ISTQB Mock Test 6

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ISTQB MOCK TEST - 8


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    1. We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:

    • A.

      Each test stage has a different purpose.

    • B.

      It is easier to manage testing in stages.

    • C.

      We can run different tests in different environments.

    • D.

      The more stages we have, the better the testing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Each test stage has a different purpose.
    Explanation
    Testing is split into distinct stages primarily because each stage serves a different purpose. By dividing testing into stages, it allows for a systematic and organized approach to testing. Each stage focuses on specific objectives such as unit testing, integration testing, system testing, and user acceptance testing. This division helps in identifying and addressing different types of issues at each stage, ensuring thorough testing and better overall quality of the software.

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  • 2. 

    2. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test toolsproviding test capture and replay facilities?

    • A.

      Regression testing

    • B.

      Integration testing

    • C.

      System testing

    • D.

      User acceptance testing

    Correct Answer
    A. Regression testing
    Explanation
    Regression testing is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities. Regression testing involves retesting previously tested software to ensure that changes or fixes have not introduced new defects. Test capture and replay tools allow testers to record and replay test cases, making it easier to repeat tests and identify any regression issues. This saves time and effort for testers, as they can quickly rerun tests and compare results, ultimately improving the efficiency and effectiveness of regression testing.

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  • 3. 

    3. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

    • A.

      A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.

    • B.

      A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.

    • C.

      A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.

    • D.

      A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.

    Correct Answer
    D. A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.
    Explanation
    A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage because statement coverage ensures that every statement in the code has been executed at least once, while branch coverage only ensures that every branch or decision point in the code has been taken at least once. Therefore, statement coverage provides more thorough testing and has a higher likelihood of detecting faults.

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  • 4. 

    4. Which of the following requirements is testable?

    • A.

      The system shall be user friendly.

    • B.

      The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.

    • C.

      The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.

    • D.

      The system shall be built to be portable.

    Correct Answer
    C. The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
    Explanation
    The requirement "The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load" is testable because it specifies a measurable criteria that can be objectively verified. It can be tested by measuring the system's response time under the specified design load and comparing it to the requirement of being less than one second. This test can be repeated multiple times to ensure consistency and reliability.

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  • 5. 

    5. Analyze the following highly simplified procedure:Ask: "What type of ticket do you require, single or return?"IF the customer wants ‘return’Ask: "What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?"IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’Say: "That will be £11:20"ELSESay: "That will be £19:50"ENDIFELSESay: "That will be £9:75"ENDIFNow decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that allthe questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and allreplies given.

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      5

    • D.

      6

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    The procedure asks two questions: the type of ticket required and the rate. The first question has two possible answers (single or return), and the second question also has two possible answers (Standard or Cheap-day). To ensure that all combinations have occurred, we need to test each possible combination of answers. In this case, there are 2 possible answers for the first question and 2 possible answers for the second question, so the minimum number of tests needed is 2 x 2 = 4. However, the question also asks to ensure that all questions have been asked and all replies given. Since there are only two questions, we can conclude that all questions have been asked and all replies given after 3 tests. Therefore, the correct answer is 3.

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  • 6. 

    6. Error guessing:

    • A.

      Supplements formal test design techniques.

    • B.

      Can only be used in component, integration and system testing.

    • C.

      Is only performed in user acceptance testing.

    • D.

      Is not repeatable and should not be used.

    Correct Answer
    A. Supplements formal test design techniques.
    Explanation
    Error guessing is a technique that complements formal test design techniques. It involves using the tester's intuition, experience, and knowledge to identify potential errors or defects in the system under test, even if they are not explicitly documented or planned for in the test design. It is not limited to any specific level of testing and can be used in component, integration, system, and user acceptance testing. While it is not a repeatable technique and should not be solely relied upon, it can be a valuable addition to a comprehensive testing approach.

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  • 7. 

    7. Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?

    • A.

      Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.

    • B.

      A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.

    • C.

      A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.

    • D.

      Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.

