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Microbiology Final Review

210 Questions
Microbiology Quizzes & Trivia

Practice test for Microbiology Final.

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy other microorganisms are called
    • A. 

      Antibiotics

    • B. 

      Narrow-spectrum drugs

    • C. 

      Semisynthetic drugs

    • D. 

      Synthetic drugs

    • E. 

      Broad-spectrum drugs

  • 2. 
    Antimicrobics effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed
    • A. 

      Antibiotics

    • B. 

      Narrow-spectrum drugs

    • C. 

      Semisynthetic drugs

    • D. 

      Synthetic drugs

    • E. 

      Broad-spectrum drugs

  • 3. 
    Important characteristics of antimicrobic drugs include
    • A. 

      Low toxicity for human tissues

    • B. 

      High toxicity against microbial cells

    • C. 

      Do not cause serious side effects in humans

    • D. 

      Stable and soluble in body tissues and fluids

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct

  • 4. 
    Aminoglycosides
    • A. 

      Interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan

    • B. 

      Are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis

    • C. 

      Attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis

    • D. 

      Damage cell membranes

    • E. 

      Block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules

  • 5. 
    A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is
    • A. 

      Synercid

    • B. 

      Penicillinase

    • C. 

      Aztreonam

    • D. 

      Clavulanic acid

    • E. 

      Imipenem

  • 6. 
    Antibiotics are derived from all the following except
    • A. 

      Penicillium

    • B. 

      Bacillus

    • C. 

      Staphylococcus

    • D. 

      Streptomyces

    • E. 

      Cephalosporium

  • 7. 
    Penicillins and cephalosporins
    • A. 

      Interfere with DNA synthesis

    • B. 

      Are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis

    • C. 

      Attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis

    • D. 

      Damage cell membranes

    • E. 

      Block the peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules

  • 8. 
    Sulfonamides
    • A. 

      Interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan

    • B. 

      Are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis

    • C. 

      Attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis

    • D. 

      Damage cell membranes

    • E. 

      Block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules

  • 9. 
    Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all have
    • A. 

      A beta-lactam ring

    • B. 

      Resistance to the action of penicillinase

    • C. 

      A semisynthetic nature

    • D. 

      An expanded spectrum of activity

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct

  • 10. 
    The drug used against intestinal anaerobic bacteria, that can also alter normal flora causing antibiotic-associated colitis is
    • A. 

      Chloramphenicol

    • B. 

      Clindamycin

    • C. 

      Ciprofloxacin

    • D. 

      Bacitracin

    • E. 

      Gentamicin

  • 11. 
    The antifungal drug that can be used to treat serious systemic fungal infections is
    • A. 

      Nystatin

    • B. 

      Griseofulvin

    • C. 

      Amphotericin B

    • D. 

      Sulfa drugs

    • E. 

      Metronidazole

  • 12. 
    The drug used for several protozoan infections is
    • A. 

      Nystatin

    • B. 

      Griseofulvin

    • C. 

      Amphotericin B

    • D. 

      Sulfa drugs

    • E. 

      Metronidazole

  • 13. 
    Mebendazole, niclosamide, and ivermectin are drugs used to treat __________ infections.
    • A. 

      Bacterial

    • B. 

      Fungal

    • C. 

      Protozoan

    • D. 

      Helminthic

    • E. 

      Virus

  • 14. 
    Which of the following is not a mode of action of antivirals?
    • A. 

      Block penetration

    • B. 

      Block transcription and translation

    • C. 

      Inhibit DNA synthesis

    • D. 

      Block maturation

    • E. 

      Bond to ergosterol in the cell membrane

  • 15. 
    Antivirals that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat
    • A. 

      Influenza A virus

    • B. 

      HIV

    • C. 

      Herpes zoster virus

    • D. 

      Respiratory syncytial virus

    • E. 

      Hepatitis C virus

  • 16. 
    The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobics include
    • A. 

      Bacterial chromosomal mutations

    • B. 

      Synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure

    • C. 

      Prevention of drug entry into the cell

    • D. 

      Alteration of drug receptors on cell targets

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct

  • 17. 
    A superinfection results from
    • A. 

      Build up of a drug to toxic levels in the patient

    • B. 

      The wrong drug administered to the patient

    • C. 

      An immune system reaction to the drug

    • D. 

      Decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of an unaffected species

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct

  • 18. 
    Drug susceptibility testing
    • A. 

      Determines the patient's response to various antimicrobics

    • B. 

      Determines the pathogen's response to various antimicrobics

    • C. 

      Determines if normal flora will be affected by antimicrobics

    • D. 

      Determines if the drug is increasing to toxic levels in a patient

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct

  • 19. 
    A "shotgun" approach to antimicrobial therapy involves
    • A. 

      Giving a narrow spectrum drug

    • B. 

      Culturing the pathogen and identifying it

    • C. 

      Performing the disk diffusion assay

    • D. 

      Using a broad spectrum drug so that the chance of killing the pathogen is greater

    • E. 

      Using antiviral and antibiotic drugs in combination

  • 20. 
    All of the following could be reasons why antimicrobic treatment fails except
    • A. 

      The inability of the drug to diffuse into the infected body compartment

    • B. 

      A mixed infection where some of the pathogens are drug resistant

    • C. 

      Not completing the full course of treatment

    • D. 

      A disk diffusion test showing pathogen sensitivity to the antimicrobic

    • E. 

      Diminished gastrointestinal absorption due to an underlying condition or age

  • 21. 
    All infectious diseases
    • A. 

      Are contagious

    • B. 

      Only occur in humans

    • C. 

      Are caused by microorganisms or their products

    • D. 

      Are caused by vectors

    • E. 

      Involve viruses as the pathogen

  • 22. 
    Which is not terminology used for resident flora?
    • A. 

      Pathogenic flora

    • B. 

      Normal flora

    • C. 

      Indigenous flora

    • D. 

      Normal microflora

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct

  • 23. 
    Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are
    • A. 

      In food

    • B. 

      The patient's own normal flora

    • C. 

      On fomites

    • D. 

      In the air

    • E. 

      Transmitted from one person to another

  • 24. 
    The human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal flora
    • A. 

      Before birth, in utero

    • B. 

      During, and immediately after birth

    • C. 

      When a child first goes to school

    • D. 

      When an infant gets its first infectious disease

    • E. 

      During puberty

  • 25. 
    All of the following genera are considered resident flora of skin sites except
    • A. 

      Escherichia

    • B. 

      Staphylococcus

    • C. 

      Corynebacterium

    • D. 

      Micrococcus

    • E. 

      Mycobacterium

  • 26. 
    Resident flora of the intestines include
    • A. 

      Streptococcus

    • B. 

      Bacteroides

    • C. 

      Staphylococcus

    • D. 

      Haemophilus

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct

  • 27. 
    Which genus is the most common resident flora of mouth surfaces?
    • A. 

      Lactobacillus

    • B. 

      Streptococcus

    • C. 

      Haemophilus

    • D. 

      Escherichia

    • E. 

      Mycobacterium

  • 28. 
    STORCH is an acronym that represents the most common
    • A. 

      Genera of resident flora

    • B. 

      Sexually transmitted diseases

    • C. 

      Portals of entry

    • D. 

      Vectors

    • E. 

      Infections of the fetus and neonate

  • 29. 
    Enterotoxins are
    • A. 

      Virulence factors

    • B. 

