ISTQB Mock Test 5
Questions and Answers
- 1.
What happens to the cost of defects as we considerably move across the life cycle ?
- A.
Increases
- B.
Decreases
- C.
Remains stagnent
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. IncreasesExplanation
As we move across the life cycle, the cost of defects typically increases. This is because defects that are not identified and fixed early on can lead to larger issues and more costly repairs later in the process. Additionally, as the product or project progresses, the cost of fixing defects generally becomes more expensive due to factors such as increased complexity, integration challenges, and potential impact on other components. Therefore, it is important to address and resolve defects as early as possible to minimize their impact on cost.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following are the goals and objectives of testing?
- A.
Finding defects
- B.
Preventing defects
- C.
Gaining confidence in and providing information about the level of quality
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The goals and objectives of testing include finding defects, preventing defects, and gaining confidence in and providing information about the level of quality. Finding defects is an important goal as it helps identify and fix issues in the software. Preventing defects aims to implement practices and techniques that minimize the occurrence of defects. Gaining confidence in and providing information about the level of quality involves evaluating the software's performance and ensuring it meets the desired standards. Therefore, all of the given options are correct goals and objectives of testing.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following is NOT the task of Test control ?
- A.
Initiate corrective actions
- B.
Make decisions
- C.
Write a test summary report for stakeholders
- D.
Provide information on testing.
Correct Answer
C. Write a test summary report for stakeholdersExplanation
The task of Test control involves initiating corrective actions, making decisions, and providing information on testing. However, writing a test summary report for stakeholders is not a task of Test control. This report is typically prepared by the Test Analyst or Test Manager to provide a summary of the testing activities, test results, and overall quality of the software being tested.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following is MOST important to promote and maintain good relationships between testers and developers?
- A.
Promoting better quality software whenever possible.
- B.
Understanding what managers value about testing.
- C.
Explaining test results in a neutral fashion.
- D.
Identifying potential customer work-around for bugs.
Correct Answer
C. Explaining test results in a neutral fashion.Explanation
To promote and maintain good relationships between testers and developers, it is crucial to explain test results in a neutral fashion. This means presenting the findings without bias or personal opinions, focusing on objective data and facts. By doing so, it fosters a collaborative and non-confrontational environment, allowing testers and developers to work together effectively in resolving any issues or bugs identified during testing. It helps to minimize misunderstandings, conflicts, and blame game between the two parties, leading to better communication, trust, and ultimately, improved software quality.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT about XP?
- A.
It has a natural timeline where tasks are executed in a sequential fashion.
- B.
The delivery is divided into increments or builds with each increment adding new functionality.
- C.
It illustrates how testing activities can be integrated into each phase of the life cycle.
- D.
It promotes pair programming and shared code ownership amongst the develpers.
Correct Answer
D. It promotes pair programming and shared code ownership amongst the develpers.Explanation
XP, or Extreme Programming, is an agile software development methodology that promotes pair programming and shared code ownership among developers. Pair programming involves two programmers working together on the same task, with one writing the code and the other reviewing it in real-time. This practice helps improve code quality, knowledge sharing, and collaboration within the team. Shared code ownership means that all team members have equal responsibility for the codebase, allowing for better collaboration, faster problem-solving, and reduced bottlenecks.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which of the following is NOT a type of integration testing?
- A.
Big-Bang testing
- B.
Top-Down testing
- C.
Functional Incremental
- D.
Alpha testing
Correct Answer
D. Alpha testingExplanation
Alpha testing is a type of user acceptance testing, not integration testing. Integration testing focuses on testing the interaction and integration between different components or modules of a system, ensuring they work together as expected. On the other hand, alpha testing is conducted by end-users or internal testers to evaluate the software's usability, functionality, and overall user experience before its official release. Therefore, alpha testing is not considered a type of integration testing.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following is NOT a software characteristic?
- A.
Usability
- B.
Scalability
- C.
Reliability
- D.
Maintainability
Correct Answer
B. ScalabilityExplanation
Scalability is not a software characteristic because it refers to the ability of a system to handle increased workload or growing demands. It is more related to hardware or infrastructure rather than software itself. Software characteristics typically include usability, reliability, and maintainability, which focus on the functionality, performance, and ease of maintenance of the software.Rate this question:
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- 8.
From the following statements , which of them is a mismatch ?
- A.
Configuration management tool -- Check for consistence.
- B.
Test design tool -- Generate test inputs
- C.
Test data preparation tool -- Manipulate data bases
- D.