    Correct Answer
    C. A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
    Explanation
    Test coverage criteria are not directly related to the percentage of faults found. Test coverage criteria refer to the extent to which a test suite exercises the items being tested, such as requirements, code statements, or paths. It is a measure of how much of the system's functionality is being tested. The percentage of faults found, on the other hand, is a metric that indicates the effectiveness of the testing process in uncovering defects. While higher test coverage can increase the likelihood of finding faults, it does not directly measure the percentage of faults found.

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  • 8. 

    8. In prioritizing what to test, the most important objective is to:

    • A.

      Find as many faults as possible.

    • B.

      Test high risk areas.

    • C.

      Obtain good test coverage.

    • D.

      Test whatever is easiest to test.

    Correct Answer
    B. Test high risk areas.
    Explanation
    The most important objective in prioritizing what to test is to focus on high-risk areas. This is because high-risk areas are more likely to contain critical defects that could have a significant impact on the system or business. By testing these areas first, we can identify and address potential issues that pose the greatest risk to the overall quality and functionality of the system. This approach helps to ensure that resources are allocated effectively and that testing efforts are focused on areas that are most likely to have a significant impact on the success of the project.

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  • 9. 

    9. Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activitydescriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?v - test controlw - test monitoringx - test estimationy - incident managementz - configuration control1 - calculation of required test resources2 - maintenance of record of test results3 - re-allocation of resources when tests overrun4 - report on deviation from test plan5 - tracking of anomalous test results

    • A.

      V-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4

    • B.

      V-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3

    • C.

      V-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2

    • D.

      V-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5

    Correct Answer
    C. V-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
    Explanation
    The correct answer pairs the following sets: v-3, w-4, x-1, y-5, z-2. This means that v (test control) is paired with activity description 3 (re-allocation of resources when tests overrun), w (test monitoring) is paired with activity description 4 (report on deviation from test plan), x (test estimation) is paired with activity description 1 (calculation of required test resources), y (incident management) is paired with activity description 5 (tracking of anomalous test results), and z (configuration control) is paired with activity description 2 (maintenance of record of test results).

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  • 10. 

    10. Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?

    • A.

      System tests are often performed by independent teams.

    • B.

      Functional testing is used more than structural testing.

    • C.

      Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.

    • D.

      End-users should be involved in system tests.

    Correct Answer
    D. End-users should be involved in system tests.
    Explanation
    End-users should not be involved in system tests. System testing is performed to evaluate the system's compliance with the specified requirements and to ensure that it meets the needs of the end-users. However, end-users are not typically involved in the testing process as they may not have the technical knowledge or expertise required to effectively test the system. Instead, system tests are often performed by independent teams who have the necessary skills and experience to thoroughly test the system and identify any potential faults or issues.

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  • 11. 

    11. Which of the following is false?

    • A.

      Incidents should always be fixed.

    • B.

      An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.

    • C.

      Incidents can be analyzed to assist in test process improvement.

    • D.

      An incident can be raised against documentation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Incidents should always be fixed.
    Explanation
    The statement "Incidents should always be fixed" is false because not all incidents need to be fixed. Some incidents may be low priority or may not impact the functionality of the system, so they can be deferred or ignored. It is important to prioritize incidents based on their severity and impact on the system before deciding whether they should be fixed or not.

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  • 12. 

    12. Enough testing has been performed when:

    • A.

      Time runs out.

    • B.

      The required level of confidence has been achieved.

    • C.

      No more faults are found.

    • D.

      The users won’t find any serious faults.

    Correct Answer
    B. The required level of confidence has been achieved.
    Explanation
    Enough testing has been performed when the required level of confidence has been achieved. This means that the testing process has been thorough and comprehensive enough to provide a reasonable level of certainty that the software or system being tested is functioning correctly and meets the desired specifications. It implies that the testing has been able to identify and address any potential faults or issues, giving confidence in the reliability and performance of the software or system.

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  • 13. 

    13. Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?

    • A.

      Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.

    • B.

      Incidents may be raised against user requirements.

    • C.

      Incidents require investigation and/or correction.

    • D.

      Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.