      Toxins that target the intestines

    • C. 

      Proteins

    • D. 

      Exotoxins

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct

  • 30. 
    The time from when pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms first appear is the
    • A. 

      Prodromal stage

    • B. 

      Convalescent stage

    • C. 

      Incubation period

    • D. 

      Period of invasion

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct

  • 31. 
    The subjective evidence of disease sensed by the patient is termed
    • A. 

      Syndrome

    • B. 

      Symptom

    • C. 

      Sign

    • D. 

      Pathology

    • E. 

      Inflammation

  • 32. 
    The objective, measurable evidence of disease evaluated by an observer is termed
    • A. 

      Syndrome

    • B. 

      Symptom

    • C. 

      Sign

    • D. 

      Pathology

    • E. 

      Inflammation

  • 33. 
    Local edema, swollen lymph nodes, fever, soreness, and abscesses are indications of
    • A. 

      Toxemia

    • B. 

      Inflammation

    • C. 

      Sequelae

    • D. 

      A syndrome

    • E. 

      Latency

  • 34. 
    The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population is
    • A. 

      Pathology

    • B. 

      Clinical microbiology

    • C. 

      Medicine

    • D. 

      Immunology

    • E. 

      Epidemiology

  • 35. 
    Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a
    • A. 

      Fomite

    • B. 

      Carrier

    • C. 

      Vector

    • D. 

      Reservoir

    • E. 

      Source

  • 36. 
    An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a
    • A. 

      Fomite

    • B. 

      Carrier

    • C. 

      Vector

    • D. 

      Reservoir

    • E. 

      Source

  • 37. 
    An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a
    • A. 

      Fomite

    • B. 

      Carrier

    • C. 

      Vector

    • D. 

      Reservoir

    • E. 

      Source

  • 38. 
    Nosocomial infections involve all the following except
    • A. 

      They are only transmitted by medical personnel

    • B. 

      They often involve the patient's urinary tract and surgical incisions

    • C. 

      The patient's resident flora can be the infectious agent

    • D. 

      Escherichia coli and staphylococci are common infectious agents

    • E. 

      Medical and surgical asepsis help lower their occurrence

  • 39. 
    If the ID for gonorrhea is 1,000 cells and the ID for tuberculosis is 10 cells, which organism is more virulent?
    • A. 

      Neisseria gonorrhea

    • B. 

      Mycobacterium tuberculosis

    • C. 

      They are equally virulent

    • D. 

      It is impossible to determine

  • 40. 
    Components of the first line of defense include all the following except
    • A. 

      The tough cell sheet of the upper epidermis of the skin.

    • B. 

      Nasal hairs.

    • C. 

      Flushing action of tears and blinking.

    • D. 

      Flushing action of urine.

    • E. 

      Phagocytic white blood cells.

  • 41. 
    Nonspecific chemical defenses include
    • A. 

      Lysozyme.

    • B. 

      Lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat.

    • C. 

      Skin's acidic pH and fatty acids.

    • D. 

      Stomach hydrochloric acid.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct

  • 42. 
    The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is
    • A. 

      Lactic acid.

    • B. 

      Hydrochloric acid.

    • C. 

      Lysozyme.

    • D. 

      Histamine.

    • E. 

      Bile.

  • 43. 
    The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the
    • A. 

      Skin.

    • B. 

      Respiratory tract.

    • C. 

      Digestive tract.

    • D. 

      Urinary tract.

    • E. 

      Eyes.

  • 44. 
    Plasma
    • A. 

      Is the liquid portion of blood in which blood cells are suspended.

    • B. 

      Is mostly water.

    • C. 

      Contains albumin and globulins.

    • D. 

      Contains fibrinogen.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 45. 
    The blood cells that function in allergic reactions and inflammation, contain peroxidase and lysozyme, and particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are
    • A. 

      Basophils.

    • B. 

      Eosinophils.

    • C. 

      Neutrophils.

    • D. 

      Monocytes.

    • E. 

      Lymphocytes.

  • 46. 
    The most numerous WBC's, that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are
    • A. 

      Basophils.

    • B. 

      Eosinophils.

    • C. 

      Neutrophils.

    • D. 

      Monocytes.

    • E. 

      Lymphocytes.

  • 47. 
    All of the following pertain to platelets except
    • A. 

      They contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide.

    • B. 

      They are also called thrombocytes.

    • C. 

      They originate from giant multinucleate cells called megakaryocytes.

    • D. 

      They function in blood clotting and inflammation.

    • E. 

      They are not whole cells but are pieces of cells.

  • 48. 
    Hemopoiesis is the
    • A. 

      Loss of blood due to hemorrhaging.

    • B. 

      Production of only red blood cells.

    • C. 

      Production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets.

    • D. 

      Plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding.

    • E. 

      Migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues.

  • 49. 
    Diapedesis is the
    • A. 

      Loss of blood due to hemorrhaging.

    • B. 

      Production of only red blood cells.

    • C. 

      Production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets.

    • D. 

      Plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding.

    • E. 

      Migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues.

  • 50. 
    Plasma cells
    • A. 

      Function in cell-mediated immunity.

    • B. 

      Are derived from T-lymphocytes.

    • C. 

      Function in blood clotting.

    • D. 

      Produce and secrete antibodies.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 51. 
    The reticuloendothelial system
    • A. 

      Is a support network of connective tissue fibers.

    • B. 

      Originates in the cellular basal lamina.

    • C. 

      Provides a passageway within and between tissues and organs.

    • D. 

      Is heavily populated with macrophages.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 52. 
    Which of the following lymphoid organs and tissues has the immunological function of filtering pathogens from the blood?
    • A. 

      Lymph nodes

    • B. 

      Thymus

    • C. 

      Spleen

    • D. 

      GALT

    • E. 

      Tonsils

  • 53. 
    These structures are found along lymphatic vessels but are heavily clustered in the armpit, groin, and neck:
    • A. 

      Lymph nodes

    • B. 

      Thymus

    • C. 

      Spleen

    • D. 

      GALT

    • E. 

      Tonsils

  • 54. 
    The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all the following except
    • A. 

      Redness.

    • B. 

      Warmth.

    • C. 

      Swelling.

    • D. 

      Pain.

    • E. 

      Chills.

  • 55. 
    The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are
    • A. 

      Complement.

    • B. 

      Interferons.

    • C. 

      Leukotrienes.

    • D. 

      Pyrogens.

    • E. 

      Lysozymes.

  • 56. 
    Which is incorrect about complement?
    • A. 

      Composed of at least 26 blood proteins

    • B. 

      Only appear in the blood during a response to a pathogen

    • C. 

      Act in a cascade reaction

    • D. 

      Involves a classical pathway

    • E. 

      Involves an alternate pathway

  • 57. 
    Specificity and memory are associated with which body defense mechanism?
    • A. 

      Inflammatory response

    • B. 

      Phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils

    • C. 

      Interferon

    • D. 

      T cell and B cell responses

    • E. 

      Anatomical barriers in the body

  • 58. 
    Joe cut his finger on a sharp twig and now is experiencing dolor. This means
    • A. 

      Redness.

    • B. 

      Pain.

    • C. 

      Loss of function.

    • D. 

      Warmth.

    • E. 

      Swelling.

  • 59. 
    Maria was scratched on her arm by her cat and the site is experiencing rubor. This means
    • A. 

      Redness.

    • B. 

      Pain.

