Medical Assistant Readiness For The NCCT Test

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Medical Assistant Readiness For The NCCT Test - Quiz

Helps students understand and get ready for the end of the schooling big test given by NCCT. So have fun while taking this test while also learning tips.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The word itis means what?

    • A.

      Swelling

    • B.

      Darkening of the vessels

    • C.

      Inflammation of

    • D.

      Rupture of

    Correct Answer
    C. Inflammation of
    Explanation
    The word "itis" is a suffix commonly used in medical terminology to indicate inflammation of a specific organ or tissue. In this context, "itis" means inflammation of. This suffix is derived from the Greek word "itis," which also means inflammation. Therefore, the correct answer is "inflammation of."

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  • 2. 

    The normal hemocrit for a female is in between what percentile?

    • A.

      37% to 47%

    • B.

      10% to 20%

    • C.

      90% to 100%

    • D.

      40% to 52%

    Correct Answer
    A. 37% to 47%
    Explanation
    The normal hemocrit for a female is in between 37% to 47%. Hemocrit is a measure of the proportion of red blood cells in the blood. In females, a normal hemocrit level falls within this range, indicating a healthy amount of red blood cells.

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  • 3. 

    When doing documetation for the S.O.A.P method which order is correct?

    • A.

      Assessment, subjective, plan,and objective

    • B.

      Objective, subjective, plan, and Assessment

    • C.

      Subjective, Objective, Assessment, and plan

    • D.

      Subjective, Objective, Plan, and Assessment

    Correct Answer
    C. Subjective, Objective, Assessment, and plan
    Explanation
    The correct order for documentation in the SOAP method is subjective, objective, assessment, and plan. This order allows for a systematic approach to documenting patient information. The subjective section includes the patient's complaints and symptoms, the objective section includes measurable data such as vital signs and lab results, the assessment section includes the healthcare provider's professional judgment and diagnosis, and the plan section includes the proposed treatment and follow-up care. This order ensures that all relevant information is recorded accurately and in a logical sequence.

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  • 4. 

    When ordering test a CBC usually means what?

    • A.

      Complete breast count

    • B.

      Complete body count

    • C.

      Complete blood cavitys

    • D.

      Complete blood count

    Correct Answer
    D. Complete blood count
    Explanation
    A CBC, or complete blood count, is a common blood test that provides important information about the types and numbers of cells in the blood. It measures the levels of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, as well as other components such as hemoglobin and hematocrit. This test is used to evaluate overall health, diagnose various medical conditions, and monitor the effectiveness of treatments. Therefore, "complete blood count" is the correct answer as it accurately describes the purpose and meaning of a CBC test.

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  • 5. 

    Which term below stand for slow heart rate of less than 60 bpm?

    • A.

      Tachycardia

    • B.

      Abnormal heart rhythm

    • C.

      Bradycardia

    • D.

      Fibrillation

    Correct Answer
    C. Bradycardia
    Explanation
    Bradycardia is the correct answer because it refers to a slow heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute (bpm). Tachycardia, on the other hand, refers to a fast heart rate, abnormal heart rhythm is a broad term that can encompass various heart rate abnormalities, and fibrillation specifically refers to a rapid and irregular heart rhythm. Therefore, bradycardia is the term that specifically describes a slow heart rate, making it the correct answer to the question.

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  • 6. 

    The ................  is located in the lymphatic system? a.)Brain b.)lung c.)spleen d.)Blood

    Correct Answer
    spleen
    Explanation
    The spleen is located in the lymphatic system. It is an organ that plays a crucial role in the immune system by filtering the blood and removing old or damaged red blood cells. It also helps in the production of white blood cells and stores platelets. The lymphatic system is responsible for maintaining the body's fluid balance and fighting against infections, and the spleen is an integral part of this system.

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  • 7. 

    White blood cells do what? WBC

    • A.

      Prevent blood loss

    • B.

      Make up48% of the total blood

    • C.

      Destroy pathogens

    • D.

      Carry oxygen

    Correct Answer
    C. Destroy pathogens
    Explanation
    White blood cells, also known as leukocytes, are responsible for destroying pathogens in the body. They play a crucial role in the immune system by identifying and eliminating harmful bacteria, viruses, and other foreign substances. This process helps to protect the body from infections and diseases.

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  • 8. 

    Which suffix means "Cutting Into" or incision

    • A.

