Medical Materiel - 4a151 CDC - Version B

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To prepare for 4A151 CDC test. Version B.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which is a goal of the TRICARE program?

    • A.

      Improve force health protection and medical readiness.

    • B.

      Designate regional health service area and lead agents.

    • C.

      Central oversight with local accountability and execution.

    • D.

      Achieve effective use of information systems.

    Correct Answer
    A. Improve force health protection and medical readiness.
    Explanation
    The goal of the TRICARE program is to improve force health protection and medical readiness. This means that the program aims to enhance the health and well-being of military personnel and ensure that they are medically prepared to fulfill their duties. By providing access to quality healthcare services and promoting preventive measures, TRICARE aims to optimize the overall health and readiness of the military force.

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  • 2. 

    How is the TRICARE program structured, and who administers the program?

    • A.

      Regionally by MTF commander.

    • B.

      Branch of service by MTF commander.

    • C.

      Branch of service by lead agent.

    • D.

      Regionally by lead agent.

    Correct Answer
    D. Regionally by lead agent.
    Explanation
    The TRICARE program is structured regionally, meaning that it is divided into different regions across the United States. Each region is administered by a lead agent, who is responsible for overseeing the program and ensuring that it operates effectively within their designated region. This structure allows for more efficient management and coordination of healthcare services for eligible beneficiaries.

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  • 3. 

    Which is an example of how DMLSS supports the TRICARE effort?

    • A.

      Renders the capability to procure and manage supplies and equipment.

    • B.

      Develops, executes, and anually updates a regional health services plan.

    • C.

      Manages regional business.

    • D.

      Marketing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Renders the capability to procure and manage supplies and equipment.
    Explanation
    DMLSS (Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support) supports the TRICARE effort by providing the capability to procure and manage supplies and equipment. This means that DMLSS helps in the process of acquiring necessary medical supplies and equipment and also helps in managing them efficiently. This support is crucial for the smooth functioning of TRICARE, which is the healthcare program for uniformed service members, retirees, and their families.

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  • 4. 

    What activity acts as the POC for formal user tests of medical supplies?

    • A.

      MAJCOM.

    • B.

      Defense Logistics Agency.

    • C.

      Air Force Medical Support Agency.

    • D.

      Air Force Medical Logistics Office.

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Medical Support Agency.
    Explanation
    The Air Force Medical Support Agency serves as the POC (Point of Contact) for formal user tests of medical supplies. This means that they are responsible for coordinating and conducting the testing of medical supplies within the Air Force. They likely work closely with other organizations, such as the Defense Logistics Agency and the Air Force Medical Logistics Office, to ensure that medical supplies meet the necessary standards and requirements.

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  • 5. 

    Who coordinates activity on PWS?

    • A.

      Air Force Medical Support Agency.

    • B.

      Air Force Medical Logistics Office.

    • C.

      Defense Supply Center Philadelphia.

    • D.

      MAJCOM surgeon.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Medical Support Agency.
    Explanation
    The Air Force Medical Support Agency is responsible for coordinating activity on PWS. This agency oversees and manages medical support operations within the Air Force, ensuring that all medical activities are coordinated effectively and efficiently. They work closely with other medical organizations and units to ensure the delivery of quality healthcare services to Air Force personnel.

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  • 6. 

    Which DFAS center primarily serves the Air Force?

    • A.

      Cleveland, OH.

    • B.

      Indianapolis, IN.

    • C.

      Kansas City, MO.

    • D.

      Denver, CO.

    Correct Answer
    D. Denver, CO.
    Explanation
    Denver, CO primarily serves the Air Force because it is home to the Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) Denver Center. This center is responsible for providing finance and accounting services to the Air Force, including payroll, travel payments, and vendor payments. Therefore, Denver, CO is the correct answer as it houses the DFAS center that serves the Air Force.

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  • 7. 

    With what activity does medical logistics coordinate cost center record updates?

    • A.

      DFAS/Financial Services Office.

    • B.

      Air Force Medical Support Agency.

    • C.

      MAJCOM surgeon.

    • D.