    • C. 

      Loss of function.

    • D. 

      Warmth.

    • E. 

      Swelling.

  • 60. 
    Which of the following is involved in the in vitro diagnostic testing of serum?
    • A. 

      Mycology

    • B. 

      Hematology

    • C. 

      Serology

    • D. 

      Histology

    • E. 

      Virology

  • 61. 
    The property of a test to detect even small amounts of antibodies or antigens that are test targets is
    • A. 

      Cross-reactions.

    • B. 

      Agglutination.

    • C. 

      Precipitation.

    • D. 

      Specificity.

    • E. 

      Sensitivity.

  • 62. 
    The property of a test to detect only a certain antibody or antigen, and not to react with any others, is
    • A. 

      Cross-reactions.

    • B. 

      Agglutination.

    • C. 

      Precipitation.

    • D. 

      Specificity.

    • E. 

      Sensitivity

  • 63. 
    Whole antigens are detected in this type of test:
    • A. 

      Cross-reactions

    • B. 

      Agglutination

    • C. 

      Precipitation

    • D. 

      Specificity

    • E. 

      Sensitivity

  • 64. 
    Affixing antigen to an inert particle such as a latex bead is sometimes used in this type of test:
    • A. 

      Cross-reactions

    • B. 

      Agglutination

    • C. 

      Precipitation

    • D. 

      Specificity

    • E. 

      Sensitivity

  • 65. 
    A serum titer involves
    • A. 

      Serially diluting a serum sample.

    • B. 

      Determining the lowest dilution of serum that produces a visible reaction.

    • C. 

      Determining the highest dilution of antigen that produces a visible reaction.

    • D. 

      The Western blot method.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.

  • 66. 
    Which of the following is incorrect regarding the complement fixation test?
    • A. 

      First antigen and antibody are allowed to react

    • B. 

      Purified complement proteins are added to the antigen-antibody tube

    • C. 

      Sheep red blood cells are added to the antigen-antibody-complement mixture

    • D. 

      Hemolysis of the sheep red blood cells occurs in a positive test result

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.

  • 67. 
    Serotyping of the pneumococcus based on capsular polysaccharide is performed in
    • A. 

      Ouchterlony double diffusion.

    • B. 

      Western blot.

    • C. 

      Immunelectrophoresis.

    • D. 

      Radioimmunoassay (RIA).

    • E. 

      The Quellung test.

  • 68. 
    All of the following are methods to diagnose viral infections except
    • A. 

      Detection of viral nucleic acid using specific probes.

    • B. 

      Western blot.

    • C. 

      Cells taken from patient are examined for evidence of viral infection.

    • D. 

      Signs and symptoms.

    • E. 

      The light microscope.

  • 69. 
    Which of the following methods is categorized as a direct test in order to analyze a specimen?
    • A. 

      Catalase test

    • B. 

      Gram stain

    • C. 

      Phage typing

    • D. 

      Antimicrobic sensitivity

    • E. 

      Production of gas

  • 70. 
    All of the following are routine biochemical tests to aid in identifying a species except
    • A. 

      Motility.

    • B. 

      Carbohydrate fermentation.

    • C. 

      Catalase test.

    • D. 

      Oxidase test.

    • E. 

      Coagulase test.

  • 71. 
    The more a sample can be diluted and yet still react with antigen, the __________ the concentration of antibodies in that sample and the __________ is its titer.
    • A. 

      Lower, lower

    • B. 

      Higher, lower

    • C. 

      Lower, higher

    • D. 

      Higher, higher

  • 72. 
    A rising antibody titer a few days apart indicates
    • A. 

      A past case of the disease.

    • B. 

      A current infection.

    • C. 

      Nothing, people always have antibodies in their serum.

    • D. 

      All of the choices are possible.

  • 73. 
    Which technique is able to amplify DNA present in samples even in tiny amounts?
    • A. 

      Genetic probing

    • B. 

      Ouchterlony

    • C. 

      Polymerase chain reaction

    • D. 

      Nucleic acid sequencing

    • E. 

      G + C composition

  • 74. 
    The indirect ELISA test detects __________ in a patient's blood.
    • A. 

      Antigen

    • B. 

      Antibody

    • C. 

      Microorganisms

    • D. 

      IgE only

    • E. 

      Complement

  • 75. 
    All of the following are correct about the indirect ELISA except
    • A. 

      It can detect antibodies in a serum sample.

    • B. 

      It is the common screening test for antibodies to Helicobacter.

    • C. 

      Color development indicates that antibody was not present in the patient's serum.

    • D. 

      It is the common screening test for antibodies to hepatitis A.

    • E. 

      A known antigen is adsorbed to the surface of a well.

  • 76. 
    Which of the following tests is too nonspecific to be applicable as a precise identification tool?
    • A. 

      DNA analysis using genetic probes

    • B. 

      RRNA analysis

    • C. 

      G + C base composition percentage

    • D. 

      Nucleic acid sequencing

    • E. 

      Polymerase chain reaction

  • 77. 
    The dyes fluorescein and rhodamine
    • A. 

      Can be used to label antibodies in immunofluorescence tests.

    • B. 

      Emit visible light in response to ultraviolet radiation.

    • C. 

      Are observed in the fluorescent microscope.

    • D. 

      Are used to identify pathogens of chlamydiosis, Legionnaires' disease, and others.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 78. 
    The enzyme that coagulates plasma is
    • A. 

      Catalase.

    • B. 

      Coagulase.

    • C. 

      Hyaluronidase.

    • D. 

      Staphylokinase.

    • E. 

      Dnase.

  • 79. 
    The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is
    • A. 

      Enterotoxin.

    • B. 

      Hemolysin.

    • C. 

      Toxic shock syndrome toxin.

    • D. 

      Exfoliative toxin.

    • E. 

      Erythrogenic toxin.

  • 80. 
    The bright red rash and fever of scarlet fever is due to
    • A. 

      Enterotoxins.

    • B. 

      Hemolysins.

    • C. 

      Toxic shock syndrome toxin.

    • D. 

      Exfoliative toxin.

    • E. 

      Erythrogenic toxin.

  • 81. 
    Scarlet fever is caused by strains of
    • A. 

      Staphylococcus aureus.

    • B. 

      Staphylococcus epidermidis.

    • C. 

      Staphylococcus saprophyticus.

    • D. 

      Streptococcus pyogenes.

    • E. 

      Streptococcus agalactiae.

  • 82. 
    This pathogen is the most common cause of neonatal pneumonia, sepsis, and meningitis in the United States:
    • A. 

      Staphylococcus aureus

    • B. 

      Staphylococcus epidermidis

    • C. 

      Staphylococcus saprophyticus

    • D. 

      Streptococcus pyogenes

    • E. 

      Streptococcus agalactiae

  • 83. 
    This organism is associated with commonly causing urinary tract infections in sexually active young adult and adolescent females:
    • A. 

      Staphylococcus aureus

    • B. 

      Staphylococcus epidermidis

    • C. 

      Staphylococcus saprophyticus

    • D. 

      Streptococcus pyogenes

    • E. 

      Streptococcus agalactiae

  • 84. 
    This pathogen has drug resistant strains called MRSA:
    • A. 

      Staphylococcus aureus

    • B. 

      Staphylococcus epidermidis

    • C. 

      Staphylococcus saprophyticus

    • D. 

      Streptococcus pyogenes

    • E. 