Requirement management tools -- Enable individual tests to be traceable.
Correct Answer
A. Configuration management tool -- Check for consistence.Explanation
The given statement "Configuration management tool -- Check for consistence" is a mismatch because a configuration management tool is not primarily used to check for consistency. Configuration management tools are used to track and manage changes in software or hardware configurations, ensuring that all components are properly configured and versioned. Consistency checking is typically performed by other tools or processes, such as testing or quality assurance.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Analyze the following procedure :System :" What type of ticket do you require , Single or Return ?" If the customer wants "Return"System : "What rate, Standard or Cheap-day ?"If the customer replies "Cheap-day" Display_message " It will cost $ 12"Else Display_message " It will cost $15"EndIfElse Display_message " It will cost $ 7.50"EndIf Calculate the number of test inputs needed to ensure that all the questions have been asked, all the combinations have occurred and all replies are given.
- A.
6
- B.
4
- C.
5
- D.
3
Correct Answer
D. 3Explanation
The procedure asks two questions: one about the type of ticket (Single or Return) and another about the rate (Standard or Cheap-day). The number of test inputs needed to ensure that all the questions have been asked, all the combinations have occurred, and all replies are given can be calculated by multiplying the number of options for each question. In this case, there are 2 options for the type of ticket (Single or Return) and 2 options for the rate (Standard or Cheap-day), resulting in a total of 2 * 2 = 4 possible combinations. However, since one of the combinations does not require any further questions (Single ticket), we subtract it from the total, resulting in 4 - 1 = 3. Therefore, 3 test inputs are needed to cover all the possible combinations and replies.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following is the BEST source of Expected outcomes for User Acceptance Test Scripts?
- A.
Program specification
- B.
User Requirements
- C.
System Specification
- D.
Actual Results
Correct Answer
B. User RequirementsExplanation
User Requirements are the best source of expected outcomes for User Acceptance Test Scripts because they outline the specific functionalities and features that the end users expect from the software. These requirements are derived from the needs and expectations of the users and serve as a basis for defining the success criteria for the acceptance testing phase. By referring to the User Requirements, the testers can ensure that the software meets the desired outcomes and satisfies the users' needs. Program specification, System Specification, and Actual Results may provide additional information, but User Requirements are the primary and most reliable source for defining the expected outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which of these is a functional test ?
- A.
Checking how easy the system is in use.
- B.
Checking the effect of high-volumes of traffic in a telephone exchange.
- C.
Checking the on-line booking screen information and the database contents against the information on the letter to the customers.
- D.
Measuring response time on an on-line booking system.
Correct Answer
C. Checking the on-line booking screen information and the database contents against the information on the letter to the customers.Explanation
The correct answer is "Checking the on-line booking screen information and the database contents against the information on the letter to the customers." This is a functional test because it involves verifying that the on-line booking system is functioning correctly by comparing the information displayed on the screen and stored in the database with the information provided in the letter to the customers. It focuses on the system's ability to perform its intended function accurately and effectively.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the Kick-off meeting ?
- A.
The goal of the meeting is to get everybody on the same wavelength regarding the document under review.
- B.
The parcipants work individually on the document under review.
- C.
The result of entry check and defined exit criteria are discussed.
- D.
The reviewers receive a short introduction on the objectives of the review and the documents.
Correct Answer
B. The parcipants work individually on the document under review.Explanation
The correct answer is that the participants work individually on the document under review. This is not true about the Kick-off meeting because the goal of the meeting is to get everybody on the same wavelength regarding the document under review. The participants work together to discuss and understand the objectives of the review and the documents. The result of entry check and defined exit criteria are also discussed during the meeting.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which of the following is one of the roles and responsibilties of a Moderator ?
- A.
He/She decides on the execution of the revies , allocates time in the project schedules and determines whether review project objectives have been met.
- B.
He/She is to check any material for defects, mostly prior to the meeting.
- C.
He/She records each defect mentioned and any suggestions for process improvement.
- D.
He/She schedules the meeting, disseminates documents defore the meeting, coaches other team members,stores the data that is collected.
Correct Answer
D. He/She schedules the meeting, disseminates documents defore the meeting, coaches other team members,stores the data that is collected.Explanation
The role and responsibilities of a Moderator include scheduling meetings, disseminating documents before the meeting, coaching other team members, and storing the data that is collected.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following statements is UNTRUE?
- A.
Technical review is a documented defect-detection process.
- B.
Technical review is often performed as a peer review.