    Correct Answer
    A. Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
    Explanation
    The given statement that "Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test" is not true. Incident resolution is not solely the responsibility of the author of the software under test. It is a collaborative effort involving various stakeholders such as developers, testers, and project managers. The author of the software may be responsible for investigating and fixing the issue, but ultimately, the resolution is a team effort.

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  • 14. 

    14. Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?

    • A.

      Syntax testing

    • B.

      Equivalence partitioning

    • C.

      Stress testing

    • D.

      Modified condition/decision coverage

    Correct Answer
    C. Stress testing
    Explanation
    Stress testing is not described in a unit test standard. Unit test standards typically focus on aspects such as syntax testing, equivalence partitioning, and modified condition/decision coverage. Stress testing, on the other hand, is a type of testing that evaluates the system's performance under extreme conditions to determine its stability and robustness. While stress testing is an important testing technique, it is not specifically mentioned in the context of unit test standards.

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  • 15. 

    15. Which of the following is false?

    • A.

      In a system two different failures may have different severities.

    • B.

      A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.

    • C.

      A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.

    • D.

      Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behavior.

    Correct Answer
    B. A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
    Explanation
    The statement "A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault" is false because debugging and fixing a fault does not guarantee that the system will become more reliable. While fixing a fault can improve the reliability of a system, it does not guarantee that all other faults have been identified and fixed, or that new faults will not occur in the future. Therefore, the system may or may not become more reliable after debugging.

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  • 16. 

    16. Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOTcorrect?

    • A.

      They are used to support multi-user testing.

    • B.

      They are used to capture and animate user requirements.

    • C.

      They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.

    • D.

      They capture aspects of user behavior.

    Correct Answer
    B. They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
    Explanation
    Capture-replay tools are commonly used in software testing to record user actions and replay them to identify bugs or issues. They are primarily used to capture aspects of user behavior, not to capture and animate user requirements. This means that they are not typically used to create or visualize user requirements, but rather to simulate user interactions with the software. The statement that they are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool is not addressed in the given information and cannot be determined.

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  • 17. 

    17. How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?

    • A.

      Metrics from previous similar projects

    • B.

      Discussions with the development team

    • C.

      Time allocated for regression testing

    • D.

      A & b

    Correct Answer
    D. A & b
    Explanation
    To estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required, it is important to consider metrics from previous similar projects and have discussions with the development team. By analyzing metrics from previous projects, such as the number of defects found during testing, the complexity of the software, and the time taken for re-testing, one can get an idea of the expected re-testing effort. Additionally, discussing with the development team can provide insights into the areas that are more prone to defects and require more re-testing. Therefore, options "a & b" are the correct choices for estimating the amount of re-testing likely to be required.

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  • 18. 

    18. Which of the following is true of the V-model?

    • A.

      It states that modules are tested against user requirements.

    • B.

      It only models the testing phase.

    • C.

      It specifies the test techniques to be used.

    • D.

      It includes the verification of designs.

    Correct Answer
    D. It includes the verification of designs.
    Explanation
    The V-model is a software development model that emphasizes the verification and validation processes throughout the entire development lifecycle. It includes the verification of designs, meaning that the designs are reviewed and evaluated to ensure they meet the specified requirements before moving forward with development and testing. This helps to identify and address any design flaws or issues early on, reducing the likelihood of costly rework later in the development process. The V-model also includes other phases such as requirements analysis, system design, module design, coding, and testing, but the verification of designs is a key aspect of this model.

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  • 19. 

    19. The oracle assumption:

    • A.

      Is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.

    • B.

      Is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.

    • C.

      Is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.

    • D.

      Is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.

    Correct Answer
    B. Is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
    Explanation
    The oracle assumption refers to the belief that the tester has the ability to consistently identify the correct outcome of a test. This means that the tester has the knowledge and expertise to determine whether the test results are accurate and whether the software is functioning correctly. It does not imply that the tester knows everything about the software under test or that the tests need to be reviewed by experienced testers. The oracle assumption simply focuses on the tester's ability to accurately assess the correctness of the test outcomes.

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  • 20. 

    20. Which of the following characterizes the cost of faults?

    • A.

      They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.

    • B.

      They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.

    • C.

      Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.

    • D.

      Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.