      Streptococcus agalactiae

  • 85. 
    The most common site where carriers of Staphylococcus aureus carry this pathogen is
    • A. 

      All over the skin.

    • B. 

      Under the fingernails.

    • C. 

      Anterior nares (nostrils).

    • D. 

      Mouth.

    • E. 

      Intestines.

  • 86. 
    Rebecca Lancefield differentiated streptococci on the basis of differences in their
    • A. 

      Cell wall carbohydrates in a serological test.

    • B. 

      Patterns of hemolysis on blood agar.

    • C. 

      Ability to produce catalase.

    • D. 

      Gram stain appearance.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 87. 
    Streptococcus pyogenes causes all the following except
    • A. 

      Necrotizing fasciitis.

    • B. 

      Erysipelas.

    • C. 

      Impetigo.

    • D. 

      Scarlet fever.

    • E. 

      Scalded skin syndrome.

  • 88. 
    The Group A streptococcal infection that has symptoms of fever, edema of skin near portal of entry, and an elevated red, hot vesicular lesion is
    • A. 

      Erysipelas.

    • B. 

      Impetigo.

    • C. 

      Necrotizing fasciitis.

    • D. 

      Scarlet fever.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.

  • 89. 
    All of the following pertain to Enterococcus faecalis except
    • A. 

      Normal flora of the human large intestine.

    • B. 

      Increasingly resistant to many antimicrobics.

    • C. 

      Cause nosocomial wound infections, urinary tract infections, and septicemias.

    • D. 

      Can cause endocarditis.

    • E. 

      Belong to Lancefield Group B streptococci.

  • 90. 
    The viridans streptococci are
    • A. 

      Not entirely groupable by Lancefield serology.

    • B. 

      The most numerous residents of the oral cavity.

    • C. 

      Opportunists that can cause subacute endocarditis.

    • D. 

      Introduced to deeper body tissues by dental or surgical procedures.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 91. 
    Streptococcus pneumoniae is
    • A. 

      Called the meningococcus.

    • B. 

      In the viridans group.

    • C. 

      A gram positive diplococcus with a capsule.

    • D. 

      A pathogen with endotoxin.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 92. 
    Disease/s caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae include
    • A. 

      Otitis media.

    • B. 

      Meningitis.

    • C. 

      Lobar pneumonia.

    • D. 

      Bronchial pneumonia.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 93. 
    Neisseria gonorrhoeae is
    • A. 

      The cause of ophthalmia neonatorum.

    • B. 

      The cause of gonorrhea.

    • C. 

      Called the gonococcus.

    • D. 

      Virulent due to pili, and a protease that inactivates IgA.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 94. 
    All of the following pertain to Neisseria meningitidis except
    • A. 

      Virulent factors include a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease.

    • B. 

      It causes a serious meningitis.

    • C. 

      The reservoir is the nasopharynx of human carriers.

    • D. 

      It is more easily transmitted in day care facilities, dorms, and military barracks.

    • E. 

      It is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia.

  • 95. 
    Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis
    • A. 

      Is a virulent pathogen.

    • B. 

      Causes otitis media, meningitis, endocarditis, and bronchopulmonary infections.

    • C. 

      Has birds as its reservoir.

    • D. 

      Infection begins with a rash.

    • E. 

      Only causes nosocomial infections.

  • 96. 
    A positive Quellung, or capsular swelling, is confirmatory for
    • A. 

      Neisseria meningitidis.

    • B. 

      Staphylococcus aureus.

    • C. 

      Streptococcus pyogenes.

    • D. 

      Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis.

    • E. 

      Streptococcus pneumoniae.

  • 97. 
    The majority of otitis media in children is mainly due to infection with
    • A. 

      Streptococcus pneumoniae.

    • B. 

      Streptococcus pyogenes.

    • C. 

      Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis.

    • D. 

      Streptococcus agalactiae.

    • E. 

      Staphylococcus saprophyticus.

  • 98. 
    Characteristics of Bacillus anthracis include all the following except
    • A. 

      Capsule and exotoxins are virulence factors.

    • B. 

      Anaerobic.

    • C. 

      Reservoir includes infected grazing animals and contaminated soil.

    • D. 

      Gram positive bacillus.

    • E. 

      Sporeformer.

  • 99. 
    Anthrax is
    • A. 

      A zoonosis.

    • B. 

      Transmitted by contact, inhalation, and ingestion.

    • C. 

      A disease that, in humans, can cause a rapidly fatal toxemia and septicemia.

    • D. 

      Only seen sporadically in the United States.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 100. 
    This type of anthrax is called "wool-sorter's disease"
    • A. 

      Pulmonary.

    • B. 

      Gastrointestinal.

    • C. 

      Cutaneous.

    • D. 

      All of the choices are correct.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.

  • 101. 
    The foodborne disease that involves neurotoxin is
    • A. 

      Gastrointestinal anthrax.

    • B. 

      Bacillus cereus intoxication.

    • C. 

      Botulism.

    • D. 

      Clostridium perfringens gastroenteritis.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 102. 
    Production of a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contraction is a characteristic of
    • A. 

      Clostridium botulinum.

    • B. 

      Clostridium perfringens.

    • C. 

      Clostridium difficile.

    • D. 

      Clostridium tetani.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 103. 
    This organism can infect deeper wound sites and produce exotoxins, enzymes and gas that cause tissue and muscle necrosis:
    • A. 

      Clostridium botulinum

    • B. 

      Clostridium perfringens

    • C. 

      Clostridium difficile

    • D. 

      Clostridium tetani

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 104. 
    Botulin, the toxin of botulism is
    • A. 

      Not as virulent as tetanospasmin.

    • B. 

      Detected and diagnosed by analyzing a patient's blood.

    • C. 

      The cause of rigid paralysis.

    • D. 

      Only produced under anaerobic conditions.

    • E. 

      Produced when spores germinate in the intestines of adults after ingesting contaminated food.

  • 105. 
    All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection except
    • A. 

      It is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies.

    • B. 

      It is a colitis that is a superinfection.

    • C. 

      It often has an endogenous source.

    • D. 

      It may be on the rise due to increased use of gastric acid inhibitors.

    • E. 

      It is major cause of diarrhea in hospitals.

  • 106. 
    All of the following pertain to Listeria monocytogenes except:
    • A. 

      Gram positive

    • B. 

      Sporeformer

    • C. 

      Contaminant of dairy products, meats, poultry

    • D. 

      Causes foodborne listeriosis

    • E. 

      Cold enrichment improves recovery in the lab

  • 107. 
    All of the following pertain to listeriosis except
    • A. 

      It causes symptoms of fever, diarrhea and sore throat.

    • B. 

      It causes a serious septicemia and meningitis in the elderly, immunocompromised and infants.

    • C. 

      Intrauterine infection usually results in fetal death.

    • D. 

      Adequate pasteurization and thorough cooking of food can improve prevention.

    • E. 

      Enterotoxin of the organism causes symptoms.

  • 108. 
    Formation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is seen in
    • A. 

      Diphtheria.

    • B. 

      Listeriosis.

    • C. 

      Tuberculosis.

    • D. 

      Erysipeloid.

    • E. 

      Botulism.

  • 109. 
    The major virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that causes serious systemic effects is
    • A. 

      Capsule.

    • B. 

      Metachromatic granules.

    • C. 

      Exotoxin.

    • D. 

      Endospores.

    • E. 

      Endotoxin.

  • 110. 
    Which is not correct about Mycobacterium species?
    • A. 