- C.
In technical review,a formal follow-up is carried out by the moderator applying exit criteria.
- D.
In technical review, a separate preparation is carried out during which the product is examined and the defects are found.
Correct Answer
C. In technical review,a formal follow-up is carried out by the moderator applying exit criteria.Explanation
The statement "In technical review, a formal follow-up is carried out by the moderator applying exit criteria" is true. In technical review, a formal follow-up is conducted by the moderator to ensure that all identified defects have been addressed and the necessary exit criteria have been met.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What is the pupose of FPA ?
- A.
To measure the size of the functionality of an Information System.
- B.
To measure the functional flow.
- C.
To measure the functional requirements of the project.
- D.
To measure the functional testing effort.
Correct Answer
A. To measure the size of the functionality of an Information System.Explanation
The purpose of Function Point Analysis (FPA) is to measure the size of the functionality of an Information System. FPA is a software metric used to quantify the functionality provided by a software application. It measures the functionality based on the inputs, outputs, external interfaces, and data files involved in the system. By measuring the size of the functionality, FPA helps in estimating project effort, cost, and resources required for development and maintenance of the system.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which is NOT a type of review?
- A.
Technical Review
- B.
Walkthrough
- C.
Management Approval
- D.
Inspection
Correct Answer
C. Management ApprovalExplanation
Management Approval is not a type of review because it is not focused on evaluating or critiquing a product or process. Instead, it is a decision-making process where management assesses and approves certain actions or decisions. Reviews, on the other hand, involve analyzing and assessing the quality, effectiveness, or compliance of a product or process. Technical Review, Walkthrough, and Inspection are all types of reviews that are commonly used in various industries to ensure the quality and correctness of a product or process.Rate this question:
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- 17.
One of the fiels on a student enrollment form accepts numeric values in the range 5 to 20 . Identify the test inputs that cover all the valid and invalid equivalence classes?
- A.
3, 8, 22
- B.
5, 9, 21
- C.
4, 8 , 19
- D.
1, 4 , 5
Correct Answer
A. 3, 8, 22Explanation
The correct answer is 3, 8, 22.
The given question asks for test inputs that cover all the valid and invalid equivalence classes for the numeric values accepted in the range 5 to 20. The valid equivalence classes are the values within the range (5 to 20), and the invalid equivalence classes are the values outside the range (20).
Among the given options, 3 and 8 fall within the valid range (5 to 20), covering the valid equivalence class. 22 falls outside the valid range, covering the invalid equivalence class. Therefore, 3, 8, and 22 cover all the valid and invalid equivalence classes.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Component testing is also known as :
- A.
Program testing
- B.
Module testing
- C.
Unit testing
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
Component testing is also known as program testing, module testing, and unit testing. This is because component testing refers to the process of testing individual components or units of a software system to ensure that they function correctly and meet the specified requirements. Program testing, module testing, and unit testing are all different terms used to describe this type of testing. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."Rate this question:
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- 19.
Consider the following list of test process activities :I . Aalysis and designII. Test closure activitiesIII. Planning and controlIV. Implementation and exectutionV. Evaluating exit criteria and reportingWhich of the following places these in their logical sequence ?
- A.
III , I , IV , V , II
- B.
I , II, III , IV, V
- C.
II , III , I , V , IV
- D.
I , III , V , IV, II
Correct Answer
A. III , I , IV , V , IIExplanation
The correct sequence of the test process activities is as follows: Planning and control (III) is the first step, followed by Analysis and design (I), Implementation and execution (IV), Evaluating exit criteria and reporting (V), and finally Test closure activities (II). This sequence ensures that the testing process is conducted in a logical and organized manner, starting with planning and ending with closure activities.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Cosider the following statements about the regression tests : I . They are the same as confirmation testing.II. They are only effective if automated.III. They may usefully automated if they are well designed.IV. They are a way to reduce the risk of a change having an adverse effect elsewhere in the system.
- A.
II and III
- B.
II and IV
- C.
I and III
- D.
III and IV
Correct Answer
D. III and IVExplanation
Regression tests are not the same as confirmation testing (statement I is incorrect). They can be effective even if not automated (statement II is incorrect). However, they can be useful if well designed and can help reduce the risk of adverse effects from system changes (statements III and IV are correct). Therefore, the correct answer is III and IV.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which of the following is NOT the level of scripting ?
- A.
Linear scripting
- B.
Structural scripts
- C.
Data-control scripts
- D.
