Delayed primary intention

    • C. 

      Secondary intention

    • D. 

      Tertiary intention

    • E. 

      A and B


  • 16. 
    Which type of intention is characterized by intentional wounds with minimal tissue loss, in which the edges are closely approximated?

  • 17. 
    Which type of intention is defined as having edges that are not well approximated.

  • 18. 
    A large or open wound, such as a burn or major trauma, left alone to heal is:
    • A. 

      Primary intention

    • B. 

      Delayed primary intention

    • C. 

      Secondary intention

    • D. 

      Tertiary intention

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 19. 

    Imagine you are an ER nurse. You're working the night shift on Friday night when you are first introduced to Mr. Griffin. Mr. Griffin has had an accident because he was throwing knives for recreation. Somehow,the patient managed to slice a severely large wound in his arm. The doctors have decided to allow the wound to heal on its own for a few days. Mr. Griffin comes back to the ER several days later (as instructed by the doctors) and the physican decides it is appropriate to suture the wound now. What kind of wound healing has occurred.
    • A. 

      Primary intention

    • B. 

      Delayed primary intention

    • C. 

      Tertiary intention

    • D. 

      B and C

    • E. 

      A and C


  • 20. 
    Which phase of wound healing occurs first?

  • 21. 
    In the inflammatory phase of wound healing, this type of white blood cell arrive first to ingest bacteria and cellular debris .
    • A. 

      Leukocytes

    • B. 

      Macrophages

    • C. 

      Fibroblasts

    • D. 

      A and B

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 22. 
    In which phase do blood vessels constrict to allow blood clotting and then dilate to increase capillary permeability; this allows plasma and blood components to leak out into the area that is injured 
    • A. 

      Hemostasis

    • B. 

      Inflammatory phase

    • C. 

      Proliferation phase

    • D. 

      A and B

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 23. 
    Acute inflammation occurs in which of the phases of wound healing

  • 24. 
    Granulation tissue, which forms the foundation for scar tissue development, is made in which phase of wound healing? (make sure to include the word "phase" in the answer)

  • 25. 
    What type of tissue forms the foundation for scar tissue development

  • 26. 
    During which phase of wound healing is generalized body response most notably present?
    • A. 

      Hemostasis

    • B. 

      Inflammatory phase

    • C. 

      Proliferation phase

    • D. 

      Maturation phase

    • E. 

      Fibroblastic phase


  • 27. 
    True or False:In wounds that heal by primary intention, epidermal cells seal the wound within 24 to 28 hours and the granulation tissue is visible.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 28. 
    True or false:Desiccation is the process of drying up. Cells dehydrate and die in a dry environment. This promotes healing.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 29. 
    True or False:Repeated trauma to a wound area results in delayed healing or the inability to heal. This is a systemic factor that affects wound healing.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 30. 
    ______ at a wound site interferes with the blood supply to the area, resulting in an inadequate supply of oxygen and nutrients to the tissue. It is a local factor that affects wound healing. (2 possibe answers are correct)

  • 31. 
    What local factor (that affects wound healing) requires large amounts of energy be spent by the immune system to fight the invaders, leaving little or no reserves to attend to the attend to the job of repair and healing.
    • A. 

      Infection

    • B. 

      Edema

    • C. 

      Desiccation

    • D. 

      Maceration

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 32. 

    Dr. Hartman has diagnosed Peter Griffin as obese because he has large amounts of subcutaneous and tissue fat. This:
    • A. 

      Slows down healing because fat tissue is more prone to infection

    • B. 

      Slows down healing because fat tissue has fewer blood vessels

    • C. 

      Slows down healing because fat tissue is more difficult to suture

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 33. 
    True or False:Oxygenation of tissues is decreased in people with anemia.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 34. 
    True or False:Healing can occur despite necrotic tissue in the wound.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    • C. 

      Sometimes


  • 35. 
    Which of the following does not create a higher risk for infection?
    • A. 

      Contamination

    • B. 

      Nosocomial infections

    • C. 

      Surgery of intestines

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 36. 
    A wound infection can lead to other complications, including ______, which is the presence of pathogenic organisms in the blood or tissues

  • 37. 
    Osteomyelitis is
    • A. 

      The presence of pathogenic organisms in the blood or tissue

    • B. 

      Bone infection

    • C. 

      Infection of the intestine

    • D. 

      A and B

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 38. 
    Hemorrhage may occur from a:
    • A. 

      Slipped suture

    • B. 

      Dislodged clot from sturess at the suture line or operatuve site

    • C. 