      All species are human pathogens

    • B. 

      Cell walls have waxy lipids

    • C. 

      Acid fast

    • D. 

      Usually have a slow growth rate

    • E. 

      Long, slender rods

  • 111. 
    All of the following pertain to tuberculosis except
    • A. 

      Live bacilli can remain dormant in the lungs and reactivate later in life.

    • B. 

      Symptoms of active TB include low-grade fever, coughing, fatigue, weight loss and night sweats.

    • C. 

      Lung infection can disseminate to many other organs in extrapulmonary TB.

    • D. 

      The BCG vaccine is used in other countries.

    • E. 

      Antimicrobics cannot treat and cure tuberculosis.

  • 112. 
    Tuberculin skin testing
    • A. 

      Injects PPD intradermally.

    • B. 

      Uses a purified protein filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

    • C. 

      Will be positive if person has had previous exposure.

    • D. 

      Will be positive in active TB.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 113. 
    Leprosy is a disease
    • A. 

      Of lung tissue.

    • B. 

      That has been eradicated around the world.

    • C. 

      Caused by a pathogen that cannot be cultured in the lab.

    • D. 

      Can be diagnosed by the Mantoux test.

    • E. 

      Caused by a sporeforming, gram-positive bacillus.

  • 114. 
    The common soil mycobacteria that frequently cause systemic infection and death in AIDS patients is
    • A. 

      Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC).

    • B. 

      Mycobacterium kansasii.

    • C. 

      Mycobacterium scrofulaceum.

    • D. 

      Mycobacterium fortuitum complex.

    • E. 

      Mycobacterium marinum.

  • 115. 
    Actinomyces israelii
    • A. 

      Can be transmitted by respiratory droplets.

    • B. 

      Can cause pneumonia with symptoms similar to tuberculosis.

    • C. 

      Are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue.

    • D. 

      Lives in the soil.

    • E. 

      Causes most cases in the immunocompromised.

  • 116. 
    Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes all the following except
    • A. 

      Severe nosocomial infection in burn patients.

    • B. 

      Skin rashes from contaminated hot tubs and bath sponges.

    • C. 

      Diarrheal illness.

    • D. 

      External ear infection.

    • E. 

      Serious infection in lung tissue of cystic fibrosis patients.

  • 117. 
    Which color pigment is produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
    • A. 

      Lemon yellow

    • B. 

      Red-orange

    • C. 

      Golden

    • D. 

      Blue-green

    • E. 

      Pale orange

  • 118. 
    Brucellosis is
    • A. 

      A zoonosis.

    • B. 

      Seen in the patient as a fluctuating fever, with headache, muscle pain and weakness.

    • C. 

      Associated with pathogen in the blood.

    • D. 

      An occupational illness of people that work with animals.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 119. 
    Pasteurization of milk helps to prevent
    • A. 

      Tularemia.

    • B. 

      Pertussis.

    • C. 

      Legionellosis.

    • D. 

      Brucellosis.

    • E. 

      Shigellosis.

  • 120. 
    Rabbits and rodents are the reservoirs of the causative agent of
    • A. 

      Tularemia.

    • B. 

      Pertussis.

    • C. 

      Legionellosis.

    • D. 

      Brucellosis.

    • E. 

      Shigellosis.

  • 121. 
    Pertussis has the following characteristics except
    • A. 

      Pathogen has virulence factors to destroy the action of respiratory cilia.

    • B. 

      Catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking coughs with "whoops".

    • C. 

      Early stage resembles a cold with nasal discharge and sneezing.

    • D. 

      DTaP immunization will prevent it.

    • E. 

      Transmission is by respiratory droplets.

  • 122. 
    Legionella pneumophila
    • A. 

      Requires special lab growth media.

    • B. 

      Often lives in close associations with amebas.

    • C. 

      Causes fever, cough, and diarrhea.

    • D. 

      Causes a severe pneumonia.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 123. 
    Which disease involves transmission by aerosolized water from whirlpool spas, air conditioners, cooling towers, and supermarket vegetable misters?
    • A. 

      Legionellosis

    • B. 

      Pertussis

    • C. 

      Brucellosis

    • D. 

      Plague

    • E. 

      Traveler's diarrhea

  • 124. 
    All coliforms are
    • A. 

      Enteric pathogens.

    • B. 

      Rapid lactose fermenters.

    • C. 

      Oxidase positive.

    • D. 

      Fasitidious.

    • E. 

      Strains of E. coli.

  • 125. 
    Escherichia coli infections
    • A. 

      Are often transmitted by fecal contaminated water and food.

    • B. 

      Include urinary tract infections from normal flora strains.

    • C. 

      Involve enterotoxin in traveler's diarrhea.

    • D. 

      Can cause an inflammatory disease similar to Shigella dysentery.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 126. 
    E. coli 0157:H7 characteristics include all the following except
    • A. 

      It only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals.

    • B. 

      It is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated, undercooked food, especially hamburger.

    • C. 

      It causes a bloody diarrhea.

    • D. 

      Its reservoir is cattle intestines.

    • E. 

      Some cases go on to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) with possible kidney failure.

  • 127. 
    Salmonelloses are
    • A. 

      Not caused by Salmonella typhi.

    • B. 

      Associated with undercooked poultry and eggs, and reptile and rodent feces.

    • C. 

      Gastroenteritis with vomiting and diarrhea.

    • D. 

      Enteric fevers that often include septicemia.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 128. 
    Salmonella typhi
    • A. 

      Multiplies within phagocytes.

    • B. 

      Is not a coliform.

    • C. 

      Can be treated with antimicrobics.

    • D. 

      Causes invasive infection of the small intestine.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 129. 
    Yersinia pestis
    • A. 

      Was virulent in the Middle Ages but is no longer virulent.

    • B. 

      Has humans as an endemic reservoir.

    • C. 

      Does not respond to antimicrobic drugs.

    • D. 

      Is usually transmitted by a flea vector.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 130. 
    All of the following are associated with bubonic plague except
    • A. 

      It is transmitted by human feces.

    • B. 

      It is caused by Yersinia pestis.

    • C. 

      The patient often has enlarged inguinal lymph nodes.

    • D. 

      The patient has fever, headache, nausea, weakness.

    • E. 

      It can progress to a septicemia.

  • 131. 
    The gram negative bacillus associated with abscesses from dog and cat bites or scratches is
    • A. 

      Salmonella typhimurium.

    • B. 

      Yersinia enterocolitica.

    • C. 

      Pasteurella multocida.

    • D. 

      Brucella suis.

    • E. 

      Francisella tularensis.

  • 132. 
    Which fastidious genus requires hemin (X factor) and NAD (Y factor) in its growth medium?
    • A. 

      Legionella

    • B. 

      Haemophilus

    • C. 

      Brucella

    • D. 

      Shigella

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 133. 
    Which of the following is not caused by Haemophilus influenzae?
    • A. 

      Bacterial meningitis

    • B. 

      Influenza (flu)

    • C. 

      Otitis media

    • D. 

      Bronchitis

    • E. 

      Epiglottitis

  • 134. 
    An agent of acute communicable conjunctivitis (pinkeye) is
    • A. 

      Haemophilus influenzae.

    • B. 

      Haemophilus ducreyi.

    • C. 

      Haemophilus aegyptius.

    • D. 

      Haemophilus parainfluenzae.

    • E. 

      Haemophilus aphrophilus.