      Base contracting officer.

    Correct Answer
    A. DFAS/Financial Services Office.
    Explanation
    Medical logistics coordinates cost center record updates with the DFAS/Financial Services Office. This office is responsible for managing financial transactions and records for the organization. By coordinating with this office, medical logistics can ensure that their cost center records are accurate and up to date. This collaboration helps in maintaining financial transparency and accountability within the organization.

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  • 8. 

    What support agency is responsible for defining the functional requirements for the DMLSS AIS?

    • A.

      AFMSA.

    • B.

      AFMLO.

    • C.

      HQ SSG.

    • D.

      JMLFDC.

    Correct Answer
    D. JMLFDC.
    Explanation
    The Joint Medical Logistics Functional Development Center (JMLFDC) is responsible for defining the functional requirements for the Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support (DMLSS) Automated Information System (AIS). This agency plays a crucial role in ensuring that the DMLSS AIS meets the specific needs and requirements of the medical logistics community.

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  • 9. 

    Which is a criterion of the DMLSS system?

    • A.

      DMLSS is built to function properly with any operating system.

    • B.

      Business Objects program files are defined as optional software for DMLSS.

    • C.

      DMLSS requires the user to obtain a Windows based PC to run portions of the applications.

    • D.

      DAC does not allow the user to manipulate settings for the printer.

    Correct Answer
    C. DMLSS requires the user to obtain a Windows based PC to run portions of the applications.
    Explanation
    The criterion of the DMLSS system is that the user needs to have a Windows based PC in order to run certain parts of the applications. This means that the system is not compatible with other operating systems and requires a specific type of computer to function properly.

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  • 10. 

    In DMLSS, what database(s) contain read-only catalog information that updates monthly by the DLIS?

    • A.

      DMLSS database.

    • B.

      DMLSS Tutorial database.

    • C.

      DMLSS Master Catalog/UDR database.

    • D.

      Both the DMLSS database and the Master Catalog/UDR database.

    Correct Answer
    C. DMLSS Master Catalog/UDR database.
    Explanation
    The DMLSS Master Catalog/UDR database contains read-only catalog information that updates monthly by the DLIS. This database is specifically designed to store and provide access to the master catalog and UDR (Uniform Data Repository) information, which includes detailed information about supplies, equipment, and other items managed by DMLSS. The other options, such as the DMLSS database and the DMLSS Tutorial database, do not specifically mention containing read-only catalog information that updates monthly by the DLIS. Therefore, the correct answer is the DMLSS Master Catalog/UDR database.

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  • 11. 

    In DMLSS, what does a system user account consist of?

    • A.

      User ID only.

    • B.

      User password only.

    • C.

      User ID and password only.

    • D.

      Name, user ID, and password.

    Correct Answer
    C. User ID and password only.
    Explanation
    A system user account in DMLSS consists of a user ID and password only. This means that to access the system, users need to provide their unique user ID and corresponding password. Other information such as the user's name is not required for the account.

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  • 12. 

    What DMLSS security term describes a security concept that enables the owner of an object (file, module, or report) to control which subject (user, program) has what form of access to the object?

    • A.

      Accountability.

    • B.

      Transmission security.

    • C.

      Discretionary access control.

    • D.

      Identification and authentication.

    Correct Answer
    C. Discretionary access control.
    Explanation
    Discretionary access control is the correct answer because it refers to the security concept that allows the owner of an object to determine and control the access rights for that object. It enables the owner to decide which users or programs can access the object and what level of access they have. This concept provides flexibility and allows for customization of access permissions based on the owner's discretion.

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  • 13. 

    The majority of the DMLSS system users are assigned user privileges referred to as

    • A.

      Application administrators.

    • B.

      System administrators.

    • C.

      Client person computer users.

    • D.

      Logistics users.

    Correct Answer
    D. Logistics users.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "logistics users." In the context of the DMLSS system, logistics users are the majority of the system users who are assigned user privileges. These users are responsible for managing and overseeing the logistics aspects of the system, which involves tasks such as inventory management, supply chain management, and distribution of resources. They are not application administrators, system administrators, or client personal computer users, as their role is specifically focused on logistics operations within the system.