      Infection

    • D. 

      Erosion of a blood vessel

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 39. 
    A ____ is an abnormal passage from an internal organ to the outside of the body or from one internal organ to another. It may be purosefully created; however it is often the result of infection that has developed into an abscess.

  • 40. 
    A collection of infected fluid that has not drained is a
    • A. 

      Dehiscence

    • B. 

      Abscess

    • C. 

      Evisceration

    • D. 

      Fistula

    • E. 

      Hemorrhage


  • 41. 
    The most serious postoperative wound complication is a:
    • A. 

      Fistula

    • B. 

      Dehiscence

    • C. 

      Evisceration

    • D. 

      A and B

    • E. 

      B and C


  • 42. 
    Hat is the partial or total separation of wound layers as a result of ecessive stress on wounds that are not healed. In this condition, the muscle is generally intact.
    • A. 

      Dehiscence

    • B. 

      Evisceration

    • C. 

      Fistula

    • D. 

      A and B

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 43. 
    True or False:If a dehiscence and evisceration of an abdominal incision occurs, one should leave the patient, rush to the nurses' station, and immediately contact the doctor.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 44. 
    If dehiscence occurs, certain steps should be take. The following steps are in order, however one of them might have a mistake; please distinguish which description of the step is wrong or select "none of the above".  
    • A. 

      Obtain clean towels

    • B. 

      Moisten towels with sterile 0.9% sodium chloride solution

    • C. 

      Notify the physician

    • D. 

      All of the above have mistakes

    • E. 

      None of the above have mistakes


  • 45. 
    Which of the following is not a psycholgocal effect of wounds?
    • A. 

      Axiety

    • B. 

      Fear

    • C. 

      Pain

    • D. 

      Changes in body image

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 46. 
    A pressure ulcer is a:
    • A. 

      Acute wound

    • B. 

      Chronic wound

    • C. 

      It depends

    • D. 

      None of the above


  • 47. 

    Cleaveland Brown has been injured at the hands of his ex-wife Loretta brown. While in the hospital he has developed a wound with a localized area of tissue necrosis. He has developed a:
    • A. 

      Exudate

    • B. 

      Fistula

    • C. 

      Dehiscence

    • D. 

      Hemorrhage

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 48. 
    Which of the following is synonymous for "pressure ulcer"
    • A. 

      Decubitus ulcer

    • B. 

      Bedsore

    • C. 

      All of the above

    • D. 

      None of the above


  • 49. 
    One of the most common skin and tissue disruption is:
    • A. 

      Maceration

    • B. 

      Pressure ulcers

    • C. 

      Bedsores

    • D. 

      A and B

    • E. 

      B and C


  • 50. 

    Who of the following is the most at risk for a pressure ulcer:
    • A. 

      Peter Griffin, because of his obesity

    • B. 

      Mayor Adam West, because of minor brain impairment

    • C. 

      Joe Swanson, because he is a paraplegic

    • D. 

      Stewie Griffin, because he is an infant

    • E. 

      The evil monkey, because he is an evil monkey


  • 51. 
    How many mechanisms contribute to pressure ulcer development?

  • 52. 
    Which of the following does not contribute to pressure ulcer development?
    • A. 

      External pressure that compresses blood vessels

    • B. 

      Hemostasis in which blood vessels contricut and blood clotting begins through platelet activation and clustering. After only a brief period of contriction, these same blood vessels dialate and capillary permeability increases.

    • C. 

      Friction and shearing forces that tear and injure blood vessels and abrade the top layer of skin

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 53. 
    Pathologic changes at a pressure ulcer site result from blood vessels collapse, caused by ______, usually from body weight. Necrosis eventually occurs.

  • 54. 
    Which of the following is not true about external pressure that contribute to pressure ulcer development?
    • A. 

      Pressure ulcers usually occur over bony prominences,where body weight is distrubted over a small area without much

    • B. 

      External pressure applied over an area results in occulded blood capillaries and poor circulation

    • C. 

      Ulcer formation and necrosis occurs from insufficient circulation

    • D. 

      If the patient has not moved or been repositioned to allow circulation to flow to dependent areas, it may take as little as 5-6 hours for a pressure ulcer to form

    • E. 

      Bony prominences have little subcutaneous tissue to cushion damage to the skin


  • 55. 
    True or False:Friction injury (of a pressure ulcer) resembles an abrasion
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 56. 
    Which of the following does not encourage friction and shearing related pressure ulcers?
    • A. 

      Lying on wrinkled sheets

    • B. 

