Fcps 1 Online Demo Test
Questions and Answers
- 1.
A patient under went terminal ileum resection.which one of the following is most likely to occour in him?
- A.
Decrease iron absorbtion
- B.
Increase fat absorption
- C.
Increase enterohepatic recycling of bile
- D.
Decrease absorption of vitamn E
Correct Answer
D. Decrease absorption of vitamn EExplanation
After undergoing terminal ileum resection, the patient is most likely to experience a decrease in the absorption of vitamin E. The terminal ileum is responsible for the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, including vitamin E. Therefore, the removal of the terminal ileum would impair the absorption of vitamin E from the diet, leading to a decrease in its absorption.Rate this question:
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- 2.
In case of hypertrophied pyloric stenosis the metabolic disorder that occour is
- A.
Hyperchlromic hypo kalemic metabolic alkalosis
- B.
Hypochloremic hyper kalemic metabolic alkalosis
- C.
Hypo chloremic hypokalemic hyponatremic metabolic alkalosis with alakaline urine
- D.
Hypo chloremic hypokalemic hyponatremic metabolic alkalosis with aciduria
Correct Answer
D. Hypo chloremic hypokalemic hyponatremic metabolic alkalosis with aciduriaExplanation
In case of hypertrophied pyloric stenosis, the metabolic disorder that occurs is hypo chloremic hypokalemic hyponatremic metabolic alkalosis with aciduria. This means that there is a decrease in chloride, potassium, and sodium levels in the blood, leading to a metabolic alkalosis. Additionally, aciduria indicates the presence of acidic urine.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Grey baby syndrome is caused by which of the following drug
- A.
Ciproflaxcacin
- B.
Vancomycin
- C.
Chlorampincol
- D.
Metoclopramide
Correct Answer
C. ChlorampincolExplanation
Grey baby syndrome is a rare but serious condition that occurs in newborns when they are exposed to high levels of chloramphenicol, an antibiotic. This drug inhibits the breakdown of chloramphenicol in the baby's body, leading to toxic levels of the drug. Symptoms of grey baby syndrome include a grayish-blue skin color, poor feeding, lethargy, and low body temperature. It can be life-threatening if not promptly treated. Ciprofloxacin, vancomycin, and metoclopramide are not associated with grey baby syndrome.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Posterior belly of diagastric muscle is derivites of
- A.
Ist branchial arch
- B.
2nd bronchial arch
- C.
3rd branchial arch
- D.
4th branchial arch
Correct Answer
B. 2nd bronchial archExplanation
The correct answer is 2nd bronchial arch. The posterior belly of the digastric muscle is derived from the 2nd bronchial arch. The digastric muscle is a muscle located under the jaw that helps with opening the mouth and swallowing. During embryonic development, the muscles of the face and neck are derived from the branchial arches, which are a series of arches that form in the early stages of development. The posterior belly of the digastric muscle specifically arises from the 2nd bronchial arch.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Abdominal aorta bifurcate at which level
- A.
L1
- B.
L3
- C.
L4
- D.
L5
Correct Answer
C. L4Explanation
The abdominal aorta bifurcates at the level of L4. This means that the abdominal aorta, which is the largest artery in the abdominal region, splits into two smaller arteries called the common iliac arteries at the fourth lumbar vertebra (L4).Rate this question:
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- 6.
Lardecous spleen is due to
- A.
Deposition of amyliod in white pulp
- B.
Deposition of amyliod in redpulp
- C.
Amyliod deposition in pancellary artery
- D.
Visceral lieshminasis
Correct Answer
B. Deposition of amyliod in redpulpExplanation
Lardaceous spleen, also known as amyloidosis, is a condition characterized by the deposition of amyloid protein in various organs, including the spleen. In this case, the correct answer is "deposition of amyloid in red pulp" because the red pulp is one of the two main regions of the spleen where blood is filtered and old red blood cells are destroyed. The deposition of amyloid in the red pulp can lead to enlargement and dysfunction of the spleen.Rate this question:
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- 7.
A patient is diagnose as hemophilia B .Factor IX is not avilable what is the next best choice?
- A.
WHOLE BLOOD
- B.
CRYOPRECIPITATE
- C.
FRESH FROZEN PLASMA
- D.