  • 135. 
    Treponena pallidum subspecies pallidum
    • A. 

      Has humans as the reservoir.

    • B. 

      Can cross the placenta.

    • C. 

      Has a hooked tip to attach to epithelium.

    • D. 

      Is transmitted by direct sexual contact.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 136. 
    The chancre of syphilis
    • A. 

      Occurs due to small hemorrhaging of capillaries.

    • B. 

      Is very painful.

    • C. 

      Occurs during the tertiary stage.

    • D. 

      Develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated central crater.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 137. 
    The secondary stage of syphilis
    • A. 

      Is when the patient is no longer infectious to others.

    • B. 

      Occurs within 10 days of the primary stage.

    • C. 

      Is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood.

    • D. 

      Has no symptoms.

    • E. 

      Is when gummas develop in tissues.

  • 138. 
    Treponema, Borrelia, and Leptospira are all
    • A. 

      Obligate parasites requiring host cells.

    • B. 

      Curved rods.

    • C. 

      Transmitted by arthropod vectors.

    • D. 

      Spirochetes.

    • E. 

      Bacteria without cell walls.

  • 139. 
    Yaws, Pinta, and Bejel are all diseases that
    • A. 

      Are slow, progressive skin diseases that can spread to deep tissues.

    • B. 

      Are sexually transmitted.

    • C. 

      Are caused by arthropod vectors.

    • D. 

      Are caused by Vibrio species.

    • E. 

      Are respiratory tract infections.

  • 140. 
    Infected animals shed Leptospira interrogans in their
    • A. 

      Feces.

    • B. 

      Blood.

    • C. 

      Urine.

    • D. 

      Respiratory secretions.

    • E. 

      Saliva.

  • 141. 
    Relapsing fever involves
    • A. 

      Soft-bodied ticks transmitting Borrelia hermsii.

    • B. 

      Initial symptoms of fever, headache, fatigue.

    • C. 

      Late symptoms of vomiting, muscle aches, damage to liver, spleen, heart and kidneys.

    • D. 

      Human body louse transmitting Borrelia recurrentis.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 142. 
    The causative agent of Lyme disease is
    • A. 

      Ixodes scapularis.

    • B. 

      Borrelia hermsii.

    • C. 

      Borrelia burgdorferi.

    • D. 

      Ixodes pacificus.

    • E. 

      Leptospira interrogans.

  • 143. 
    Erythema migrans, a bull's-eye rash, at the portal of entry is associated with
    • A. 

      Syphilis.

    • B. 

      Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

    • C. 

      Relapsing fever.

    • D. 

      Lyme disease.

    • E. 

      Leptospirosis.

  • 144. 
    The virulence of Vibrio cholerae is due to its
    • A. 

      Capsule.

    • B. 

      Neurotoxin.

    • C. 

      Invasive enzymes.

    • D. 

      Enterotoxin.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 145. 
    Cholera symptoms are
    • A. 

      Copious watery diarrhea.

    • B. 

      Loss of blood volume.

    • C. 

      Acidosis, sunken eyes, thirst.

    • D. 

      Hypotension, tachycardia, shock.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 146. 
    The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in Cholera victims is
    • A. 

      Water and electrolyte replacement.

    • B. 

      Antimicrobics.

    • C. 

      Antitoxin.

    • D. 

      Surgery.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.

  • 147. 
    An organism found in coastal waters that causes a food infection and gastroenteritis due to a variety of contaminated raw and undercooked seafood is
    • A. 

      Chlamydia trachomatis.

    • B. 

      Vibrio parahaemolyticus.

    • C. 

      Vibrio cholerae.

    • D. 

      Campylobacter jejuni.

    • E. 

      Helicobacter pylori.

  • 148. 
    Helicobacter pylori causes
    • A. 

      Gastritis.

    • B. 

      Duodenal ulcers.

    • C. 

      Stomach ulcers.

    • D. 

      Increased risk for stomach cancer.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 149. 
    All of the following are characteristics of Campylobacter jejuni except
    • A. 

      It is transmitted through ingestion of contaminated chicken, meat, milk, and water.

    • B. 

      It causes fever and a water to bloody diarrhea.

    • C. 

      It infects the stomach.

    • D. 

      It produces an enterotoxin that stimulates diarrhea.

    • E. 

      It has gram negative curved rods with darting motility.

  • 150. 
    The following are characteristics of Chlamydias except:
    • A. 

      Gram negative

    • B. 

      Obligate parasites that need host cells for growth

    • C. 

      Elementary bodies are the infectious form

    • D. 

      Elementary bodies lack enzyme systems for making ATP

    • E. 

      Reticulate bodies differentiate into elementary bodies

  • 151. 
    Chlamydia trachomatis causes
    • A. 

      Nongonococcal urethritis (NGU) in males.

    • B. 

      Cervicitis in females.

    • C. 

      Congenital and adult inclusion conjunctivitis.

    • D. 

      Ocular trachoma.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 152. 
    Which is incorrect about Mycoplasma pneumoniae?
    • A. 

      Has birds as a reservoir

    • B. 

      Common cause of primary atypical pneumonia

    • C. 

      Initially causes fever, malaise, sore throat, headache

    • D. 

      After 2 to 3 weeks develops into an unproductive cough and earache

    • E. 

      Is a bacterial cell without a cell wall

  • 153. 
    Oral flora bacteria on the tooth surface
    • A. 

      Develop a biofilm.

    • B. 

      Use fimbriae and slime layers to adhere.

    • C. 

      Include streptococci that metabolize sucrose, produce sticky glucans, and form plaque.

    • D. 

      Lactobacilli and streptococci ferment carbohydrates and produce acids that cause caries.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 154. 
    Gingivitis is
    • A. 

      Primarily caused by anaerobic oral flora.

    • B. 

      Erosion of tooth enamel causing a lesion.

    • C. 

      Caused by Streptococcus mutans.

    • D. 

      Also called NUG.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.

  • 155. 
    All of the following can positively influence the structure of tooth enamel except
    • A. 

      Fluoride.

    • B. 

      Lysozyme in saliva.

    • C. 

      Antibodies in saliva.

    • D. 

      Refined sugar.

    • E. 

      Genetics.

  • 156. 
    The ability of a fungus to grow as a yeast or a mold depending on its environmental temperature is called
    • A. 

      Fungal virulence.

    • B. 

      Parasitism.

    • C. 

      Dimorphism.

    • D. 

      Dermatophytes.

    • E. 

      Opportunistic fungi.

  • 157. 
    The routes of entry for most fungi into the body are
    • A. 

      Urinary and reproductive.

    • B. 

      Digestive and respiratory.

    • C. 

      Blood and wounds.

    • D. 

      Respiratory and cutaneous.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.

  • 158. 
    Amphotericin B, nystatin, and the imidazoles are all
    • A. 

      Mycotoxins.

    • B. 

      Fungal enzymes.

    • C. 

      Antifungal drugs.

    • D. 

      Culture media supplements for fungi.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.

  • 159. 
    The highest incidence of histoplasmosis in the United States occurs in the
    • A. 

      Southeast.

    • B. 

      Southwest.

    • C. 

      East and Midwest.

    • D. 

      Northeast.

    • E. 

      Rocky Mountains.

  • 160. 
    All of the following pertain to coccidioidomycosis except
    • A. 

      The pathogen grows best in soil with bird and bat guano.

    • B. 

      It has highest incidence in the southwestern United States.