      Patients that are pulled, rather than lifted, when being moved up in bed

    • C. 

      Patients who are sitting up in bed but slide down

    • D. 

      Patients who sit in a chair but slide down

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 57. 
    Which of the following includes all sites that are at high-risk and likelihood for external pressure related bedsores?
    • A. 

      Patella, sacrum, scapula, ribs, illiac crest

    • B. 

      Sacrum, scapula, trochanter, tibia

    • C. 

      Coccyx, sacrum, patella, calcaneus (heel)

    • D. 

      Calcaneus (heel), ribs, coccys, scapula

    • E. 

      Trochanter, coccyx, sacrum, calcaneus (heel)


  • 58. 
    Which of the following is not a risk for pressure ulcer development
    • A. 

      History of corticosteroid therapy

    • B. 

      Nutrition and hydration

    • C. 

      Moisture

    • D. 

      Mental status

    • E. 

      Jaundice


  • 59. 

    Herbert is 82 years old, dehydrated, and malnurished. He also suffers from diabetes and urinary incontinence. Moreover, mayor Adam West has stolen his walker, so he spends a lot of time sitting on his porch chair, lusting after Chris Griffin. These are high risk factors for _______ development.

  • 60. 
    The first indication that a pressure ulcer may be developing is:
    • A. 

      Blanching

    • B. 

      Ischemia

    • C. 

      Hyperemia

    • D. 

      A and B

    • E. 

      B and C


  • 61. 
    ____ is local anemia and blanching resulting from poor circulation

  • 62. 
    When pressure is releived from an area with ischemia, the body literally floods the area with blood to nourish and remove wastes from the cells. This is called

  • 63. 
    True or False:Reactive hyperemia is a pressure ulcer.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 64. 
    Which of the following is not true about a stage I pressure ulcer
    • A. 

      Intact skin

    • B. 

      Increased or decreased skin temperature

    • C. 

      Persistent red, blue, or purple hues in darker skin

    • D. 

      Shallow crater

    • E. 

      Persistent redness in lightly pigmented skin


  • 65. 
    Which is a pressure-relieving measures for a stage I pressure ulcer
    • A. 

      Frequent turning

    • B. 

      Pressure-relieving devices

    • C. 

      Positioning

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 66. 
    True or False:One of the characteristics of a stage II pressure ulcer is partial-thickness skin loss, involving only the epdermis
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    • C. 

      Sometimes


  • 67. 
    Which is not true of a stage II pressure ulcer?
    • A. 

      Wet-to-dry dressings are needed

    • B. 

      Maintentance of a moist healing environment, such as saline

    • C. 

      The ulcer is superficial

    • D. 

      Maintentance of a moist healing environment, such as occulsive dressings that promote natural healing but prevents formation of a scar

    • E. 

      Ulcer presents clinically as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater


  • 68. 
    Which is not true of a stage III pressure ulcer?
    • A. 

      Damage or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue

    • B. 

      Ulcer presents clinically as a deep crater

    • C. 

      Damage extends through underlying fascia

    • D. 

      Full-thickness skin loss

    • E. 

      Requires debridement by wet-to-dry dressings, surgical intervention, or protoeolytic enzymes


  • 69. 
    Which of the following is not true of a stage IV pressure ulcer?
    • A. 

      May require skin grafts

    • B. 

      Full-thickness skin loss

    • C. 

      Extensive destruction, tissue necrosis, or damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures

    • D. 

      Sinus tracts may be present

    • E. 

      Is marked by the presence of eschar


  • 70. 
    _____ is a thick, leathery scab or dry crust that is necrotic and must be removed before the stage can be determined accurately.

  • 71. 
    True or False: When determining tunneling of a pressure ulcer, one must use an applicator to determine the deepest point. The nurse should assess the depth of tunneling in a clockwise method; the patient's feet represent 12 o'clock
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    • C. 

      Sometimes


  • 72. 
    ______, or wound drainage, is described as serous, sanguineous, serosanguineous, or purulent.

  • 73. 
    Stewie Griffin is experiencing exudate from a wound that appears clear and watery; what type of drainage is this?
    • A. 

      Serous drainage

    • B. 

      Sanguineous drainage

    • C. 

      Serosanguineous drainage

    • D. 

      Purulent drainage

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 74. 
    Meg Griffin is experiencing thick, foul smelling, green exudate from a wound. What kind of drainage is this?
    • A. 

      Serous drainage

    • B. 

      Sanguineous drainage

    • C. 

      Serosanguineous drainage

    • D. 