DESMOPRESSIN
Correct Answer
C. FRESH FROZEN PLASMAExplanation
Fresh frozen plasma is the next best choice for a patient diagnosed with hemophilia B when Factor IX is not available. Fresh frozen plasma contains various clotting factors, including Factor IX, which can help to control bleeding in patients with hemophilia B. It can be transfused to replace the deficient clotting factors and prevent or treat bleeding episodes. While cryoprecipitate and desmopressin can also be used in certain situations, fresh frozen plasma is generally the preferred choice for immediate management of bleeding in patients with hemophilia B. Whole blood is not typically used in the treatment of hemophilia B.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Regarding salivary secreation all are true except
- A.
It is hypotonic secreation
- B.
Secreation is stimulated by parasympathetic system predominatly
- C.
Composition of saliva depend on flow rate
- D.
Secreation is decreased by symphathetic stimulation
Correct Answer
D. Secreation is decreased by symphathetic stimulationExplanation
The correct answer is "secreation is decreased by symphathetic stimulation". This is because sympathetic stimulation actually increases salivary secretion, rather than decreasing it. The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the "fight or flight" response, which includes increased salivation to help with digestion and swallowing during times of stress or excitement. Therefore, it is incorrect to say that salivary secretion is decreased by sympathetic stimulation.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Alpha hemolytic bacteria are
- A.
S.AUREUS
- B.
S.PNEUMONIA
- C.
S.AGALACTAE
- D.
S.PYOGENES
Correct Answer
B. S.PNEUMONIAExplanation
The correct answer is S.PNEUMONIA. Alpha hemolytic bacteria are a group of bacteria that cause partial or incomplete hemolysis of red blood cells. S. pneumoniae is a type of alpha hemolytic bacteria that commonly causes pneumonia, as well as other infections such as sinusitis and meningitis. It is a gram-positive bacterium that is commonly found in the respiratory tract of healthy individuals but can cause infection when the immune system is compromised.Rate this question:
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- 10.
COMMONEST CARCINOGEN OF CARCINOMA CERVIX IS
- A.
HSV1
- B.
HPV
- C.
CHRONIC IRRITATION
- D.
IUCD
Correct Answer
B. HPVExplanation
HPV (Human Papillomavirus) is the commonest carcinogen of carcinoma cervix. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that can lead to the development of cervical cancer. It is responsible for almost all cases of cervical cancer worldwide. HPV infects the cells of the cervix and can cause changes in their DNA, leading to the formation of cancerous cells. Regular screening and vaccination against HPV can help prevent cervical cancer.Rate this question:
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- 11.
A 15 year gardner with history of chest pain,no other symptom.XRAY show rounded mass which is calcified in lower lobe of lung.diagnosis is?
- A.
Aspergilosis
- B.
Sarciadosis
- C.
Tuberculosis
- D.
Adenocarcinoma lung
Correct Answer
A. AspergilosisExplanation
The correct answer is aspergilosis. Aspergilosis is a fungal infection caused by the Aspergillus fungus. It commonly affects individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with a history of chest pain. The presence of a rounded calcified mass in the lower lobe of the lung on X-ray is consistent with a fungal infection, specifically aspergilosis. Other options such as sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, and adenocarcinoma lung would present with different symptoms and radiographic findings.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Factor vIII is produced by
- A.
Endothelial cell
- B.
Liver
- C.
Plattelete
- D.
Macrophages
Correct Answer
A. Endothelial cellExplanation
Factor VIII is a protein that plays a crucial role in blood clotting. It is primarily produced by endothelial cells, which line the blood vessels. These cells release factor VIII into the bloodstream where it interacts with other clotting factors to form blood clots and prevent excessive bleeding. The liver also produces factor VIII, but endothelial cells are the main source. Platelets and macrophages do not produce factor VIII.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The skin overlying the region where a venous cut down is made to access great sephanus vien is supplied by
- A.
FEMORAL NERVE
- B.
SURAL NERVE
- C.
SEPHANUS NERVE
- D.
SUPERFECIAL PERONIAL NERVE
Correct Answer
C. SEPHANUS NERVE -
- 14.
A patient has sciatica and loss ankle jerk the sement invole is
- A.
L5
- B.
S1
- C.
S2
- D.