    • C. 

      It is transmitted by inhalation of arthrospores.

    • D. 

      It often has symptoms of fever, chest pain, cough, headache, malaise.

    • E. 

      It is also called Valley Fever.

  • 161. 
    Which is incorrect about Sporothrix schenckii?
    • A. 

      Is dimorphic

    • B. 

      Lives in the soil

    • C. 

      Often transmited by soil-contaminated thorns

    • D. 

      Causes superficial cutaneous infection

    • E. 

      Causes nodules along regional lymphatic channels

  • 162. 
    Mycetoma is
    • A. 

      A subcutaneous infection that looks like a tumor.

    • B. 

      Also called athlete's foot.

    • C. 

      Caused by dermatophytes.

    • D. 

      Only seen in the Midwest.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 163. 
    Dermatophytoses are
    • A. 

      Fungal infections of the skin, hair, and nails.

    • B. 

      Also called ringworm.

    • C. 

      Also called tineas.

    • D. 

      Often time-consuming to eradicate completely.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 164. 
    Which is mismatched?
    • A. 

      Tinea capitis - ringworm of the beard

    • B. 

      Tinea pedis - ringworm of the foot

    • C. 

      Tinea cruis - ringworm of the groin

    • D. 

      Tinea corporis - ringworm of the body

    • E. 

      Tinea unguium - ringworm of the nails

  • 165. 
    Transmission of tineas include
    • A. 

      Human to human

    • B. 

      Animal to human

    • C. 

      Soil to human

    • D. 

      Fomites to human

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 166. 
    Cryptococcus neoformans has the following characteristics except
    • A. 

      Commonly found in the human mouth, intestines, and genitalia

    • B. 

      A capsulated yeast

    • C. 

      In high numbers in soil containing pigeon droppings

    • D. 

      Usually enters body by inhalation

    • E. 

      Primarily infects patients with AIDS, cancer, and diabetes

  • 167. 
    Cryptococcosis can include
    • A. 

      Pulmonary infection.

    • B. 

      Septicemia.

    • C. 

      Meningitis.

    • D. 

      Bone infection.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 168. 
    Oral thrush is caused by
    • A. 

      Cryptococcus neoformans.

    • B. 

      Candida albicans.

    • C. 

      Malassezia furfur.

    • D. 

      Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.

  • 169. 
    This opportunist is the most frequent cause of life-threatening pneumonia in AIDS patients:
    • A. 

      Cryptococcus neoformans

    • B. 

      Candida albicans

    • C. 

      Malassezia furfur

    • D. 

      Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.

  • 170. 
    Aspergillosis includes all the following except
    • A. 

      There are no effective drugs to treat the infection.

    • B. 

      Noninvasive infections of the eyelids, sinuses, conjunctiva, and ear canals.

    • C. 

      A pneumonia that disseminates to the brain.

    • D. 

      Most cases are due to A. fumigatus.

    • E. 

      Life-threatening infections in AIDS, leukemia, and transplant patients.

  • 171. 
    Decaying vegetation, such as piles of leaves and compost heaps, allows growth and transmission of
    • A. 

      Cryptococcus.

    • B. 

      Aspergillus.

    • C. 

      Candida.

    • D. 

      Dermatophytes.

    • E. 

      Pneumocytis.

  • 172. 
    This organism commonly contaminates grains, corn, and peanuts and produces a potent mycotoxin called aflatoxin:
    • A. 

      Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci

    • B. 

      Fusarium species

    • C. 

      Rhizopus species

    • D. 

      Geotrichum candidum

    • E. 

      Aspergillus flavis

  • 173. 
    Menthol and camphor (Vicks™) are effective treatments against
    • A. 

      Chromoblastomycosis.

    • B. 

      Ringworm.

    • C. 

      Histoplasmosis.

    • D. 

      Tinea versicolor.

    • E. 

      Blastomycosis.

  • 174. 
    All of the following areas are subject to inertriginous infections except
    • A. 

      Between folds of the groin.

    • B. 

      Under breasts.

    • C. 

      In the armpit.

    • D. 

      Behind the knees.

    • E. 

      Chest.

  • 175. 
    All of the following pertain to monkeypox except
    • A. 

      Symptoms include skin pocks, fever, and swollen lymph nodes.

    • B. 

      Outbreaks have occurred in Africa.

    • C. 

      Transmission is typically by contact with monkeys, squirrels, and rats.

    • D. 

      A recent U.S. outbreak involved pet prairie dogs infected by an African rat.

    • E. 

      The virus has shown a trend in becoming less virulent, with fewer outbreaks in humans.

  • 176. 
    All of the following pertain to herpes simplex-1 (HSV-1) except
    • A. 

      It causes gingivostomatitis.

    • B. 

      It causes cold sores and herpes keratitis.

    • C. 

      It is latent in the lumbosacral spinal nerve ganglia.

    • D. 

      It is transmitted by mucous membrane contact with lesions.

    • E. 

      It causes herpetic whitlow in health-care workers.

  • 177. 
    Herpes simplex-2 (HSV-2) causes
    • A. 

      Genital lesions.

    • B. 

      Intensely sensitive vesicles on or near the genitals.

    • C. 

      Symptoms that include urethritis, cervicitis, and itching.

    • D. 

      Infection in neonates that have contact with lesions in the birth canal.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 178. 
    Chickenpox
    • A. 

      Is transmitted by inhalation of respiratory secretions.

    • B. 

      Is transmitted by skin lesion contact or airborne spread of lesion material.

    • C. 

      Has an incubation of 10 to 20 days.

    • D. 

      Has fever, and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 179. 
    Herpes whitlow is a deep set herpes simplex virus infection of the
    • A. 

      Nasal mucosa.

    • B. 

      Finger.

    • C. 

      Oral mucosa and tongue.

    • D. 

      Eye.

    • E. 

      Newborn.

  • 180. 
    Varicella-zoster virus
    • A. 

      Uses the respiratory epithelium as its portal of entry.

    • B. 

      Becomes latent in dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes.

    • C. 

      Has humans as its reservoir.

    • D. 

      Causes chickenpox and shingles.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 181. 
    Symptoms of infectious mononucleosis include
    • A. 

      Vesicular lesions in oral mucosa.

    • B. 

      Fever, and pocks on skin.

    • C. 

      Sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly.

    • D. 

      Fever, severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis and retinitis.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.

  • 182. 
    Cytomegalovirus
    • A. 

      Is among the most common of human infections.

    • B. 

      Is transmitted by saliva, respiratory mucus, milk, urine, semen, and cervical secretions.

    • C. 

      Can be sexually transmitted.

    • D. 

      Is commonly carried in the latent state.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 183. 
    Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) has the following characteristics except
    • A. 

      It replicates in T lymphocytes, macrophages, and salivary gland tissue.

    • B. 

      It causes roseola in infants.

    • C. 

      It appears as a mononucleosis-like illness in adults.

    • D. 

      It causes Kaposi's sarcoma.

    • E. 

      It is transmitted by saliva.

  • 184. 
    The hepadnaviruses
    • A. 

      Include the adenoviruses.

    • B. 

      Show tropism for the liver.

    • C. 

      Are transmitted by respiratory secretions.

    • D. 

      Are nonenveloped, double-stranded DNA viruses.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 185. 
    Inflammation of the liver with necrosis of the hepatocytes and swelling due to a mononuclear response is a disease called
    • A. 

      Hepatitis.

    • B. 