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  • 14. 

    What source of supply (SOS) catalog record or records does Defense Medical Logistics Standard (DMLSS) automatically build?

    • A.

      ECAT.

    • B.

      Prime vendor.

    • C.

      DLA and GSA.

    • D.

      Blanket purchase agreement.

    Correct Answer
    B. Prime vendor.
    Explanation
    DMLSS automatically builds the source of supply (SOS) catalog record or records for the prime vendor.

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  • 15. 

    What Defense Medical Logistics Standard (DMLSS) catalog is a daily or periodic shopping guide for supply custodians?

    • A.

      MTF catalog.

    • B.

      SOS catalog.

    • C.

      LOG catalog.

    • D.

      Customer catalog.

    Correct Answer
    D. Customer catalog.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Customer catalog." The Defense Medical Logistics Standard (DMLSS) catalog serves as a daily or periodic shopping guide for supply custodians, helping them to identify and order the necessary medical supplies and equipment for their customers. The customer catalog provides a comprehensive list of items available for purchase, allowing custodians to efficiently manage and fulfill the needs of their customers.

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  • 16. 

    Which catalog is the foundation of the order life cycle?

    • A.

      MTF.

    • B.

      LOG.

    • C.

      SOS.

    • D.

      Customer.

    Correct Answer
    D. Customer.
    Explanation
    The foundation of the order life cycle is the customer. The order life cycle begins with the customer placing an order and ends with the customer receiving the product or service. Without the customer, there would be no orders to process or fulfill. The other options listed (MTF, LOG, SOS) do not directly relate to the order life cycle and are therefore not the correct answer.

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  • 17. 

    The estimated monthly usage field is used to help calculate a level when there is less than

    • A.

      3 months of issue history.

    • B.

      6 months of issue history.

    • C.

      9 months of issue history.

    • D.

      12 months of issue history.

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 months of issue history.
    Explanation
    The estimated monthly usage field is used to calculate a level when there is less than 3 months of issue history. This means that if there is not enough data available from the past 3 months, the estimated monthly usage field will be used to make a calculation or prediction.

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  • 18. 

    Which level types are automatically adjusted each month by Customer Area Inventory Management (CAIM) using demand history to determine the appropriate level?

    • A.

      Core.

    • B.

      Static.

    • C.

      Nonstocked.

    • D.

      Wilson's EOQ.

    Correct Answer
    A. Core.
    Explanation
    Customer Area Inventory Management (CAIM) automatically adjusts the core level types each month using demand history to determine the appropriate level. The core level types are the essential inventory items that are consistently in demand and need to be replenished regularly. By analyzing the demand history, CAIM can accurately adjust the core inventory levels to ensure that there is enough stock to meet customer demand without overstocking. This helps optimize inventory management and ensures that the core items are always available for customers.

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  • 19. 

    What is the initial result of a Customer Area Inventory Management (CAIM) request being sent to the Inventory Management (IM) application?

    • A.

      CAIM due-out is created.

    • B.

      CAIM due-in is created.

    • C.

      LOG due-out is created.

    • D.

      LOG due-in is created.

    Correct Answer
    C. LOG due-out is created.
    Explanation
    When a Customer Area Inventory Management (CAIM) request is sent to the Inventory Management (IM) application, the initial result is that a LOG due-out is created. This means that the request is logged as a due-out, indicating that the requested item needs to be taken out of inventory and provided to the customer.

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  • 20. 

    What is the first step taken in Customer Area Inventory Management (CAIM) toward obtaining new or replenishment stock?

    • A.

      CAIM due-out is created.

    • B.

      CAIM due-in is created.

    • C.

      LOG due-out is created.

    • D.

      LOG due-in is created.

    Correct Answer
    A. CAIM due-out is created.
    Explanation
    The first step taken in Customer Area Inventory Management (CAIM) toward obtaining new or replenishment stock is creating a CAIM due-out. This means that a request is made to the inventory management system to take stock out of the customer area inventory. This step is crucial as it initiates the process of replenishing the stock and ensures that the inventory levels are maintained effectively.