Shared scripts
Correct Answer
C. Data-control scriptsExplanation
Data-control scripts are not a level of scripting. The other options mentioned, linear scripting, structural scripts, and shared scripts, are all valid levels of scripting. Linear scripting refers to a sequential script execution, structural scripts involve the use of control structures like loops and conditionals, and shared scripts are scripts that can be used by multiple users or applications. However, data-control scripts do not fit into any specific level of scripting.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which of the following is NOT a part of IEEE 829 Standard Test Plan Template ?
- A.
Staffing and training needs
- B.
Suspension and resumption criteria
- C.
Special procedural requirements
- D.
Responsibilities
Correct Answer
C. Special procedural requirementsExplanation
The IEEE 829 Standard Test Plan Template includes sections such as staffing and training needs, suspension and resumption criteria, and responsibilities. However, special procedural requirements are not a part of this template. Special procedural requirements may refer to any additional or unique procedures that are specific to a particular project or organization, but they are not explicitly mentioned in the IEEE 829 Standard Test Plan Template.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which of the following are the typical factors for the 'entry and exit criteria' ? Choose the BEST amongst the all .
- A.
Test Items
- B.
Acquisition and supply
- C.
Quality
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The typical factors for the 'entry and exit criteria' include test items, acquisition and supply, and quality. These factors are important in determining when a test can begin (entry criteria) and when it can be considered complete (exit criteria). Test items refer to the specific components or elements that will be tested. Acquisition and supply involve the processes and resources needed to obtain the necessary test items. Quality refers to the standards and requirements that must be met for the test to be considered successful. Therefore, all of the options mentioned (test items, acquisition and supply, quality) are relevant factors for entry and exit criteria.Rate this question:
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- 24.
A project risk includes which of the following ?
- A.
Software that does not perform its intended functions.
- B.
Error-prone software delivered.
- C.
Poor software characteristics
- D.
Organizational factors
Correct Answer
D. Organizational factorsExplanation
Organizational factors are included in project risk because they can significantly impact the success of a project. These factors can include lack of communication, inadequate resources, poor project management, and resistance to change within the organization. All of these can contribute to delays, budget overruns, and ultimately, project failure. Therefore, considering and managing organizational factors is crucial in effectively managing project risks.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which of the following is TRUE about Boundary value analysis?
- A.
BVA is the same as equivalence partitioning tests.
- B.
BVA tests combinatios of input circumstances.
- C.
BVA is used in structural testing.
- D.
BVA tests boundary condition on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes.
Correct Answer
D. BVA tests boundary condition on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes.Explanation
Boundary value analysis (BVA) is a testing technique that focuses on testing the boundaries or extreme values of input and output equivalence classes. It tests the boundary conditions on, below, and above the edges of these classes. BVA helps in identifying errors that occur at the boundaries, as they are more likely to cause issues. This technique is different from equivalence partitioning, which divides the input domain into classes and selects representative values from each class for testing. BVA is not limited to structural testing, as it can be applied to various types of testing.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Analyze the program below :IF A THEN PRINT ' B LARGE ';ELSE IF Y >=Z THEN PRINT ' Y LARGE';ENDWhat is the cyclomatic complexity for the above code ?
- A.
3
- B.
2
- C.
5
- D.
4
Correct Answer
A. 3Explanation
The cyclomatic complexity of a program is a measure of the number of linearly independent paths through its source code. In this program, there are three linearly independent paths: one for the "IF A THEN" condition, one for the "ELSE IF Y >= Z THEN" condition, and one for the "ELSE" condition. Therefore, the cyclomatic complexity of this program is 3.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which general testing principles are characterized by the descriptions below ?A. Early testingB. pesticide paradoxC. Exhaustive testingD. Absence-of-errors fallacy1. Testing activities should start as early as possible in the software development life cycle. 2. Testing everything is not feasible except for trivial cases.3. Finding and fixing defects does not help if the system built is unusable and does not fulfill the user's needs and requirements.4. Test cases must be regularly reviewed and revised.
- A.
A2, B3, C1, D4
- B.
A1 , B4 , C2 , D3
- C.
A4, B2, C3, D1
- D.
A3, B1, C4, D2
Correct Answer
B. A1 , B4 , C2 , D3Explanation
The correct answer is A1, B4, C2, D3. This is because the first statement describes the principle of early testing, which emphasizes starting testing activities as early as possible in the software development life cycle. The fourth statement describes the principle of the pesticide paradox, which states that test cases must be regularly reviewed and revised to ensure their effectiveness. The second statement describes the principle of exhaustive testing, which states that testing everything is not feasible except for trivial cases. The third statement describes the principle of the absence-of-errors fallacy, which highlights that finding and fixing defects does not help if the system built is unusable and does not fulfill the user's needs and requirements.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What is oracle assumption ?