      Tome

    • B.

      Tomie

    • C.

      Tomy

    • D.

      Trophy

    Correct Answer
    C. Tomy
    Explanation
    The suffix "tomy" means "cutting into" or incision. It is commonly used in medical terms to indicate a surgical procedure involving cutting or incising a part of the body. Examples include tonsillectomy (surgical removal of the tonsils) and appendectomy (surgical removal of the appendix).

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following organizations mandates standard precautions?

    • A.

      CDC

    • B.

      WPM

    • C.

      OSHA

    • D.

      HIV

    Correct Answer
    C. OSHA
    Explanation
    OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) mandates standard precautions. OSHA is a federal agency in the United States that sets and enforces standards to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for employees. Standard precautions are a set of infection control practices designed to prevent the transmission of diseases in healthcare settings. These precautions include hand hygiene, use of personal protective equipment, safe injection practices, and proper handling and disposal of sharps. OSHA's role is to enforce these precautions to protect healthcare workers and prevent the spread of infections.

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  • 10. 

    The stage in the human life span denotes that children become skilled in language and motor abilties?

    • A.

      Infancy 1 o 2 years

    • B.

      Early childhood 3 to 6 years of age

    • C.

      Toddlerhood: 18 months to 3 years of age

    • D.

      Middle childhood: 6 to 12 years

    Correct Answer
    C. Toddlerhood: 18 months to 3 years of age
    Explanation
    During the stage of toddlerhood, which typically occurs between 18 months to 3 years of age, children start to become skilled in language and motor abilities. This is a crucial period of development where children begin to acquire vocabulary, learn to form sentences, and improve their communication skills. Additionally, they also develop their fine and gross motor skills, such as walking, running, climbing, and manipulating objects.

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  • 11. 

    OSHA  organization stands for what?

    • A.

      Occupational Safety and Health Aides

    • B.

      Oxyes squirrels and happy rabbits

    • C.

      Occupational Stages and Health Aides

    • D.

      Ocupational Safety and Health Administration

    Correct Answer
    D. Ocupational Safety and Health Administration
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Ocupational Safety and Health Administration". OSHA is a government agency in the United States that is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees. They enforce regulations and provide training and assistance to employers and workers to prevent workplace injuries, illnesses, and fatalities.

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  • 12. 

    What is the abbreviation for 2x a day?

    • A.

      QID

    • B.

      BIG

    • C.

      BID

    • D.

      HID

    Correct Answer
    C. BID
    Explanation
    BID is the correct abbreviation for "twice a day." It stands for "bis in die" in Latin, which means "twice a day" in English. This abbreviation is commonly used in medical prescriptions to indicate the frequency at which a medication should be taken.

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  • 13. 

    STAT in the medical field means what?

    • A.

      Now

    • B.

      Immediately

    • C.

      In a few

    • D.

      In a hour

    Correct Answer
    B. Immediately
    Explanation
    In the medical field, "STAT" is an abbreviation for "immediately." It is often used to indicate that a medical procedure or treatment needs to be done urgently, without any delay. This term is commonly used in emergency situations where prompt action is required to save a patient's life or prevent further complications.

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  • 14. 

    The database in the patient medical record history includes?

    • A.

      Family history

    • B.

      Social history

    • C.

      Initial laboratory findings

    • D.

      Review of systems

    Correct Answer
    C. Initial laboratory findings
    Explanation
    The database in the patient medical record history includes initial laboratory findings. This refers to the results of the first set of tests conducted on the patient to assess their health condition. These findings provide important information about the patient's baseline health, any existing medical conditions, and can help guide further diagnosis and treatment decisions. Family history, social history, and review of systems are also important components of a patient's medical record, but they are not specifically related to the initial laboratory findings.

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  • 15. 

    Which element in the patient history is relevant to heredity?

    • A.

      ROS

    • B.

      Family history

    • C.

      Chief complaint

    • D.

      Social history

    Correct Answer
    A. ROS
    Explanation
    The element in the patient history that is relevant to heredity is the family history. The family history provides information about any genetic conditions or diseases that may have been passed down through generations. It helps in understanding the patient's risk factors and potential genetic predispositions to certain illnesses. The ROS (Review of Systems) is a comprehensive assessment of the patient's symptoms and overall health, the chief complaint refers to the main reason for the patient's visit, and the social history provides information about the patient's lifestyle and habits.