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  • 21. 

    Which Customer Area Inventory Management (CAIM) inventory method or methods result in an order for the exact quantities that the user entered into the hand-held terminal (HHT)/personal data assistant (PDA)?

    • A.

      Order quantity.

    • B.

      Empty shelf.

    • C.

      Shelf count.

    • D.

      All methods.

    Correct Answer
    A. Order quantity.
    Explanation
    The Order quantity method in Customer Area Inventory Management (CAIM) results in an order for the exact quantities that the user entered into the hand-held terminal (HHT)/personal data assistant (PDA). This means that the system will generate an order based on the specific quantities specified by the user, ensuring that the exact amounts are replenished. The other methods, such as Empty shelf and Shelf count, may not necessarily result in orders for the exact quantities entered by the user.

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  • 22. 

    If you are using the empty shelf inventory method in Customer Area Inventory Management (CAIM), what quantity is entered into the hand-held terminal (HHT)/personal data assistant (PDA)?

    • A.

      Enter the level quantity.

    • B.

      Enter the quantity you want to order.

    • C.

      You do not enter a quantity with this method.

    • D.

      Count the items on the shelf and enter that number.

    Correct Answer
    C. You do not enter a quantity with this method.
    Explanation
    In the empty shelf inventory method in Customer Area Inventory Management (CAIM), you do not enter a quantity with this method. This means that when using the hand-held terminal (HHT)/personal data assistant (PDA), you do not need to input any specific quantity. Instead, the method focuses on counting the items on the shelf and updating the inventory accordingly. This allows for accurate tracking of inventory levels without the need to manually enter quantities.

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  • 23. 

    What Defense Medical Logistics Standard (DMLSS) module checks for funds and deleted items prior to sending the order?

    • A.

      LOG Issues.

    • B.

      Source of Supply (SOS).

    • C.

      Replenishment Inventories.

    • D.

      Build/Process/Submit (BPS) Orders.

    Correct Answer
    D. Build/Process/Submit (BPS) Orders.
    Explanation
    The Build/Process/Submit (BPS) Orders module in Defense Medical Logistics Standard (DMLSS) checks for funds and deleted items prior to sending the order. This module ensures that there are sufficient funds available for the order and that any deleted items are not included in the order. By performing these checks, the BPS Orders module helps to ensure that the order is accurate and that the necessary funds are available for procurement.

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  • 24. 

    What information is contained in the upper half of the BUILD ORDERS: ORDER SUMMARY window?

    • A.

      Total values.

    • B.

      Commitments.

    • C.

      Available balances.

    • D.

      Elements of resource.

    Correct Answer
    A. Total values.
    Explanation
    The upper half of the BUILD ORDERS: ORDER SUMMARY window contains information about the total values of the orders. This includes the total cost, quantity, or any other relevant values associated with the orders. It does not include information about commitments, available balances, or elements of resource.

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  • 25. 

    Items with exceptions (errors) to the order are identified in the ORDER DETAIL window by

    • A.

      An X to the left of the detail record.

    • B.

      An E to the right of the detail record.

    • C.

      A message to adjust minimum order amounts.

    • D.

      A message to adjust maximum order amounts.

    Correct Answer
    A. An X to the left of the detail record.
    Explanation
    In the ORDER DETAIL window, items with exceptions (errors) to the order are identified by an X to the left of the detail record. This means that if there is any issue or error with a particular item in the order, an X mark will be displayed to the left of that item's detail record. This helps the user easily identify and locate the items that have exceptions or errors and take appropriate action to resolve them.

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  • 26. 

    What code is used to rank materiel requirements in the proper order?

    • A.

      Priority.

    • B.

      Urgency of need.

    • C.

      Acquisition advice.

    • D.

      Force/Activity designator.

    Correct Answer
    A. Priority.
    Explanation
    The code used to rank material requirements in the proper order is "Priority". This means that the importance or urgency of each requirement is assessed and assigned a priority level, allowing for a systematic approach to fulfilling the most critical needs first. The other options listed (Urgency of need, Acquisition advice, Force/Activity designator) do not specifically refer to the ranking or ordering of material requirements.