- A.
It is that there is some existing system against which the test output may be checked.
- B.
It is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.
- C.
It is that the tests are reviewed by the experienced testers.
- D.
It is that the the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of the test.
Correct Answer
D. It is that the the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of the test. -
- 29.
A test plan is written specifically to describe a level of testing where the promary goal is establishing confidence in the system. Which of the following ia a LIKELY name for this document?
- A.
Acceptance Test Plan
- B.
Project management plan
- C.
Master Test Plan
- D.
System Test Plan
Correct Answer
A. Acceptance Test PlanExplanation
The likely name for a test plan that is written to establish confidence in the system is an "Acceptance Test Plan". This type of test plan outlines the testing activities that will be conducted to determine if the system meets the requirements and is acceptable for delivery to the end users or stakeholders. The acceptance test plan focuses on validating the system's functionality, usability, and overall performance to ensure that it meets the expectations and needs of the users.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which of the following activities provides the BIGGEST potential cost saving from the use of CAST ?
- A.
Test Planning
- B.
Test Managements
- C.
Test Design
- D.
Test Execution
Correct Answer
D. Test ExecutionExplanation
Test Execution provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST. This is because CAST (Computer-Aided Software Testing) automates the execution of test cases, reducing the need for manual testing. Automation saves time and effort, allowing for faster and more efficient testing. It also reduces the risk of human error and increases test coverage. By automating the test execution process, organizations can save significant costs associated with manual testing, such as hiring and training resources, and improve overall testing productivity.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which of the following is NOT a part of performance testing?
- A.
Simulating many users
- B.
Measuring transaction rates
- C.
Measuring response time
- D.
Recovery testing
Correct Answer
D. Recovery testingExplanation
Recovery testing is not a part of performance testing. Performance testing focuses on evaluating the system's performance under different conditions such as simulating many users, measuring transaction rates, and measuring response time. Recovery testing, on the other hand, is a type of testing that checks how well the system recovers from failures or crashes. While it is an important type of testing, it is not specifically related to performance evaluation.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which of the following statements about the component testing standard is FALSE ?
- A.
Black box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique.
- B.
White box design techniques all have an associated test design technique.
- C.
Black box techniques all have an associated test design technique.
- D.
Cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique.
Correct Answer
C. Black box techniques all have an associated test design technique.Explanation
The statement "Black box techniques all have an associated test design technique" is FALSE. Black box techniques refer to testing without knowledge of the internal structure or implementation of the component being tested. These techniques focus on the input and output of the component. While black box techniques do have associated test techniques, not all of them have an associated test design technique. Some black box techniques, such as equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis, have specific test design techniques, but others, such as exploratory testing, do not have a specific associated test design technique.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What is Alpha testing ?
- A.
The first testing that is performed.
- B.
Post-release testing performed by the end-user representatives at the developer's site.
- C.
Pre-release testing performed by the end-user representatives at the developer's site.
- D.
Pre-release testing performed by the end-user representatives at the customer's site.
Correct Answer
C. Pre-release testing performed by the end-user representatives at the developer's site. -
- 34.
During which test process activity do we determine if more tests are needed ?
- A.
Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
- B.
Test closure activities
- C.
Analysis and design
- D.
Implementation and execution
Correct Answer
A. Evaluating exit criteria and reportingExplanation
During the activity of evaluating exit criteria and reporting, we assess whether the previously defined criteria for completing the testing process have been met. This involves analyzing the test results, checking if the test objectives have been achieved, and determining if additional tests are necessary to ensure the desired level of quality. This step helps in making informed decisions about whether to proceed with further testing or to conclude the testing process.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which combination of x, y, z values will ensure 100% statement coverage ?If ( x = y ) { z++ ; If (z < 5) { w = 10; } }elseif ( x > y) { w = 5; }
- A.
X = 5 , y = 1 , z = 3; x = 4 , y = 4 , z = 5
- B.
X = 3 , y = 3 , z = 3 ; x = -1 , y = -2, z = 3
- C.
X = -1 , y = -2 , z = 3 ; x = -2 , y = -1 , z = 0
- D.
