Navy HM1 Advancement: Hospital Corpsman Exam! Hardest Trivia Quiz
Are you studying for the Navy Hm1 Advancement: Hospital Corpsman Exam? The quiz below is designed to see just how ready you are to sit and pass the exams. Do not let the fact that others have seen as the hardest trivia quiz deter you from giving it a try. All the best and check on your notes for the areas that might be problematic for you.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
What nerve controls the diaphragm?
- A.
Buccal
- B.
Glossophryngeal
- C.
Phrenic
- D.
Vagus
Correct Answer
C. PhrenicExplanation
The phrenic nerve controls the diaphragm. The diaphragm is the main muscle involved in the process of breathing. The phrenic nerve originates from the cervical spine and travels down to the diaphragm, providing the necessary motor and sensory innervation. When the phrenic nerve is stimulated, it causes the diaphragm to contract and move downward, allowing for inhalation. Therefore, the phrenic nerve plays a crucial role in the regulation of breathing and the functioning of the diaphragm.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Section 2 of the EDVR contains what?
- A.
Perspective losses
- B.
Perspective gains
- C.
NEC billets
- D.
Age
Correct Answer
A. Perspective lossesExplanation
Section 2 of the EDVR contains perspective losses. This suggests that the EDVR, whatever it may be, has different sections that cover various topics or aspects. In this particular section, the focus is on perspective losses, indicating that it provides information or details about situations or factors that result in a loss of perspective. The other options, perspective gains, NEC billets, and age, are not mentioned in this section and are therefore not the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Section 3 of the EDVR contains what?
- A.
NEC listing
- B.
Ranks
- C.
Dream sheet
- D.
Alpha roster
Correct Answer
D. Alpha rosterExplanation
Section 3 of the EDVR contains the Alpha roster.Rate this question:
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- 4.
When a deserter is apprehended or surrenders, the CO must request the member's medical record from where?
- A.
SECNAV
- B.
Previous command
- C.
BUPERS
- D.
MTF
Correct Answer
C. BUPERSExplanation
When a deserter is apprehended or surrenders, the CO must request the member's medical record from BUPERS. BUPERS stands for the Bureau of Naval Personnel, which is responsible for maintaining and managing the personnel records of Navy personnel. In this scenario, BUPERS would be the appropriate authority to request the deserter's medical record as they would have access to the necessary information and documentation.Rate this question:
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- 5.
SOAP note stands for what?
- A.
Subjective, Objective, Adjective, Persuade
- B.
Sympathize, Order, Assess, Prescribe
- C.
Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan
- D.
Select, Object, Address, Plan
Correct Answer
C. Subjective, Objective, Assessment, PlanExplanation
The correct answer is "Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan." In a SOAP note, the subjective section includes the patient's complaints and symptoms, the objective section includes the healthcare provider's observations and measurements, the assessment section includes the diagnosis and evaluation of the patient's condition, and the plan section includes the proposed treatment and follow-up plan.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Where are family advocacy records maintained?
- A.
MTF
- B.
Family Service Center
- C.
Servicemember's command
- D.
Fleet Family Services
Correct Answer
B. Family Service CenterExplanation
Family advocacy records are maintained at the Family Service Center. This is where information related to family advocacy, such as counseling and support services for military families, is documented and stored. The Family Service Center is a dedicated facility that provides assistance and resources to servicemembers and their families, making it the most appropriate location for maintaining these records.Rate this question:
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- 7.
When a family advocacy record is closed, you must keep it at the MTF for how long?
- A.
1 year
- B.
2 years
- C.
3 years
- D.
4 years
Correct Answer
D. 4 yearsExplanation
When a family advocacy record is closed, it must be kept at the MTF (Medical Treatment Facility) for a period of 4 years. This is to ensure that the record is accessible if needed for any future reference or legal purposes. Keeping the record for this duration allows for sufficient time to address any potential issues or concerns that may arise after the closure of the record.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What form is the Privacy Act Statement in medical records?
- A.
DD 2007
- B.
DD 205
- C.
DD 2005
- D.
DD 202
Correct Answer
C. DD 2005Explanation
The correct answer is DD 2005. The Privacy Act Statement in medical records is in the form of DD 2005.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What form is used when a complete report of physical exam is required?
- A.
SF 85
- B.
SF 86
- C.
SF 88
- D.
SF 87
Correct Answer
C. SF 88Explanation
The SF 88 form is used when a complete report of a physical exam is required. This form is specifically designed for medical professionals to document a thorough examination of an individual's physical health. It includes sections to record vital signs, medical history, physical findings, and other relevant information. This form is commonly used for military personnel, law enforcement officers, and other individuals who require a comprehensive physical examination as part of their job requirements.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Does this form provide a brief, accurate account of the care and treatment given_______?
- A.
SF 501
- B.
SF 603
- C.
SF 5
- D.
SF 502
Correct Answer
D. SF 502Explanation
The correct answer is SF 502 because it is the only option that is relevant to the question. SF 501, SF 603, and SF 5 do not provide any information about the care and treatment given. SF 502 is the only form that is likely to contain a brief and accurate account of the care and treatment provided.Rate this question:
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- 11.
This form is used for the provisional anatomic diagnosis and completed the autopsy protocol.
- A.
SF 510
- B.
SF 503
- C.
SF 509
- D.