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  • 16. 

    When using a capillary puncture device, the puncture must not penetrate more than?

    • A.

      4.0 mm in an adult

    • B.

      2.0 mm on an infant or child

    • C.

      1.0 mm on an inant or child

    • D.

      5.0 mm on an adult

    Correct Answer
    B. 2.0 mm on an infant or child
    Explanation
    When using a capillary puncture device, the puncture must not penetrate more than 2.0 mm on an infant or child. This is because their skin is thinner and more delicate compared to adults, so a deeper puncture could cause more pain, discomfort, or potential injury. Limiting the penetration depth to 2.0 mm ensures that the procedure is safe and minimizes the risk of complications.

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  • 17. 

    Documenting control sample results when performing certain laboratory test on a log is referred to as?

    • A.

      Quality assurance

    • B.

      CLIA testing

    • C.

      Quality control

    • D.

      Proficiency testing

    Correct Answer
    C. Quality control
    Explanation
    Documenting control sample results when performing certain laboratory tests on a log is referred to as quality control. Quality control involves monitoring and documenting the accuracy and precision of laboratory test results by analyzing control samples alongside patient samples. This helps to ensure the reliability and validity of the test results and allows for the identification and correction of any errors or inconsistencies in the testing process.

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  • 18. 

    Which collection method should be used for patients with delicate veins

    • A.

      Winged infusion set

    • B.

      Microhematocrit

    • C.

      Syringe method

    • D.

      Evacuation method

    Correct Answer
    C. Syringe method
    Explanation
    The syringe method should be used for patients with delicate veins because it allows for more control and precision during the collection process. Delicate veins can be easily damaged or collapsed, and using a syringe allows the healthcare professional to carefully draw blood without causing unnecessary trauma. This method also allows for smaller gauge needles to be used, which can be less painful for the patient. Additionally, the syringe method allows for better visualization of blood flow and can be more effective in collecting a sufficient sample from patients with delicate veins.

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  • 19. 

    Red and WBC and platelets ca be counted using a?

    • A.

      Refractometer

    • B.

      Hemocytometer

    • C.

      Chemistry analyzer

    • D.

      Reagent meter

    Correct Answer
    B. Hemocytometer
    Explanation
    A hemocytometer is a specialized laboratory tool used to count and measure the concentration of blood cells, including red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs), and platelets. It consists of a grid etched on a glass slide, which allows for accurate counting and calculation of cell numbers. A refractometer is used to measure the refractive index of a liquid, which is not applicable for counting blood cells. A chemistry analyzer is used to measure various chemical components in a sample, not cell counts. A reagent meter is not a commonly used tool in the context of counting blood cells.

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  • 20. 

    What is the recommended temperature setting when sterilizing items in the autoclave?

    • A.

      220f to 240f

    • B.

      250f to 270f

    • C.

      270f to 290f

    • D.

      200f to 220f

    Correct Answer
    B. 250f to 270f
    Explanation
    The recommended temperature setting when sterilizing items in the autoclave is between 250°F to 270°F. This temperature range is necessary to effectively kill microorganisms and ensure proper sterilization of the items. Higher temperatures may cause damage to the items being sterilized, while lower temperatures may not be sufficient to kill all the microorganisms. Therefore, maintaining a temperature within the range of 250°F to 270°F is crucial for successful sterilization.

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  • 21. 

    Which piece of equipment is used first when removing a cast?

    • A.

      Cast saw

    • B.

      Cast cutter

    • C.

      Cast spreader

    • D.

      Casting scissors

    Correct Answer
    B. Cast cutter
    Explanation
    A cast cutter is used first when removing a cast. This is because a cast cutter is specifically designed to safely and efficiently cut through the hard material of the cast without causing harm to the patient's skin or underlying tissues. Once the cast is cut, other tools like cast spreaders or casting scissors may be used to further remove the cast. However, the cast cutter is the initial and primary tool used in the cast removal process.

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  • 22. 

    A capillary tube should be disposed in what kind of instrument?

    • A.

      A sharps container

    • B.

      A sharp resistance biohazard container

    • C.

      A puncture resistant sharps container

    • D.