X = 5 , y = 5 , z = 5 ; x = 5 , y = 4 , z = -1
Correct Answer
B. X = 3 , y = 3 , z = 3 ; x = -1 , y = -2, z = 3Explanation
The given code contains an if-else statement that checks the values of x and y. If x is equal to y, then the code inside the if block is executed. In this case, z is incremented by 1 and then it is checked if z is less than 5. If z is less than 5, the value of w is set to 10. On the other hand, if x is greater than y, the code inside the elseif block is executed and the value of w is set to 5.
In order to ensure 100% statement coverage, we need to test all possible paths of the code. The combination of x=3, y=3, and z=3 satisfies the condition x=y, and zy, so only the elseif block is executed. Therefore, these two combinations ensure 100% statement coverage.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Based on IEEE 829 standard , which sections of the test incident report should the following details be recorded?Sections :a. test incident report identifierb. summaryc. impactd. incident descriptionDetails :1. unique identifier2. version level of test items3. inputs4. expected results5. actual results6. anomalies7. date and time
- A.
A1 , b6,7 , c2,3,4,5
- B.
A1 , b2,7 , c3,4 , d5,6
- C.
A1 , b2,6,7 , c3,4,5
- D.
A1 , b2 , c3,4,5,6,7
Correct Answer
D. A1 , b2 , c3,4,5,6,7Explanation
The correct answer is a1, b2, c3,4,5,6,7. According to the IEEE 829 standard, the test incident report should include the test incident report identifier (a1), the summary (b2), and the impact (c3). Additionally, it should also record the incident description (c4), inputs (c5), expected results (c6), actual results (c7), and anomalies (c8).Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which of the following is NOT a Test analysis and design process activity ?
- A.
Identify test conditions based on analysis of test items and their specifications
- B.
Evaluate testability of the requirements and system.
- C.
Design the test environment set-up
- D.
Create test suites from the test cases
Correct Answer
D. Create test suites from the test casesExplanation
Creating test suites from test cases is not a test analysis and design process activity because it falls under the test implementation and execution phase. Test analysis and design activities involve identifying test conditions, evaluating testability, and designing the test environment set-up. Once these activities are completed, the test cases are created, and then test suites are formed from these test cases for execution.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which test support tool can be used to determine differences across data , files , database , and results.
- A.
Performance testing tool
- B.
Static analysis tool
- C.
Test Comparator
- D.
Test Management Tool
Correct Answer
C. Test ComparatorExplanation
Test Comparator is the correct answer because it is a tool specifically designed to compare and identify differences across various data sources such as files, databases, and test results. It helps in identifying discrepancies and inconsistencies in the data, allowing testers to analyze and troubleshoot any issues that may arise during testing. Test Comparator is an essential tool for ensuring data integrity and accuracy in testing processes.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Consider the code below :If (( a >b ) or ( c > d ) )e = e +1;How many test inputs are needed to achieve 100% statement coverage(SC) and 100% decision coverage (DC)
- A.
SC = 2 , DC = 1
- B.
SC = 2 ; DC = 2
- C.
SC = 1 ; DC = 1
- D.
SC = 1 ; DC = 2
Correct Answer
D. SC = 1 ; DC = 2Explanation
To achieve 100% statement coverage (SC), only one test input is needed because there is only one statement in the code. However, to achieve 100% decision coverage (DC), two test inputs are needed because there are two conditions in the code: (a > b) and (c > d). Therefore, the correct answer is SC = 1; DC = 2.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which document specifies the sequence of actions or steps to be taken by the tester in order to execute the test?
- A.
Test design specification
- B.
Test plan
- C.
Manual test script
- D.
Test case specification
Correct Answer
C. Manual test scriptExplanation
A manual test script specifies the sequence of actions or steps that a tester needs to follow in order to execute a test. It provides detailed instructions on how to perform each step, including any input data that needs to be entered and the expected output or result. By following the manual test script, the tester can ensure that the test is executed consistently and accurately. Test design specification, test plan, and test case specification may provide overall guidelines or instructions, but it is the manual test script that provides the specific sequence of actions for executing the test.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Feb 23, 2012Quiz Created by
Salbhar
ISTQB Foundation Level Agile Tester - Extension. CTFL-AT : Chapter 3
ISTQB Foundation Level Agile Tester - Extension. CTFL-AT : Chapter 3
ISTQB Foundation Level Extension - Agile Tester. CTFL-AT: Chapter 2
ISTQB Foundation Level Extension - Agile Tester. CTFL-AT: Chapter 2
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