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  • 27. 

    What Force/Activity designator code is the highest authorized?

    • A.

      I.

    • B.

      II.

    • C.

      III.

    • D.

      IV.

    Correct Answer
    A. I.
    Explanation
    The highest authorized Force/Activity designator code is I.

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  • 28. 

    What urgency of need designator(s) identifies a requirement condition of "cannot perform mission or required for patient care but no stock on hand"?

    • A.

      B and C.

    • B.

      B only.

    • C.

      A and B.

    • D.

      A only.

    Correct Answer
    D. A only.
    Explanation
    The urgency of need designator "A" identifies a requirement condition where the item is required for patient care but there is no stock on hand. This means that there is a critical need for the item in order to provide necessary medical treatment or care to patients, but currently there is no available stock of the item. Therefore, the correct answer is A only.

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  • 29. 

    What priority designator should be used at an overseas materiel account to requisition expiration dated items with short-life (6 months or less) for immediate needs or stockage objectives?

    • A.

      01.

    • B.

      03.

    • C.

      08.

    • D.

      15.

    Correct Answer
    B. 03.
    Explanation
    Priority designator 03 should be used at an overseas materiel account to requisition expiration dated items with short-life (6 months or less) for immediate needs or stockage objectives. This priority designator indicates that the requisition is urgent and must be fulfilled as soon as possible. It ensures that the items are given priority over other requests and are promptly delivered to meet the immediate needs or stockage objectives.

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  • 30. 

    What option or options are available to the originator of a new item request (NIR) if his or her request was disapproved?

    • A.

      Delete the request only.

    • B.

      Modify and resubmit only.

    • C.

      Modify and resubmit, or delete the request.

    • D.

      DMLSS does not return disapproved requests to the originator.

    Correct Answer
    C. Modify and resubmit, or delete the request.
    Explanation
    If a new item request (NIR) is disapproved, the originator has the option to either modify and resubmit the request or delete it. This means that they can make necessary changes to the request and submit it again for approval, or they can choose to abandon the request altogether by deleting it. The system does not automatically return disapproved requests to the originator, so they must take action to either modify or delete the request.

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  • 31. 

    Who can clear the new item request (NIR) status or delete the request from Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support (DMLSS)?

    • A.

      Authorized approval authority only.

    • B.

      Authorized approval authority and the originator.

    • C.

      The originator only.

    • D.

      The originator and the authorized Logistics authority.

    Correct Answer
    C. The originator only.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "The originator only." This means that only the person who created the new item request (NIR) can clear the status or delete the request from Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support (DMLSS). No other individuals, including authorized approval authority or logistics authority, have the ability to perform these actions.

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  • 32. 

    What is the name of the list that displays all new item requests (NIR) that have a common customer ID, expense center, manufacturer name, and are associated with the user ID that is logged into the system?

    • A.

      Source Document Control Report.

    • B.

      Pending Issue Research Report.

    • C.

      NIR continuation sheet.

    • D.

      NIR summary.

    Correct Answer
    D. NIR summary.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is NIR summary. This is because the NIR summary is the list that displays all new item requests (NIR) that have a common customer ID, expense center, manufacturer name, and are associated with the user ID that is logged into the system. The other options, such as the Source Document Control Report, Pending Issue Research Report, and NIR continuation sheet, do not fulfill all the given criteria.

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  • 33. 

    Which items fall under the provisional exception for centally managed (AAC D) items restricted from local purchase?

    • A.

      Items with a line item value of $25,000 or less.

    • B.

      Items for war reserve or war mission.

    • C.

      Items to support the industrial base.

    • D.

      Items for unit deployment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Items with a line item value of $25,000 or less.
    Explanation
    The provisional exception for centrally managed (AAC D) items restricted from local purchase includes items with a line item value of $25,000 or less. This means that any items with a value equal to or below $25,000 can be locally purchased, despite being centrally managed and restricted. The other options listed, such as items for war reserve or war mission, items to support the industrial base, and items for unit deployment, do not fall under this provisional exception.