      Trash bin

    Correct Answer
    C. A puncture resistant sharps container
    Explanation
    A capillary tube should be disposed in a puncture resistant sharps container because capillary tubes are small and fragile, and they can easily break and cause injury if not handled properly. A puncture resistant sharps container is specifically designed to safely dispose of sharp objects like needles and tubes, reducing the risk of injury to healthcare workers and others who may come into contact with the waste.

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  • 23. 

    The position Lithotomy is usually used for what?

    • A.

      Pap smears and pelvic exams in women

    • B.

      Breast exams on woman

    • C.

      Gastric bypass on a man

    • D.

      Gstric bypass on a woman

    Correct Answer
    A. Pap smears and pelvic exams in women
    Explanation
    Lithotomy position is commonly used for pap smears and pelvic exams in women. This position involves the patient lying on their back with their feet in stirrups, allowing the healthcare provider easy access to the pelvic area. It provides a clear view of the external genitalia and facilitates the examination of the cervix and vagina. This position ensures patient comfort and allows for thorough examination and sample collection during pap smears and pelvic exams.

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  • 24. 

    Multidraw needle for veni puncture would be what kind of gauges?

    • A.

      20 to 30

    • B.

      19 to 23

    • C.

      21 to 23

    • D.

      16 to 24

    Correct Answer
    C. 21 to 23
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 21 to 23. A multidraw needle for venipuncture refers to a type of needle used to collect multiple blood samples from a single venipuncture site. The gauge of the needle determines its size, with a higher gauge indicating a smaller needle diameter. In this case, a gauge range of 21 to 23 is appropriate for a multidraw needle as it allows for efficient blood collection while minimizing patient discomfort.

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  • 25. 

    If you are working in a womens clinic or ob gyn and the doctor orders a intramuscular shot on an sexually active teen what might the shot contain?

    • A.

      Glucose

    • B.

      Anti psycotic

    • C.

      Depo provera

    • D.

      Iron

    Correct Answer
    C. Depo provera
    Explanation
    Depo Provera is a contraceptive injection that contains the hormone progestin. It is commonly used in women's clinics and OB/GYN practices as a birth control method. Given that the patient is a sexually active teenager, it is likely that the doctor would prescribe Depo Provera to prevent unintended pregnancies. This injection is administered intramuscularly, providing long-lasting contraception for approximately three months.

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  • 26. 

    Intepret the dictation please: pt c/o cp pc q.i.d

    • A.

      The patient has a severe headace 2x a day

    • B.

      Patient complains of abdominal pain

    • C.

      Patient complains of chest pain after meals about 4 times a day

    • D.

      Patient complains of chest pain 2 times a day

    Correct Answer
    C. Patient complains of chest pain after meals about 4 times a day
    Explanation
    The dictation indicates that the patient is experiencing various symptoms. Specifically, the patient is complaining of severe headaches twice a day, abdominal pain, and chest pain. The chest pain is specifically mentioned to occur after meals and happens about four times a day.

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  • 27. 

    Choose the law that would assist an employee who believes there are unfavorable working coditions in the workplace and unacceptable minimum wages being paid?

    • A.

      Family and medical leave act of 1993

    • B.

      Fair Labor standards Act of 1939

    • C.

      Cival rights act of 1964, Title VII

    • D.

      Ameican with disablities act of 1990

    Correct Answer
    B. Fair Labor standards Act of 1939
    Explanation
    The Fair Labor Standards Act of 1939 would assist an employee who believes there are unfavorable working conditions in the workplace and unacceptable minimum wages being paid. This act establishes minimum wage, overtime pay, recordkeeping, and child labor standards for employees in the private sector and in federal, state, and local governments. It ensures that employees are paid a fair wage for their work and provides protection against unfair labor practices.

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  • 28. 

    Litigation is another word for?

    • A.

      Tort

    • B.

      Assault in the medical office

    • C.

      Defamation

    • D.

      Lawsuit

    Correct Answer
    D. Lawsuit
    Explanation
    Litigation refers to the process of taking legal action or initiating a lawsuit. It involves resolving disputes or settling legal matters through the court system. Therefore, the correct answer is "lawsuit" as it accurately represents the meaning of litigation.

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  • 29. 

    A locum tenens is a

    • A.

      Court ordered physician

    • B.

      A skilled physician

    • C.

      A popular physician

    • D.