    Correct Answer
    A. They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases. This means that it is easier and less costly to identify and address faults during the initial stages of development, such as requirements gathering and design. However, as the development progresses and the system becomes more complex, faults become harder to detect and fix, resulting in increased costs. This highlights the importance of early detection and prevention of faults to minimize expenses and ensure the quality of the final product.

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  • 21. 

    21. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?

    • A.

      To find faults in the software.

    • B.

      To assess whether the software is ready for release.

    • C.

      To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.

    • D.

      To prove that the software is correct.

    Correct Answer
    D. To prove that the software is correct.
    Explanation
    The objective of a test is to find faults in the software, assess whether it is ready for release, and demonstrate that it doesn't work. However, it is not possible to prove that the software is correct through testing alone. Testing can only provide evidence of the presence of defects, but it cannot guarantee the absence of defects. Therefore, the objective of proving that the software is correct is not realistic and should not normally be an objective for a test.

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  • 22. 

    22. Which of the following is a form of functional testing?

    • A.

      Boundary value analysis

    • B.

      Usability testing

    • C.

      Performance testing

    • D.

      Security testing

    Correct Answer
    A. Boundary value analysis
    Explanation
    Boundary value analysis is a form of functional testing that involves testing the application by using both the minimum and maximum values of a range. It aims to identify any issues or errors that may occur at the boundaries of input values. By testing the boundaries, it helps ensure that the application behaves correctly and handles these values appropriately. This type of testing is useful in identifying potential errors or bugs that may arise due to incorrect handling of boundary values.

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  • 23. 

    23. Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?

    • A.

      Features to be tested

    • B.

      Incident reports

    • C.

      Risks

    • D.

      Schedule

    Correct Answer
    B. Incident reports
    Explanation
    A test plan typically includes the features to be tested, risks, and the schedule for testing activities. Incident reports, on the other hand, are not typically included in a test plan. Incident reports are documentation of any issues or problems that occur during testing or after the product has been released. While incident reports are important for tracking and resolving issues, they are separate from the test plan, which focuses on outlining the scope, objectives, and approach of the testing process.

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  • 24. 

    24. Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from theuse of CAST?

    • A.

      Test management

    • B.

      Test design

    • C.

      Test execution

    • D.

      Test planning

    Correct Answer
    C. Test execution
    Explanation
    Test execution provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST because it involves the actual running of test cases and identifying any defects or issues in the software. By using CAST, which is a software analysis tool, organizations can automate the execution of test cases, thereby reducing the time and effort required for manual testing. This automation can lead to significant cost savings as it improves efficiency, reduces human errors, and allows for faster identification and resolution of bugs.

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  • 25. 

    25. Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?

    • A.

      Statement testing

    • B.

      Path testing

    • C.

      Data flow testing

    • D.

      State transition testing

    Correct Answer
    D. State transition testing
    Explanation
    State transition testing is not a white box technique because it focuses on the behavior of the system based on different states and transitions, rather than analyzing the internal structure or implementation details of the system. White box techniques, on the other hand, involve examining the internal logic, code, and structure of the system to design test cases. Statement testing, path testing, and data flow testing are examples of white box techniques as they require knowledge of the internal workings of the system to create effective test cases.

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  • 26. 

    26. Data flow analysis studies:

    • A.

      Possible communications bottlenecks in a program.

    • B.

      The rate of change of data values as a program executes.

    • C.

      The use of data on paths through the code.

    • D.

      The intrinsic complexity of the code.

    Correct Answer
    D. The intrinsic complexity of the code.
    Explanation
    Data flow analysis studies the intrinsic complexity of the code. It focuses on analyzing how data is used and manipulated within a program, including how it flows through different paths in the code. This analysis helps in understanding the behavior of the program, identifying potential issues or bottlenecks, and optimizing the code for better performance. By studying the data flow, developers can gain insights into the complexity of the code and make informed decisions to improve its efficiency and effectiveness.

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  • 27. 

    27. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%The next £28000 is taxed at 22%Any further amount is taxed at 40%To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?

    • A.

      £1500

    • B.

      £32001

    • C.

      £33501

    • D.