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  • 34. 

    Overseas accounts may local purchase non-US origin drugs and biologicals when

    • A.

      Depot item is on back order and directed by the pharmacist.

    • B.

      Cost savings for such purchases exceed 25 percent of US prices.

    • C.

      Such action is approved for local purchase by the base dental surgeon.

    • D.

      Such action is approved by the MTF commander and needed to meet an emergency requirement.

    Correct Answer
    D. Such action is approved by the MTF commander and needed to meet an emergency requirement.
    Explanation
    When a depot item is on back order and directed by the pharmacist, overseas accounts may locally purchase non-US origin drugs and biologicals. However, this can only be done if such action is approved by the MTF commander and is needed to meet an emergency requirement. This means that in urgent situations where there is a shortage of a specific item, the MTF commander has the authority to approve the purchase of non-US origin drugs and biologicals to ensure that the necessary medical supplies are available.

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  • 35. 

    What action does Medical Logistics take after the bioenvironmental engineer (BEE) has determined that a requested item is hazardous?

    • A.

      Refers the requester to the base hazardous material pharmacy (HMP).

    • B.

      Sends the requesting activity a reply stating the request is disapproved.

    • C.

      Obtains a material safety data sheet and sets the Hazmat Code in the MTF catalog record to Y.

    • D.

      Obtains approval from the BEE and requisition the item.

    Correct Answer
    C. Obtains a material safety data sheet and sets the Hazmat Code in the MTF catalog record to Y.
    Explanation
    After the bioenvironmental engineer (BEE) has determined that a requested item is hazardous, Medical Logistics takes the action of obtaining a material safety data sheet and sets the Hazmat Code in the MTF catalog record to Y. This is done to ensure that proper safety measures are taken when handling and storing the hazardous item. The material safety data sheet provides detailed information about the hazards, handling procedures, and emergency response measures associated with the item. Setting the Hazmat Code in the catalog record helps in identifying and managing hazardous materials within the medical facility.

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  • 36. 

    Wing, group, and installation authorities must conduct OSHA surveys and inspections in all nonhigh-hazard work places at least once

    • A.

      A year.

    • B.

      A month.

    • C.

      Every four months.

    • D.

      Every six months.

    Correct Answer
    A. A year.
    Explanation
    Wing, group, and installation authorities are required to conduct OSHA surveys and inspections in all nonhigh-hazard workplaces at least once a year. This means that these authorities have to visit and assess these workplaces for compliance with OSHA regulations and ensure the safety of the employees and the work environment. Conducting these surveys and inspections annually allows for regular monitoring and identification of any potential hazards or violations that need to be addressed.

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  • 37. 

    To meet medical materiel AFOSH standards, what information must be clearly marked on medical supplies?

    • A.

      Drug administration.

    • B.

      Storage location.

    • C.

      Stock number/Item ID.

    • D.

      Item content.

    Correct Answer
    D. Item content.
    Explanation
    To meet medical materiel AFOSH standards, it is essential to clearly mark the item content on medical supplies. This ensures that healthcare professionals can easily identify the contents of each supply, enabling them to administer the correct medication or treatment to patients. This marking also helps in maintaining inventory and tracking the usage of medical supplies effectively.

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  • 38. 

    Which is the process of identifying and controlling hazards to protect the force?

    • A.

      ORM.

    • B.

      SST.

    • C.

      AFOSH.

    • D.

      OSHA.

    Correct Answer
    A. ORM.
    Explanation
    ORM stands for Operational Risk Management. It is the process of identifying and controlling hazards to protect the force. ORM is a systematic approach that involves assessing risks, making decisions, and implementing controls to mitigate those risks. By using ORM, organizations can effectively manage risks and ensure the safety and well-being of their personnel. SST (Safety Stand-Down Training), AFOSH (Air Force Occupational Safety and Health), and OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) are all related to safety and health, but they do not specifically address the process of identifying and controlling hazards like ORM does.

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  • 39. 