S3 S4
Correct Answer
B. S1Explanation
The correct answer is S1. Sciatica refers to pain that radiates along the path of the sciatic nerve, which is the longest nerve in the body. Loss of ankle jerk reflex is commonly associated with damage or compression of the S1 nerve root. The S1 nerve root is responsible for innervating the muscles that control ankle movement and reflexes. Therefore, in this case, the involvement of the S1 nerve root is likely causing the loss of ankle jerk reflex in the patient with sciatica.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Intermittent pain of small intestine is felt at
- A.
Just above pubic symphsis
- B.
Back
- C.
Umblicus
- D.
Eigastric riegon
Correct Answer
C. UmblicusExplanation
The correct answer is "umbilicus." Intermittent pain of the small intestine is felt at the umbilicus, which is the area around the belly button. This is because the small intestine is located in the abdominal cavity, and the umbilicus is a central point in the abdomen. Pain in this region could indicate issues with the small intestine, such as inflammation or obstruction.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Upper end of esophagus is at which level?
- A.
T6
- B.
C6
- C.
T10
- D.
C5
Correct Answer
B. C6Explanation
The upper end of the esophagus is located at the level of C6. This means that the esophagus begins at the sixth cervical vertebra in the neck.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Right border of heart is mainly formed by
- A.
Right artium
- B.
Right ventricle
- C.
Left artium
- D.
Left venticle
Correct Answer
A. Right artiumExplanation
The right border of the heart is mainly formed by the right atrium. The right atrium is one of the four chambers of the heart and is located on the right side. It receives deoxygenated blood from the body and pumps it into the right ventricle, which then pumps the blood to the lungs for oxygenation. The left atrium and left ventricle are not involved in forming the right border of the heart.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The most disabling injury to hand is due to to injury to
- A.
Radial nerve
- B.
Ulnar nerve
- C.
Median nerve
- D.
Axillary nerve
Correct Answer
C. Median nerveExplanation
The median nerve is responsible for providing sensation and controlling movement in certain muscles of the hand. Injury to the median nerve can result in a condition called carpal tunnel syndrome, which causes pain, numbness, and weakness in the hand. This can greatly affect a person's ability to perform daily tasks and can be disabling. Therefore, injury to the median nerve is considered the most disabling injury to the hand.Rate this question:
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- 19.
All are branches of posterior cord of brachial plexuses except
- A.
Radial
- B.
Thoraco dorsal
- C.
Axillary
- D.
Suprascapular
Correct Answer
D. SuprascapularExplanation
The question is asking for the branch that is not part of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus. The posterior cord gives rise to the radial, thoracodorsal, and axillary nerves. Therefore, the suprascapular nerve is not a branch of the posterior cord, making it the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Injury to head of humerous will demage which nerve?
- A.
Axillary
- B.
Musculocutenous
- C.
Radial
- D.
Ulnar
Correct Answer
A. AxillaryExplanation
Injury to the head of the humerus can damage the axillary nerve. The axillary nerve is responsible for innervating the deltoid muscle and the skin over the deltoid muscle. It also provides sensory innervation to the shoulder joint. Damage to the axillary nerve can result in weakness or paralysis of the deltoid muscle, leading to difficulty in lifting the arm and loss of sensation in the shoulder region.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Regarding total pancreatecomy which one is a wrong observation?
- A.
Steatorhea
- B.
Wieght loss
- C.
No change or rise in glucogon level
- D.
No change or rise in insulin level
Correct Answer
D. No change or rise in insulin levelExplanation
A total pancreatectomy involves the complete removal of the pancreas, which is responsible for producing insulin. Therefore, it is expected that there would be a decrease or absence of insulin production after the surgery. Hence, the observation that there is no change or rise in insulin levels is incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Patient feel pain on defecation the nrve involed is
- A.
Pudendal
- B.
Inferior rectal
- C.
Symphathetic plexuses
- D.
Non of the above
Correct Answer
B. Inferior rectalExplanation
The correct answer is inferior rectal. The patient feels pain during defecation, which suggests that there is involvement of the nerves in the area where the inferior rectal nerves are located. The inferior rectal nerves innervate the anal canal and are responsible for transmitting pain signals during bowel movements. Therefore, the involvement of the inferior rectal nerves is the most likely explanation for the patient's pain during defecation.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which one of the following is the best prognostic indicator in acute live injury
- A.
Serum albumin
- B.
Prothrombin time
- C.
Factor v
- D.