      £28000

    Correct Answer
    C. £33501
    Explanation
    A valid Boundary Value Analysis test case should test the boundaries or limits of a system. In this case, the valid test case would be £33501 because it falls on the boundary between the tax rates. This amount is just above the threshold for the 22% tax rate, so it will be taxed at 22%. Testing this boundary case ensures that the system correctly calculates the tax at the correct rate for amounts just above the threshold.

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  • 28. 

    28. An important benefit of code inspections is that they:

    • A.

      Enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.

    • B.

      Can be performed by the person who wrote the code.

    • C.

      Can be performed by inexperienced staff.

    • D.

      Are cheap to perform.

    Correct Answer
    A. Enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
    Explanation
    Code inspections are a valuable practice because they allow the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready. This means that potential issues and bugs can be identified and addressed early in the development process, reducing the likelihood of encountering problems during actual execution. By conducting code inspections, the development team can ensure that the code is of high quality and meets the required standards. This benefit is particularly important as it helps save time and resources by catching and fixing issues early on.

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  • 29. 

    29. Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for UserAcceptance Test scripts?

    • A.

      Actual results

    • B.

      Program specification

    • C.

      User requirements

    • D.

      System specification

    Correct Answer
    C. User requirements
    Explanation
    The best source of expected outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts is the user requirements. User requirements outline the specific functionalities and features that the system should have in order to meet the needs and expectations of the end users. These requirements serve as a guide for creating test scripts that will verify whether the system meets these expectations. Actual results may be used to compare against the expected outcomes, but they do not provide the initial source of the expected outcomes. Program specification and system specification provide technical details about the system, but they do not directly represent the desired outcomes from the user's perspective.

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  • 30. 

    30. What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?

    • A.

      An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.

    • B.

      An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.

    • C.

      Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.

    • D.

      A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.

    Correct Answer
    D. A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.
    Explanation
    The main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection is the leadership role. In a walkthrough, the author of the work being reviewed leads the process, while in an inspection, a trained moderator takes the lead. This means that in a walkthrough, the author is present and actively guiding the review, while in an inspection, the author may not be present. The presence of a trained moderator in an inspection ensures a more objective and thorough review process.

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  • 31. 

    31. Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early inthe life cycle?

    • A.

      It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.

    • B.

      It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.

    • C.

      It reduces defect multiplication.

    • D.

      It allows testers to become involved early in the project.

    Correct Answer
    C. It reduces defect multiplication.
    Explanation
    Verification early in the life cycle refers to the process of checking and reviewing the requirements and design documents before the actual development starts. By doing so, any potential defects or errors in the requirements or design can be identified and corrected early on, preventing them from being carried forward into the later stages of the project. This reduces the chances of these defects multiplying and becoming more complex and costly to fix later. Therefore, the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle is that it helps in reducing defect multiplication.

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  • 32. 

    32. Integration testing in the small: 

    • A.

      Tests the individual components that have been developed.

    • B.

      Tests interactions between modules or subsystems.

    • C.

      Only uses components that form part of the live system.

    • D.

      Tests interfaces to other systems.

    Correct Answer
    B. Tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
    Explanation
    Integration testing in the small refers to testing the interactions between modules or subsystems. This type of testing focuses on ensuring that the individual components that have been developed work together correctly and communicate effectively. It does not involve testing interfaces to other systems or using components that form part of the live system. The main objective is to identify any issues or bugs that may arise when different modules or subsystems are integrated, ensuring the overall functionality and performance of the system.

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  • 33. 

    33. Static analysis is best described as:

    • A.

      The analysis of batch programs.

    • B.

      The reviewing of test plans.

    • C.

      The analysis of program code.

    • D.

      The use of black box testing.

    Correct Answer
    C. The analysis of program code.
    Explanation
    Static analysis is the process of examining program code without executing it, in order to identify potential errors, security vulnerabilities, or other issues. It involves analyzing the code structure, syntax, and semantics to detect problems that may arise during runtime. This technique is commonly used to ensure code quality, improve maintainability, and enhance software reliability. Therefore, the correct answer for this question is "the analysis of program code."