    What is the main point to remember when lifting a bulky item?

    • A.

      Do not bend your back.

    • B.

      Bend your back slightly.

    • C.

      Never lift any item alone.

    • D.

      Always lift with your arms.

    Correct Answer
    A. Do not bend your back.
    Explanation
    When lifting a bulky item, it is important to remember not to bend your back. Bending the back can put strain on the spine and increase the risk of injury. Instead, it is recommended to use the legs and hips to lift the item, keeping the back straight and using the strength of the lower body. This technique helps to distribute the weight evenly and reduce the risk of back strain or injury.

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  • 40. 

    What primary parts of the body should be used to lift bulky items?

    • A.

      Back and arms.

    • B.

      Back and legs.

    • C.

      Upper torso.

    • D.

      Legs only.

    Correct Answer
    D. Legs only.
    Explanation
    To lift bulky items, the primary parts of the body that should be used are the legs only. The legs are the strongest and largest muscles in the body, capable of providing the necessary power and stability to lift heavy objects. Lifting with the legs helps to distribute the weight evenly and reduces the strain on the back and arms, minimizing the risk of injury. Using the back and arms alone can lead to back strain or muscle sprains, while relying on the upper torso alone may not provide enough strength or stability.

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  • 41. 

    Which item should not be worn when manually handling materiel?

    • A.

      Goggles.

    • B.

      Gloves.

    • C.

      Eye protective gear.

    • D.

      Loosely fitting bracelets.

    Correct Answer
    D. Loosely fitting bracelets.
    Explanation
    Loosely fitting bracelets should not be worn when manually handling material because they can easily get caught in machinery or equipment, causing accidents and injuries. Wearing goggles, gloves, and eye protective gear is essential for protecting the eyes and hands from potential hazards such as flying debris, chemicals, or sharp objects. However, bracelets can pose a risk by getting entangled or snagged, hindering the worker's ability to handle materials safely. Therefore, it is important to remove or avoid wearing loosely fitting bracelets in order to minimize the risk of accidents and ensure a safe working environment.

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  • 42. 

    When using a knife to open a cardboard box, what direction should you cut?

    • A.

      Toward your body.

    • B.

      Away from your body.

    • C.

      Upward for better control.

    • D.

      Downward toward the floor.

    Correct Answer
    B. Away from your body.
    Explanation
    When using a knife to open a cardboard box, it is recommended to cut away from your body. This is because cutting towards your body increases the risk of accidentally cutting yourself. By cutting away from your body, you minimize the chances of injury and ensure a safer cutting process.

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  • 43. 

    One of the most effective ways to evaluate your safety program and prevent mishaps is to

    • A.

      Inspect your workers.

    • B.

      Observe your workers.

    • C.

      Identify safety problems.

    • D.

      Correct safety problems.

    Correct Answer
    B. Observe your workers.
    Explanation
    Observing your workers is one of the most effective ways to evaluate your safety program and prevent mishaps. By actively watching your workers, you can identify any unsafe behaviors or practices that may be occurring and take appropriate action to correct them. This allows you to address safety problems in real-time and make necessary adjustments to your safety program to ensure a safe working environment. Inspecting workers, identifying safety problems, and correcting safety problems are all important steps, but observing workers provides a proactive approach to prevent mishaps.

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  • 44. 

    As a general guideline, when should you report on-duty mishaps involving civilian personnel?

    • A.

      Immediately.

    • B.

      Next duty day.

    • C.

      Within 6 hours of the mishap.

    • D.

      Never. Mishaps involving civilian personnel are not reported.

    Correct Answer
    A. Immediately.
    Explanation
    When it comes to reporting on-duty mishaps involving civilian personnel, the correct answer is "Immediately." This means that any mishap or accident involving civilian personnel should be reported as soon as possible, without any delay. Reporting immediately allows for prompt action to be taken to address any injuries or damages, and it ensures that the incident is properly documented for further investigation or legal purposes. Delaying the reporting of a mishap could lead to complications and hinder the resolution of the situation.

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  • 45. 