Vitamn K
Correct Answer
C. Factor vExplanation
Factor V is the best prognostic indicator in acute liver injury because it is a clotting factor that plays a crucial role in the coagulation cascade. In acute liver injury, the liver's ability to produce clotting factors is impaired, leading to a decrease in factor V levels. Therefore, monitoring factor V levels can provide valuable information about the severity and prognosis of the liver injury. Serum albumin, prothrombin time, and vitamin K are also important in assessing liver function, but factor V is considered the best prognostic indicator in this context.Rate this question:
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- 24.
THE HALF LIFE OF MONOCYTE IS
- A.
4-6 DAYS
- B.
7-10 DAYS
- C.
1DAY
- D.
1 MONTH
Correct Answer
C. 1DAYExplanation
The half-life of a monocyte is the time it takes for half of the population of monocytes to decay or be removed from the body. In this case, the correct answer is 1 day, which means that after 1 day, half of the monocytes present will have decayed or been removed. This indicates that monocytes have a relatively short lifespan in the body, with a significant turnover rate.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which one of the following will lead to increase insulin release?
- A.
Iv glucose
- B.
I/M glucose
- C.
Oral glucose
- D.
infusion of glucose
Correct Answer
C. Oral glucoseExplanation
Oral glucose is absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract and enters the bloodstream gradually. This gradual increase in blood glucose levels triggers the release of insulin from the pancreas. Insulin is responsible for lowering blood glucose levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells. Therefore, oral glucose intake leads to an increase in insulin release.Rate this question:
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- 26.
A patient on ATT devloped joint pain in the right big toe. the toe was swollen erythamtous and tender the most likely culprit drug is
- A.
Ethambutol
- B.
Pyrizinamide
- C.
Isoniazid
- D.
Streptomycin
Correct Answer
B. PyrizinamideExplanation
The patient's symptoms of joint pain, swelling, redness, and tenderness are consistent with gout, which is a known side effect of pyrazinamide. Gout is a type of arthritis that occurs when urate crystals accumulate in the joints, causing inflammation and pain. Pyrazinamide can increase uric acid levels in the body, leading to the development of gout. Ethambutol, isoniazid, and streptomycin are not typically associated with gout as a side effect.Rate this question:
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- 27.
In conginetal rubella termination of pregnancy is warranted if one of the following anibody is present
- A.
IgG
- B.
IgM
- C.
IgD
- D.
IgA
Correct Answer
A. IgGExplanation
In congenital rubella, termination of pregnancy is warranted if IgG antibodies are present. IgG antibodies indicate a past or previous infection with rubella, and the presence of these antibodies in a pregnant woman suggests that she has been exposed to the virus. Rubella infection during pregnancy can cause severe birth defects and complications in the developing fetus, including deafness, blindness, heart defects, and intellectual disabilities. Therefore, if IgG antibodies are detected, it is recommended to terminate the pregnancy to prevent potential harm to the baby.Rate this question:
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- 28.
A 60 year old patient was evaluated by a doctor .his blood pressure was 185/130.lab results reveal increase in plasma renin activity,plasma aldosterone level and left renal vein renin level are high and right renal renin level is decreased most likely diagnosis is
- A.
Pheochromocytoma
- B.
Lefft renal artery stenosis
- C.
Right renal artery stenosis
- D.
Aldosterone secreating tumor
Correct Answer
B. Lefft renal artery stenosisExplanation
The correct answer is left renal artery stenosis. This diagnosis is supported by the high blood pressure reading, increased plasma renin activity, and elevated levels of plasma aldosterone and left renal vein renin. Left renal artery stenosis refers to the narrowing of the artery that supplies blood to the left kidney, leading to increased renin release and aldosterone production. This can result in hypertension.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Serum sickness is
- A.
Type 1 hypersensitivty reaction
- B.
Type 2 HSR
- C.
Type 3 HSR
- D.
Type 4 HSR
Correct Answer
C. Type 3 HSRExplanation
Serum sickness is a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction. Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions occur when there is an excessive immune response to an antigen, resulting in the formation of immune complexes. In serum sickness, these immune complexes are formed when antigens from foreign substances, such as medications or animal proteins, combine with antibodies in the bloodstream. These immune complexes then deposit in various tissues, leading to an inflammatory response and the activation of complement proteins. This can cause symptoms such as fever, rash, joint pain, and organ damage.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which one do you like?