      Substitute physician

    Correct Answer
    D. Substitute physician
    Explanation
    A locum tenens is a substitute physician who fills in for another physician temporarily. They are often hired to cover shifts or provide medical care when the regular physician is unavailable or on leave. Locum tenens physicians are skilled and qualified healthcare professionals who are able to provide the necessary medical services to patients during the absence of the regular physician. They play an important role in ensuring continuity of care and maintaining healthcare services in various healthcare settings.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is a common condition of the ear seen in children?

    • A.

      Otitis externa

    • B.

      Otitis media

    • C.

      Tinnitus

    • D.

      Otitis interna

    Correct Answer
    B. Otitis media
    Explanation
    Otitis media is a common condition of the ear seen in children. It refers to the inflammation of the middle ear, usually caused by a bacterial or viral infection. This condition is more prevalent in children due to their shorter and more horizontal Eustachian tubes, which makes it easier for bacteria or viruses to enter the middle ear. Symptoms of otitis media include ear pain, fever, hearing loss, and fluid buildup behind the eardrum. Prompt medical treatment is necessary to prevent complications and alleviate symptoms.

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  • 31. 

    What part of the eye refracts or bends in light rays?

    • A.

      Pupil

    • B.

      Eyelid

    • C.

      Retina

    • D.

      Cornea

    Correct Answer
    D. Cornea
    Explanation
    The cornea is the transparent front part of the eye that refracts or bends light rays as they enter the eye. It is responsible for focusing the light onto the retina, which then sends the visual information to the brain. The cornea plays a crucial role in the eye's ability to form clear and sharp images on the retina, allowing us to see objects clearly.

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  • 32. 

    Which hormone is secreted by the adrenal gland?

    • A.

      Triodothyronine

    • B.

      Epinephrine

    • C.

      Thyroxine

    • D.

      Parathormone

    Correct Answer
    B. Epinephrine
    Explanation
    Epinephrine is the correct answer because it is a hormone secreted by the adrenal gland. It is also known as adrenaline and plays a crucial role in the body's response to stress. Epinephrine helps to increase heart rate, blood pressure, and energy levels, preparing the body for a fight-or-flight response. It also affects the metabolism and can have various effects on different organs and tissues throughout the body.

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  • 33. 

    The patient underwent an excision of an ovary

    • A.

      Vaginapexy

    • B.

      Oophorectomy

    • C.

      Perineoplasty

    • D.

      Salpingocele

    Correct Answer
    B. Oophorectomy
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Oophorectomy. Oophorectomy refers to the surgical removal of one or both ovaries. In this case, the patient underwent an excision of an ovary, which means that one ovary was surgically removed. Vaginapexy is a procedure to repair a prolapsed or weakened vaginal wall. Perineoplasty is a surgical procedure to repair or reconstruct the perineum. Salpingocele refers to a cystic dilatation of the fallopian tube.

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  • 34. 

    Use your ndex finger when you .................. a vein?

    • A.

      See

    • B.

      Inject

    • C.

      Palpate

    • D.

      Tounch

    Correct Answer
    C. Palpate
    Explanation
    Palpating refers to the act of examining or feeling with the fingers or hands. In the given context, when it comes to locating a vein, palpating would involve using the index finger to feel or touch the area in order to identify the vein. This makes palpate the most appropriate answer for the question.

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  • 35. 

    Which locations is usually used for taking a pulse?

    • A.

      Aplical pulse

    • B.

      Brachial pulse

    • C.

      Radial pulse

    • D.

      Carotid Pulse

    Correct Answer
    C. Radial pulse
    Explanation
    The radial pulse is usually used for taking a pulse. This is because the radial artery is easily accessible and located on the wrist, making it convenient for healthcare professionals to feel and assess the pulse. Additionally, the radial artery is close to the surface of the skin, allowing for accurate and reliable pulse measurements.

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  • 36. 

    Which measurement is the least reliable?

    • A.

      Axillary

    • B.

      Rectal

    • C.

      Oral

    • D.

      Sublingual

    Correct Answer
    C. Oral
    Explanation
    Oral temperature measurement is considered the least reliable among the given options. This is because oral measurements can be influenced by various factors such as drinking hot or cold liquids, smoking, or breathing through the mouth. Additionally, the accuracy of oral measurements can be affected by improper placement of the thermometer or movement during measurement. Rectal measurements are generally considered the most accurate and reliable method for measuring body temperature.

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  • 37. 

    The major artery that supples the foot is called?

    • A.