      Purulent drainage

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 75. 
    Peter Griffin is experiencing light pink and blood tinged exudate from a wound. This is what kind of drainage?
    • A. 

      Serous drainage

    • B. 

      Sanguineous drainage

    • C. 

      Serosanguineous drainage

    • D. 

      Purulent drainage

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 76. 
    Lois Griffin is experiencing red drainage from a wound. What kind of exudate is this?
    • A. 

      Serous drainage

    • B. 

      Sanguineous drainage

    • C. 

      Serosanguineous drainage

    • D. 

      Purulent drainage

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 77. 
    The R in RYB means ____ and is in the _____ stage of healing. (separate answer with a space)

  • 78. 
    The Y in RYB stands for ______; it may be indicative of  exudate or slough and requires wound ____. It is often accompanied by purulent drainage. (separate answers with a space)

  • 79. 
    B in RYB stands for ____ or debride. It maybe be indicative of ______, which is usually black but can be brown, gray, or tan. It requires debridement and then the wound is treated as a yellow wound. (separate answers with a space)

  • 80. 
    Drains may be inserted in or near a wound to ____ drainage, thereby reducing the risk of _____ formation and promoting wound healing.
    • A. 

      Discourage; abscess

    • B. 

      Cease; abscess

    • C. 

      Promote; abscess

    • D. 

      None of the above


  • 81. 
    A T-tube is used for _____ drainage.

  • 82. 
    A penrose drain
    • A. 

      Provides a sinus tract

    • B. 

      Is used after incision and drainage of abcess

    • C. 

      Is used in abdominal surgery

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 83. 
    A Jackson-Pratt drain is used after breast removal or in abdominal surgery because it
    • A. 

      Provides sinus tract

    • B. 

      Allows healing from base of wound

    • C. 

      Decreases dead space by collecting drainage

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 84. 
    Which of the following drains allows healing from base of wound
    • A. 

      Gauze

    • B. 

      Iodoform gauze

    • C. 

      NuGauze

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 85. 
    An appropriate nursing diagnosis for a stage ___ pressure ulcer is Impaired skin integrity.

  • 86. 
    An appropriate nursing dianosis for a stage ______ pressure ulcer is Impaired tissue integrity

  • 87. 
    Which of the following is not true of wounds that are treated by leaving them open to air.
    • A. 

      No dressing is applied

    • B. 

      They are at more risk for infection

    • C. 

      They heal more slowly

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 88. 
    Which of the following is not true of wet-to-dry dressings
    • A. 

      Is only used for debridement

    • B. 

      Wet gauze is applied to wound and allowed to dry

    • C. 

      Debris and necrotic tissue adhere to the gauze and are removed from the wound when the dressing is changed

    • D. 

      There is a decreased risk of infection

    • E. 

      It may remove new granulation tissue when removed


  • 89. 
    Wound _______ is the directional flow of solution over tissues that is used to clean opon wounds of cellular debris and drainage.

  • 90. 
    Which of the following is not a roller bandage method?
    • A. 

      Spiral turn

    • B. 

      Figure-of-eight turn

    • C. 

      Circular turn

    • D. 

      Sling turn

    • E. 

      A and C


  • 91. 
    Bandages and Binders: A figure-of-eight turn is often used for:
    • A. 

      Supporting the arm

    • B. 

      Joints, such as the knee, elbow, ankle, and wrist

    • C. 

      The head, fingers, and the stump of an aputated limb

    • D. 

      The chest and abdomen

    • E. 

      Rectum and perineum and in the groin


  • 92. 
    Bandages and Binders: The spiral turn is used for
    • A. 

      Wrists, fingers, and trunk

    • B. 

      Joints, such as the knee, elbow, ankle, and wrist

    • C. 

      Fingers, head, and for the stump of an amputated limb

    • D. 

      Rectum and perineum and in the groin

    • E. 

      Supporting the upper arm


  • 93. 
    Binders and Bandages: A straight binder is used for
    • A. 

      Joints, such as the knee, elbow, ankle, and wrist

    • B. 

      Wrist, fingers, and trunk

    • C. 

      Head, fingers, and stump of an amputated limb

    • D. 

      Chest and abdomen

    • E. 

      Supporting the arm


  • 94. 
    Bandages and Binders: A T-binder is used for:
    • A. 

      Joints, such as the knee, elbow, ankle, and wrist

    • B. 

      Supporting the arm

    • C. 

      Fingers, head, and steump of an amputated leg

    • D. 