- A.
Option 1
- B.
Option 2
- C.
Option 3
- D.
Option 4
Correct Answer
A. Option 1 -
- 31.
After 15 days of c section due to obstructed labour patient devolped urinary incontinece what is the most likely cause?
- A.
Vesico veginal fistula
- B.
Vesico uternine fistula
- C.
Rectovesical fistula
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. Vesico veginal fistulaExplanation
The most likely cause of urinary incontinence after a c-section due to obstructed labor is a vesicovaginal fistula. This is a condition where there is an abnormal connection between the bladder and the vagina, leading to leakage of urine. A vesicouterine fistula is a connection between the bladder and the uterus, which is less likely to occur after a c-section. A rectovesical fistula is a connection between the rectum and the bladder, which is also less likely in this scenario. Therefore, the most likely cause is a vesicovaginal fistula.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Venous drinage of urinary bladder is to
- A.
Internal illiac
- B.
External illiac
- C.
Common illiac
- D.
Both external and internal illiac
Correct Answer
A. Internal illiacExplanation
The venous drainage of the urinary bladder is to the internal iliac veins. The internal iliac veins receive blood from the pelvic organs, including the bladder, and drain it back to the systemic circulation. The external iliac veins drain the lower limbs, while the common iliac veins receive blood from the internal and external iliac veins and further drain into the inferior vena cava. Therefore, the correct answer is the internal iliac veins.Rate this question:
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- 33.
The charcteristic feature of mesothelioma is?
- A.
Pleural plaque
- B.
Pleural effusion
- C.
Carbon soot
- D.
Granuloma
Correct Answer
A. Pleural plaqueExplanation
Mesothelioma is a type of cancer that primarily affects the lining of the lungs, known as the pleura. One of the characteristic features of mesothelioma is the presence of pleural plaques, which are areas of thickening and scarring on the pleura. These plaques are typically caused by exposure to asbestos fibers and can be a precursor to the development of mesothelioma. Pleural effusion refers to the buildup of fluid in the pleural space, while carbon soot and granuloma are not specific to mesothelioma.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Asthma predominat cells are
- A.
Eiosinophil
- B.
Basophil
- C.
Monocyte
- D.
Lymphocyte
Correct Answer
A. EiosinophilExplanation
Eosinophils are the predominant cells in asthma. Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response to allergens and parasites. In asthma, eosinophils are often found in high numbers in the airways, leading to inflammation and narrowing of the air passages. This can result in symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. Therefore, the presence of eosinophils is a characteristic feature of asthma.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Type 1 respiratory failure occour in all except
- A.
ARDS
- B.
PNEUMONIA
- C.
DRUG OVERDOSE
- D.
BLUNT CHEST TRAUMA
Correct Answer
C. DRUG OVERDOSEExplanation
Type 1 respiratory failure occurs when there is a failure in oxygenation due to inadequate gas exchange in the lungs. ARDS (Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome), pneumonia, and blunt chest trauma can all lead to impaired gas exchange and therefore can cause type 1 respiratory failure. However, drug overdose does not directly cause respiratory failure. While certain drugs can depress the respiratory center in the brain and lead to respiratory depression, this would result in type 2 respiratory failure, where there is both inadequate oxygenation and inadequate removal of carbon dioxide. Therefore, drug overdose is the exception in this case.Rate this question:
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- 36.
PNEUMONIA CAUSE WHICH TYPE OF RESPIRATORY FAILURE
- A.
TYPE 1
- B.
TYPE 2
- C.
MIXED
- D.
ALL OF THE ABOVE
Correct Answer
A. TYPE 1Explanation
Pneumonia can cause type 1 respiratory failure. Type 1 respiratory failure is characterized by low oxygen levels (hypoxemia) due to impaired gas exchange in the lungs. Pneumonia, an infection that causes inflammation in the lungs, can lead to the accumulation of fluid and debris in the alveoli, reducing their ability to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide effectively. This results in decreased oxygen levels in the blood and subsequent hypoxemia, which is a characteristic feature of type 1 respiratory failure.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Most common cause of cor pulmonale is
- A.
Pneumonia
- B.
Asthama
- C.
COPD
- D.