      Jaundice.

    • C. 

      Liver cancer.

    • D. 

      Mononucleosis.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct

  • 186. 
    Adenoviruses are
    • A. 

      Nonenveloped, double-stranded, DNA viruses.

    • B. 

      Transmitted by respiratory and ocular secretions.

    • C. 

      Causes of conjunctivitis, common cold, and an acute hemorrhagic cystitis in children.

    • D. 

      Causes of outbreaks among military recruits.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 187. 
    Which is incorrect about warts?
    • A. 

      Caused by human papillomaviruses (HPV)

    • B. 

      Are transmitted by direct contact or fomites

    • C. 

      Include deep plantar warts of soles of the feet

    • D. 

      Are frequently cancerous

    • E. 

      Freezing and laser surgery can be used for removal

  • 188. 
    Polyomaviruses
    • A. 

      Cause common asymptomatic to mild infections.

    • B. 

      Cause progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy.

    • C. 

      Cause problems in renal transplant patients.

    • D. 

      Include the JC virus and BK virus.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 189. 
    Which is incorrect about Parvoviruses?
    • A. 

      Cause several diseases in dogs, cats, and other mammals

    • B. 

      Are extremely small in diameter

    • C. 

      It is not transmissible to the fetus

    • D. 

      It causes a disease known as fifth disease

    • E. 

      Parvovirus B19 causes erythema infectiosum

  • 190. 
    Fifth disease
    • A. 

      Is caused by Parvovirus B19.

    • B. 

      Is a childhood febrile disease with a bright red rash on the cheeks.

    • C. 

      Involves pathogen capable of crossing the placenta.

    • D. 

      In immunodeficient children, destroys red blood cell stem cells.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 191. 
    Which of the following are ways to control or treat hepatitis B?
    • A. 

      Recombinant interferon

    • B. 

      Heptavax vaccine

    • C. 

      Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG)

    • D. 

      Recombivax vaccine

    • E. 

      All of the choices may be recommended.

  • 192. 
    The enzyme associated with the influenza virus that hydrolyzes the protective mucous coating of the respiratory tract is
    • A. 

      Catalase.

    • B. 

      Reverse transcriptase.

    • C. 

      Hyaluronidase.

    • D. 

      Neuraminidase.

    • E. 

      Kinase.

  • 193. 
    Inhalation of respiratory secretions is involved in the transmission of the following except
    • A. 

      Influenza.

    • B. 

      Rubella.

    • C. 

      Dengue fever.

    • D. 

      Mumps.

    • E. 

      SARS.

  • 194. 
    Reye's syndrome involves
    • A. 

      Aspirin use.

    • B. 

      A febrile viral illness such as influenza or chickenpox.

    • C. 

      Fatty degeneration of liver, brain, kidney.

    • D. 

      Children, adolescents, and young adults.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 195. 
    Influenza vaccines include all the following except
    • A. 

      Inactivated intramuscular vaccine.

    • B. 

      Usually incorporates three different strains.

    • C. 

      Attenuated, nasal drops vaccine.

    • D. 

      Provides lifelong immunity.

    • E. 

      Guillain-Barré syndrome is a postvaccination neurological complication.

  • 196. 
    Sin Nombre hantavirus has all the following characteristics except
    • A. 

      Reservoir is human carriers

    • B. 

      Is a zoonosis

    • C. 

      Symptoms are abrupt fever, lung edema, respiratory distress, and hypotension

    • D. 

      Transmitted by aerosol transmission from rodent excreta

    • E. 

      First U.S. outbreak occurred in 1993 in the Southwest

  • 197. 
    Parainfluenza virus
    • A. 

      Usually infects the elderly.

    • B. 

      Is in the Orthomyxovirus family.

    • C. 

      Causes influenza.

    • D. 

      Causes croup, bronchitis, and bronchopneumonia

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 198. 
    Orchitis and epididymitis is seen in young adult males as a complication of
    • A. 

      Croup.

    • B. 

      Mumps.

    • C. 

      Influenza.

    • D. 

      Measles (rubeola).

    • E. 

      Rubella.

  • 199. 
    Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with
    • A. 

      Croup.

    • B. 

      Mumps.

    • C. 

      Influenza.

    • D. 

      Measles (rubeola).

    • E. 

      Rubella.

  • 200. 
    This infection is marked by labored, noisy breathing and a hoarse cough:
    • A. 

      Croup

    • B. 

      Mumps

    • C. 

      Influenza

    • D. 

      Measles (rubeola)

    • E. 

      Rubella

  • 201. 
    This febrile disease with a rash has a pathogen that can cross the placenta and cause serious fetal damage:
    • A. 

      Croup

    • B. 

      Mumps

    • C. 

      Influenza

    • D. 

      Measles (rubeola)

    • E. 

      Rubella

  • 202. 
    Respiratory syncytial virus (Pneumovirus)
    • A. 

      Causes serious disease in infants 6 months old or younger.

    • B. 

      Uses the nasopharynx as its main replication site.

    • C. 

      Can be treated with the antiviral aerosol Ribavirin.

    • D. 

      Synagis and RSV immunoglobulin help reduce complications and hospitalization.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 203. 
    Which is incorrect about rabies?
    • A. 

      Is a zoonotic disease

    • B. 

      Wild populations of bats, skunks, raccoons, cats, and canines are primary reservoirs

    • C. 

      Transmission can involve bites, scratches, and inhalation

    • D. 

      Average incubation in human is 1 week

    • E. 

      Symptoms include anxiety, agitation, muscle spasms, convulsions, paralysis

  • 204. 
    Treatment of an animal bite for possible rabies includes
    • A. 

      Debridement.

    • B. 

      Wash bite with soap or detergent.

    • C. 

      Wound is infused with human rabies immune globulin (HRIG).

    • D. 

      Postexposure vaccination with HDCV.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 205. 
    Coronaviruses cause
    • A. 

      Fever, rash, nasal discharge.

    • B. 

      Meningitis.

    • C. 

      Measles.

    • D. 

      Croup.

    • E. 

      Common cold and SARS.

  • 206. 
    Sudden acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)
    • A. 

      Can cause high fever, pneumonia, respiratory distress.

    • B. 

      Began with an initial outbreak in the United States and then spread to Canada and China.

    • C. 

      Is caused by the respiratory syncytial virus.

    • D. 

      Is not highly transmissible.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 207. 
    Retroviruses have the following characteristics except
    • A. 

      Glycoprotein spikes.

    • B. 

      DNA genome.

    • C. 

      Envelope.

    • D. 

      Reverse transcriptase.

    • E. 

      Viral genes integrate into the host genome.

  • 208. 
    All of the following pertain to patients with AIDS except:
    • A. 

      Have an immunodeficiency

    • B. 

      Have CD4 T-cell titers below 200 cells/mm³ of blood

    • C. 

      Get repeated, life-threatening opportunistic infections

    • D. 

      Can get unusual cancers and neurological disorders

    • E. 

      Highest number of cases worldwide is in the United States

  • 209. 
    Documented transmission of HIV involves
    • A. 

      Mosquitoes.

    • B. 

      Unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products.

    • C. 

      Respiratory droplets.

    • D. 

      Contaminated food.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 210. 
    Which drug/s interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus?
    • A. 

      Reverse transcriptase inhibitors

    • B. 

      Protease inhibitors

    • C. 

      Fusion inhibitors

    • D. 

      Integrase inhibitors

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.