      Wrist, fingers, and grunk

    • E. 

      Rectum and perineum and in the groin


  • 95. 
    Binders and Bandages: A sling is used for
    • A. 

      The chest and abdomen

    • B. 

      Rectum and perineum and in the gron

    • C. 

      Fingers, head, and the stump of an amputated limb

    • D. 

      Joints, such as the knee, elbow, ankle, and wrist

    • E. 

      Supporting an arm


  • 96. 
    True or False:Montgomery straps use ties attached to an adhesive backing to hold dressings in place. They prevent skin irritation and damage due to constant retaping with dressing changes.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 97. 
    Which is true of fibrin sealants
    • A. 

      Newer sealants are made of mixtures of bovine

    • B. 

      Dressings are needed to prevent infection

    • C. 

      The sealant glues the epidermal surfaces together.

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 98. 
    An open or closed drainage system constists of a drainage tube that is often connected to a electrical suction device?

  • 99. 
    Which of the following is not true of a Penrose drain?
    • A. 

      Soft and flexible

    • B. 

      Does not have a collection device

    • C. 

      A sterile, large satey pin prevents it from slipping into incision

    • D. 

      Drainage is passive

    • E. 

      Is sutured in place


  • 100. 
    Hemovacs and Jackson-Pratt dainage tubes are open or closed drainage systems?

  • 101. 
    Which is not true about growth factors?
    • A. 

      It is used to promote healing

    • B. 

      Used for patients with acute wounds

    • C. 

      Are naturally occuring proteins

    • D. 

      Promote granulation

    • E. 

      Promote cell proliferation and cell migration


  • 102. 
    Body temperature is:
    • A. 

      Regulated by the thalamus

    • B. 

      Preserves warmth through vasodilation

    • C. 

      Dissipates heat through vasoconstriction

    • D. 

      Preserves warmth through piloerection

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 103. 
    ________ increases tissue metabolism, reduces blood viscosity, increasees capillary permeability, reduces muscle tension, helps releave pain.

  • 104. 
    Increased supply of oxygen and nutrients to the area is due to vasodilation which is due to the application of _______.

  • 105. 
    The systemic effects of extensive, prolonged heat, which leads to increasing the blood flow to a large area of the body while decreasing it to another part of the body is
    • A. 

      Vasoconstriction

    • B. 

      Piloerection

    • C. 

      Hypovolemic shock

    • D. 

      A and C

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 106. 
    True or False:Application of heat produces maximum vasodilation in 5 to 10 minutes; beyond that point tissue congestion and vasoconstriction occurs.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 107. 
    True or False:Application of cold produces maximum vasoconstriction when the skin reaches 15 degrees C (60 F), then vasodilation occurs.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 108. 
    Cold is not generally applied to
    • A. 

      Direct trauma

    • B. 

      Dental pain

    • C. 

      Muscle spasms

    • D. 

      To treat some chronic pain syndromes

    • E. 

      Surgical wounds


  • 109. 
    The application of heat is not used to treat
    • A. 

      Infections

    • B. 

      Inflamed tissue

    • C. 

      Dental pain

    • D. 

      Arthritis

    • E. 

      Chronic pain


  • 110. 
    True or False:Your body adapts to heat and cold over time. The response is strong at the beginning because heat and cold skin receptors are strongly stimulated by sudden changes in temperature; after that the response decreases more slowly for the next 30 minutes, as the receptors adapt to the temperature. Since your body adapts, it is important to teach patients that they should increase temperature or lengthen the time of application.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 111. 
    Which of the following is not a form of dry heat?
    • A. 

      Hot water bags

    • B. 

      Hot compress

    • C. 

      Aquathermia pads

    • D. 

      Chemical heat

    • E. 

      Electric heating pads


  • 112. 
    Which of the following is not a form of moist heat?
    • A. 

      Soaks

    • B. 

      Hot compress

    • C. 

      Aquathermia pads

    • D. 

      Sitz baths

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 113. 
    Which of the following is not a form of dry cold application?
    • A. 

      Ice bags

    • B. 

      Cold packs

    • C. 

      Hypothermia blanket

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 114. 
    Which of the following is false about moist cold?
    • A. 

      Cold compresses are a form of moist cold

    • B. 

      Used for an injured eye, headache, tooth extraction, and sometimes for hemorrhoids

    • C. 

      You can apply ice bags or similar products to help keep the compress cold

    • D. 

      Soak material used, like gauze or a washcloth, in a basin filled with ice and a little bit of water

    • E. 

      A cold pack is a form of moist cold


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