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  • 34. 

    34. Alpha testing is:

    • A.

      Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.

    • B.

      The first testing that is performed.

    • C.

      Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.

    • D.

      Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.

    Correct Answer
    C. Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
    Explanation
    Alpha testing is a type of pre-release testing where end user representatives test the software at the developer's site before it is officially released. This allows the developers to gather feedback, identify any issues or bugs, and make necessary improvements before the software is made available to the general public. It is an important step in the software development process to ensure that the product meets the requirements and expectations of the end users.

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  • 35. 

    35. A failure is:

    • A.

      Found in the software; the result of an error.

    • B.

      Departure from specified behavior.

    • C.

      An incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.

    • D.

      A human action that produces an incorrect result.

    Correct Answer
    B. Departure from specified behavior.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "departure from specified behavior." This means that a failure in software occurs when it does not behave as it is supposed to according to its specifications. It could be a deviation from the expected output or behavior, indicating a flaw in the software's functionality. This answer implies that a failure is not necessarily caused by an error or incorrect step in the program, but rather by the software not meeting the expected behavior.

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  • 36. 

    36. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%The next £28000 is taxed at 22%Any further amount is taxed at 40%Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?

    • A.

      £4800; £14000; £28000

    • B.

      £5200; £5500; £28000

    • C.

      £28001; £32000; £35000

    • D.

      £5800; £28000; £32000

    Correct Answer
    D. £5800; £28000; £32000
    Explanation
    The given groups of numbers fall into the same equivalence class because they all have a salary that falls within the same tax brackets. The first £4000 of salary is tax-free for all three numbers. The next £1500 is taxed at 10% for all three numbers. The next £28000 is taxed at 22% for all three numbers. Therefore, these numbers would have the same tax calculation and would fall into the same equivalence class.

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  • 37. 

    37. The most important thing about early test design is that it:

    • A.

      Makes test preparation easier.

    • B.

      Means inspections are not required.

    • C.

      Can prevent fault multiplication.

    • D.

      Will find all faults.

    Correct Answer
    C. Can prevent fault multiplication.
    Explanation
    Early test design is crucial because it can prevent fault multiplication. When defects are identified and fixed early in the development process, it reduces the likelihood of those defects causing other faults or issues later on. By addressing and resolving faults early, the impact and cost of fixing them in later stages of testing or production are minimized. This helps to ensure a more efficient and effective testing process overall.

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  • 38. 

    38. Which of the following statements about reviews is true? 

    • A.

      Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.

    • B.

      Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.

    • C.

      Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.

    • D.

      Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.

    Correct Answer
    D. Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.
    Explanation
    Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans. This is because reviews are a systematic examination of a document or artifact to find and eliminate errors, defects, and inconsistencies. By conducting reviews on specifications, code, and test plans, potential issues can be identified and resolved early in the development process, leading to improved quality and efficiency.

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  • 39. 

    39. Test cases are designed during: 

    • A.

      Test recording.

    • B.

      Test planning.

    • C.

      Test configuration.

    • D.

      Test specification.

    Correct Answer
    D. Test specification.
    Explanation
    Test cases are designed during the test specification phase. Test specification involves defining the objectives, scope, and approach of the testing process. It includes identifying the functionalities to be tested and documenting the specific test cases that will be executed. Test specification ensures that the testing process is well-defined and organized, allowing testers to effectively design and execute test cases based on the requirements and expected outcomes. Test recording, test planning, and test configuration are different phases of the testing process that may involve other activities such as test script creation, test environment setup, and test execution.

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  • 40. 

    40. A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:

    • A.

      Linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.

    • B.

      Facilities to compare test results with expected results.

    • C.

      The precise differences in versions of software component source code.

    • D.

      Restricted access to the source code library.

    Correct Answer
    B. Facilities to compare test results with expected results.
    Explanation
    A configuration management system is a tool used to track and control changes in software development projects. It helps in managing versions of software components, linking customer requirements to version numbers, and providing restricted access to the source code library. However, comparing test results with expected results is typically not a function of a configuration management system. This task is usually performed by a separate testing tool or framework.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 23, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Salbhar
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