      Iliac

    • B.

      Cephalic

    • C.

      Popliteal

    • D.

      Dorsalis pedis

    Correct Answer
    C. Popliteal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is popliteal. The popliteal artery is the major artery that supplies blood to the foot. It is located behind the knee and branches into smaller arteries that provide blood flow to the lower leg and foot. The popliteal artery is responsible for delivering oxygen and nutrients to the tissues of the foot, ensuring proper function and health.

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  • 38. 

    Usually anything outside the body for example skin, hair, and nails make up what system?

    • A.

      Sensory

    • B.

      Nervous

    • C.

      Central nervous

    • D.

      Intgumentary

    Correct Answer
    D. Intgumentary
    Explanation
    The correct answer is integumentary. The question is asking about the system that includes anything outside the body such as skin, hair, and nails. The integumentary system is responsible for protecting the body from external factors, regulating body temperature, and providing sensory information through the skin. The other options, sensory, nervous, and central nervous, do not specifically encompass the external structures mentioned in the question.

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  • 39. 

    N incoming call in an busy chiropractic office or any medical office should be answered by the......... ring?

    • A.

      Second

    • B.

      Third

    • C.

      Fourth

    • D.

      Answering machine

    Correct Answer
    B. Third
    Explanation
    In a busy chiropractic or medical office, it is important to answer incoming calls promptly to provide efficient and timely service to patients. Answering the call on the third ring ensures that the staff has enough time to finish any ongoing tasks or attend to other patients before answering the call. This allows for a balance between providing prompt service and ensuring that the staff is not overwhelmed or interrupted during their work.

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  • 40. 

    When applying triage in the hospital emergency room what woud be the correct order
    1. Gunshot victim
    2. women in labor w/ history of stillborns
    3. A kid with a severe head injury
    4. chest pain
    5. an open fracture on leg

    • A.

      35142

    • B.

      31254

    • C.

      31542

    • D.

      31524

    Correct Answer
    D. 31524
    Explanation
    The correct order for triage in the hospital emergency room would be to prioritize patients based on the severity of their condition. In this case, the patient with a severe head injury (3) would be the first priority as head injuries can be life-threatening. The next priority would be the patient with chest pain (1), as this could indicate a heart attack or other serious cardiac condition. The patient with an open fracture on the leg (5) would be the next priority, as this could lead to severe bleeding or infection if not treated promptly. The patient who is a gunshot victim (2) would be the fourth priority, as gunshot wounds can cause significant damage and require immediate attention. Lastly, the woman in labor with a history of stillborns (4) would be the lowest priority, as she is stable and can wait for appropriate medical care.

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  • 41. 

    The intercostal is an major artery that supplies the thorax?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The intercostal artery is indeed a major artery that supplies the thorax. It runs along the lower border of each rib, providing blood supply to the intercostal muscles, the walls of the thorax, and other structures in the region. This artery plays a crucial role in maintaining the oxygen and nutrient supply to the thoracic region, ensuring proper functioning of the organs and tissues located there. Therefore, the statement "The intercostal is a major artery that supplies the thorax" is true.

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  • 42. 

    What is the common site for a pulse in an infant?

    • A.

      Brachial

    • B.

      Radial

    • C.

      Carotid

    • D.

      Femoral

    Correct Answer
    A. Brachial
    Explanation
    The common site for a pulse in an infant is the brachial artery. This artery is located in the upper arm and is commonly used to measure the pulse rate in infants. It is easily accessible and provides an accurate representation of the heart rate. The radial artery, located in the wrist, is also commonly used to measure the pulse rate in adults. The carotid artery, located in the neck, and the femoral artery, located in the groin, are less commonly used to measure the pulse rate in infants.

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  • 43. 

    Drug that causes urination

    • A.

      Diuretic

    • B.

      Emetic

    • C.

      Antacid

    • D.

      Narcotics

    Correct Answer
    A. Diuretic
    Explanation
    A diuretic is a drug that causes increased urination. It helps to remove excess fluid from the body by increasing the production of urine. This can be beneficial in conditions such as high blood pressure, heart failure, and edema. Diuretics work by increasing the excretion of sodium and water from the kidneys, which ultimately leads to increased urine output. This helps to reduce fluid retention and lower blood pressure. Diuretics are commonly prescribed to treat conditions related to fluid overload and are known for their diuretic properties.

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