Pulmonary hypertension
Correct Answer
C. COPDExplanation
COPD, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, is the most common cause of cor pulmonale. Cor pulmonale is a condition characterized by enlargement and dysfunction of the right side of the heart due to underlying lung disease. COPD is a progressive lung disease that causes airflow limitation and difficulty breathing. Over time, the decreased lung function in COPD can lead to increased pressure in the pulmonary arteries, causing strain on the right side of the heart and eventually leading to cor pulmonale.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Edema of renal origin is most likely due to
- A.
Albuminuria and sodium retention
- B.
Decrease water excreation
- C.
Hypertension
- D.
Renal stone
Correct Answer
A. Albuminuria and sodium retentionExplanation
Edema of renal origin is most likely due to albuminuria and sodium retention. Albuminuria refers to the presence of excessive amounts of albumin in the urine, which can occur when the kidneys are not functioning properly. Sodium retention, on the other hand, refers to the kidneys' inability to properly regulate the levels of sodium in the body, leading to fluid retention and edema. When albuminuria and sodium retention occur together, it can result in fluid accumulation in the tissues, leading to edema.Rate this question:
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- 39.
A patient died of CRF .Which tissue will be seen hypertrophied on autopsy
- A.
Parathyriod
- B.
Thyriod
- C.
Adrenal cortex
- D.
Adrenal medulla
Correct Answer
A. ParathyriodExplanation
In patients with chronic renal failure (CRF), the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products from the blood. This leads to an imbalance of calcium and phosphate levels in the body, resulting in secondary hyperparathyroidism. The parathyroid glands, which regulate calcium metabolism, respond to the low levels of calcium by becoming hypertrophied. Therefore, on autopsy, hypertrophied parathyroid tissue would be observed in a patient who died of CRF.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Central nervous system manifestation in chronic renal failure are the result of all except
- A.
Hyper osmolarity
- B.
Hypocalcemia
- C.
Acidosis
- D.
Hyponatremia
Correct Answer
A. Hyper osmolarityExplanation
The central nervous system manifestations in chronic renal failure are caused by various factors such as hypocalcemia, acidosis, and hyponatremia. However, hyperosmolarity is not typically associated with these manifestations. Hyperosmolarity refers to an increased concentration of solutes in the blood, which can lead to dehydration and altered mental status but is not a common cause of central nervous system manifestations in chronic renal failure.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which one of the following reqire dialysis?
- A.
Salicyclate poisioning
- B.
Digitalis toxcity
- C.
Barbiturate toxcity
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Salicyclate poisioningExplanation
Salicylate poisoning requires dialysis because it is a condition caused by an overdose of salicylates, which are found in medications such as aspirin. Salicylate poisoning can lead to severe acid-base disturbances, electrolyte imbalances, and organ damage. Dialysis is a treatment option used to remove toxins and excess substances from the blood when the kidneys are unable to do so effectively. In the case of salicylate poisoning, dialysis is necessary to remove the toxic levels of salicylates from the bloodstream and restore the body's acid-base balance.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Anterior fontanelle closes at
- A.
10 -12 months
- B.
12-18 months
- C.
18-24 months
- D.
10-14 months
Correct Answer
B. 12-18 monthsExplanation
The anterior fontanelle is the soft spot on a baby's skull that allows for the growth and development of the brain. It is typically open at birth and gradually closes as the baby grows. The correct answer is 12-18 months because this is the average timeframe for the anterior fontanelle to fully close. During this period, the bones of the skull fuse together, providing protection for the brain. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor the closure of the anterior fontanelle as a delayed closure may indicate an underlying medical condition.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which one of the following bone ossify ist ?
- A.
Clevicle
- B.
Scapula
- C.
Wrist bones
- D.
Sternum
Correct Answer
A. ClevicleExplanation
The correct answer is clavicle. The clavicle is the bone that ossifies first in the human body. Ossification is the process by which bones are formed and hardened. The clavicle, also known as the collarbone, is a long bone located between the shoulder and the sternum. It plays an important role in supporting the shoulder and allowing for arm movement.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Spheniod is an example of
- A.
Irregular bone
- B.
Pnuematic bone
- C.
Short bone
- D.