    Which individual or individuals may be assigned the responsibility to establish a single point of control for the purchase and use of hazardous materials and ozone depleting substances?

    • A.

      Hazardous material pharmacy.

    • B.

      Medical logistics flight commander.

    • C.

      Hazardous matrerial generating activity.

    • D.

      Medical treatment facility commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hazardous material pharmacy.
    Explanation
    The responsibility to establish a single point of control for the purchase and use of hazardous materials and ozone depleting substances may be assigned to the Hazardous Material Pharmacy. This is because the pharmacy is responsible for handling and dispensing hazardous materials, ensuring their proper use, storage, and disposal. They have the expertise and knowledge to establish protocols and procedures for controlling these substances, ensuring the safety of individuals and the environment.

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  • 46. 

    Which is a centralized location where wastes from several activities are placed?

    • A.

      Accumulation point.

    • B.

      Accumulation site.

    • C.

      Point of generation.

    • D.

      Waste stream.

    Correct Answer
    B. Accumulation site.
    Explanation
    An accumulation site is a centralized location where wastes from several activities are placed. This site serves as a collection point for various types of waste generated from different sources. It allows for efficient management and disposal of waste materials, ensuring proper handling and minimizing environmental impact.

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  • 47. 

    Which is responsible for managing the hazardous waste management program at the base level?

    • A.

      Base environmental manager.

    • B.

      Hazardous material pharmacy.

    • C.

      Bioenvironmental engineering services.

    • D.

      Emergency planning and response team.

    Correct Answer
    A. Base environmental manager.
    Explanation
    The base environmental manager is responsible for managing the hazardous waste management program at the base level. This role involves overseeing the proper handling, storage, and disposal of hazardous materials to ensure compliance with regulations and minimize environmental impact. They work closely with other departments and teams, such as bioenvironmental engineering services and emergency planning and response teams, to coordinate and implement effective waste management practices. The hazardous material pharmacy may be involved in the storage and distribution of hazardous materials, but the base environmental manager has the overall responsibility for managing the program.

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  • 48. 

    The MLFC assists the BES in performing an initial and annual MTF HM/HW stream analysis by

    • A.

      Evaluating all spill clean-ups and plans.

    • B.

      Recommending proper disposal procedures.

    • C.

      Keeping a master file of MSDSs in electronic or paper form.

    • D.

      Providing a copy of the DMLSS hazardous material report.

    Correct Answer
    D. Providing a copy of the DMLSS hazardous material report.
    Explanation
    The MLFC assists the BES in performing an initial and annual MTF HM/HW stream analysis by providing a copy of the DMLSS hazardous material report. This means that the MLFC is responsible for supplying the BES with the necessary information and data from the DMLSS hazardous material report to analyze the MTF HM/HW stream. This report likely contains details about the hazardous materials and waste generated, which is crucial for conducting a thorough analysis and ensuring proper handling and disposal procedures are followed.

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  • 49. 

    What note code do you use to identify hazardous material?

    • A.

      H.

    • B.

      M.

    • C.

      R.

    • D.

      Q.

    Correct Answer
    A. H.
    Explanation
    The note code H is used to identify hazardous materials. This is commonly used in transportation and shipping to indicate that the material being transported is dangerous and requires special handling and precautions. The H note code helps to ensure that proper safety measures are taken to protect people and the environment from potential harm or accidents that could occur during transportation or storage of hazardous materials.

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  • 50. 

    Who should you contact to find out if a hazardous waste disposal contract currently exists for all base hazardous waste generators?

    • A.

      Hazardous material pharmacy.

    • B.

      Base environmental manager.

    • C.

      Medical treatment facility commander.

    • D.

      JCAHO.

    Correct Answer
    B. Base environmental manager.
    Explanation
    The base environmental manager is the appropriate person to contact in order to find out if a hazardous waste disposal contract currently exists for all base hazardous waste generators. This individual is responsible for overseeing environmental compliance and management at the base, including the handling and disposal of hazardous waste. They would have the necessary information regarding any existing contracts for hazardous waste disposal and would be able to provide the required information.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 24, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Pathomphone
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