Flat bone
Correct Answer
B. Pnuematic boneExplanation
The sphenoid bone is an example of a pneumatic bone. Pneumatic bones are characterized by having air-filled spaces within them, which help to reduce their weight without compromising their strength. The sphenoid bone contains several air-filled cavities called sinuses, which make it lighter and more efficient for its functions in the skull. These sinuses also provide resonance for the voice and help to regulate pressure within the skull. Therefore, the sphenoid bone fits the description of a pneumatic bone.Rate this question:
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- 45.
A person standing at same place for 1 hour what will be decrease
- A.
Diemeter of aorta
- B.
Central venous pressure
- C.
Renin
- D.
ADH
Correct Answer
B. Central venous pressureExplanation
The correct answer is central venous pressure. When a person stands at the same place for an extended period of time, blood tends to pool in the lower extremities due to gravity. This pooling of blood in the legs leads to a decrease in central venous pressure, which is the pressure of blood in the veins that return blood to the heart. Consequently, standing for a long time can result in a decrease in central venous pressure.Rate this question:
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- 46.
IF Heart rate double during excercise cardiac cycle will complete in
- A.
0.2 sec
- B.
0.4 sec
- C.
0.16 sec
- D.
0.8seconds
Correct Answer
B. 0.4 secExplanation
During exercise, the heart rate increases to meet the increased demand for oxygen and nutrients in the body. This increased heart rate is known as tachycardia. As the heart rate doubles, it means that the heart is beating twice as fast as it normally would. Therefore, the time taken for one complete cardiac cycle, which includes both systole (contraction) and diastole (relaxation) phases, would be halved. Since the normal cardiac cycle duration is around 0.8 seconds, when the heart rate doubles, the cardiac cycle would complete in 0.4 seconds.Rate this question:
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- 47.
A profuesly bleeding patient devolped hypotension.which one of the following will be immediate mechanism to maintain BP
- A.
Baroreceptor reflex
- B.
Chemoreceptor refkex
- C.
Secreation of ADH
- D.
ALDOSTERONE
Correct Answer
A. Baroreceptor reflexExplanation
The baroreceptor reflex is the immediate mechanism to maintain blood pressure in a profusely bleeding patient who develops hypotension. Baroreceptors are specialized sensory receptors located in the walls of the blood vessels, especially in the carotid sinus and aortic arch. When the blood pressure drops, these receptors detect the change and send signals to the brain, specifically the medulla oblongata, which triggers a series of responses to increase blood pressure. This includes increasing heart rate, constricting blood vessels, and stimulating the release of hormones like adrenaline. The baroreceptor reflex helps to restore blood pressure to normal levels and ensure adequate perfusion to vital organs.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Greatest pressure drop in arteriole is because of
- A.
High resistance in arteriole
- B.
Decrease resistance
- C.
Highest cross sectional area
- D.
Highest flow rate
Correct Answer
A. High resistance in arterioleExplanation
The greatest pressure drop in the arteriole is due to high resistance. Resistance refers to the opposition that blood encounters as it flows through the blood vessels. Arterioles have smaller diameters compared to other blood vessels, which leads to increased resistance. This increased resistance causes a significant drop in pressure as blood flows through the arterioles. Therefore, the high resistance in the arterioles is the primary reason for the greatest pressure drop in this particular blood vessel.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which among the following is greater resistance vessel
- A.
Arterioles
- B.
Vein
- C.
Cappillaries
- D.
Venule
Correct Answer
A. ArteriolesExplanation
Arterioles are considered greater resistance vessels compared to veins, capillaries, and venules. This is because arterioles have a smaller diameter and thicker muscular walls, allowing them to regulate blood flow and control resistance to the flow of blood. Veins, on the other hand, have larger diameters and thinner walls, allowing them to store and transport blood back to the heart. Capillaries are the smallest blood vessels and have thin walls to facilitate the exchange of nutrients and waste products between the blood and tissues. Venules are small veins that receive blood from capillaries and transport it back to larger veins.Rate this question:
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- 50.
All of the following are electrocardiographic faeture of sever hyperkalemia excep
- A.
Peaked T wave
- B.
Presence of u wave
- C.
Sine wave pattern
- D.
Loss of p wave
Correct Answer
B. Presence of u waveExplanation
Severe hyperkalemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. Electrocardiographic features associated with severe hyperkalemia include peaked T waves, loss of P waves, and a sine wave pattern. The presence of a U wave, however, is not typically seen in severe hyperkalemia. Therefore, the correct answer is "presence of U wave."Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Aug 18, 2016Quiz Created by
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