SF 600
Correct Answer
B. SF 503Explanation
The given answer, SF 503, is the correct option because it is the form used for the provisional anatomic diagnosis and completing the autopsy protocol. This form is specifically designed for documenting the initial diagnosis made during the autopsy process and for recording all the necessary information related to the autopsy. Therefore, SF 503 is the most appropriate choice for the given situation.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What form reflects any changes in condition and the results of the treatments?
Correct Answer
SF 509-Progress NotesExplanation
The SF 509-Progress Notes form reflects any changes in condition and the results of the treatments. This form is commonly used in medical settings to document the progress of a patient's treatment. It allows healthcare professionals to track the patient's condition over time, including any improvements or worsening of symptoms, as well as the effectiveness of the treatments provided. By documenting these changes and results, the SF 509-Progress Notes form helps ensure continuity of care and facilitates communication between healthcare providers.Rate this question:
- 13.
What is an SF 513?
Correct Answer
Consultation sheetExplanation
An SF 513 is a consultation sheet.Rate this question:
- 14.
What is an SF 522 used for?
Correct Answer
Request for Administration of Anesthesia and Performance of OperationsExplanation
The SF 522 form is used to request the administration of anesthesia and the performance of operations. This form is typically used in medical settings where anesthesia is required for surgical procedures. It serves as a formal request to the appropriate medical personnel to administer anesthesia and perform the necessary operations. The SF 522 helps ensure that the anesthesia and surgical procedures are carried out safely and in accordance with established protocols.Rate this question:
- 15.
This form is used for outpatient care and provides a current, concise and comprehensive record of a patient's medical history?
- A.
SF 600
- B.
SF 599
- C.
SF 601
- D.
SF 550
Correct Answer
A. SF 600Explanation
The SF 600 form is used for outpatient care and provides a current, concise, and comprehensive record of a patient's medical history. This form is commonly used in military healthcare settings to document medical visits, procedures, and treatments received by a patient. It helps healthcare providers have a complete understanding of the patient's medical background and aids in providing appropriate and effective care.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What form is the Record of Immunizations?
Correct Answer
SF 601Explanation
The Record of Immunizations is in the form of SF 601.Rate this question:
- 17.
What form is the International Certificates of Vaccinations or "yellow card"?
Correct Answer
PHS 731Explanation
The International Certificates of Vaccinations or "yellow card" is in the form of PHS 731.Rate this question:
- 18.
What is a NAVMED 6150/2, Special Duty Medical Abstract, used for?
Correct Answer
Physical qualifications, special training & periodic exams of members designated for special duty (aviation, dive, sub, etc.).Explanation
The NAVMED 6150/2, Special Duty Medical Abstract, is used to document the physical qualifications, special training, and periodic exams of members designated for special duty such as aviation, dive, submarine, and other similar roles. This form helps to ensure that individuals in these specialized positions meet the necessary medical requirements and are fit to perform their duties safely and effectively.Rate this question:
- 19.
What is the primary lifting device of an aircraft?
- A.
Fuselage
- B.
Wings
- C.
Engine
- D.
Propeller
Correct Answer
A. FuselageExplanation
The primary lifting device of an aircraft is the wings. The wings generate lift by creating a pressure difference between the upper and lower surfaces, allowing the aircraft to overcome gravity and stay airborne. The fuselage, on the other hand, provides the main structure of the aircraft and houses the cockpit, passengers, cargo, and other essential components. While the engine and propeller play crucial roles in providing thrust and propulsion, they do not directly contribute to the generation of lift.Rate this question:
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- 20.
How often are periodic performance evals submitted for personnel in paygrades E3 and below?
- A.
Quarterly
- B.
Annually
- C.
Monthly
- D.
Bi-weekly
Correct Answer
B. AnnuallyExplanation
Personnel in paygrades E3 and below are evaluated annually. This means that their performance is assessed once a year. This evaluation process helps in determining their progress, identifying areas for improvement, and making decisions regarding promotions or salary adjustments. Quarterly evaluations would occur four times a year, monthly evaluations would occur twelve times a year, and bi-weekly evaluations would occur every two weeks, which are not applicable in this case. Therefore, the correct answer is annually.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What UCMJ artical explains CO's non-judical punishment?
Correct Answer
Article 15
15Explanation
The correct answer is Article 15. Article 15 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) provides the authority for commanding officers to administer non-judicial punishment (NJP) to service members who have committed minor offenses. NJP is a disciplinary measure that allows commanders to address misconduct without going through a formal court-martial process. It is designed to maintain discipline and good order within the military while providing a fair and efficient means of addressing misconduct.Rate this question:
- 22.
A burning fuel oil tank is classified as what class of fire?
- A.
Alpha
- B.
Bravo
- C.
Charlie
- D.
Delta
Correct Answer
B. BravoExplanation
A burning fuel oil tank is classified as a Bravo class of fire. The Bravo class refers to fires involving flammable liquids such as gasoline, oil, and diesel fuel. These fires can be extremely dangerous and require special firefighting techniques, such as using foam or dry chemical extinguishers, to suppress the flames.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Environmental pollution refers to what parts of our environment?
- A.
Air
- B.
Water
- C.
Soil
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
Environmental pollution refers to the contamination and degradation of various components of our environment, including air, water, and soil. Air pollution refers to the release of harmful substances into the atmosphere, water pollution refers to the contamination of water bodies with pollutants, and soil pollution refers to the degradation of soil quality due to the presence of toxic substances. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above" as environmental pollution affects all these aspects of our environment.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What are the two elements of a ship's organization?
- A.
Battle organization
- B.
A & C
- C.
Administration organization
- D.
Seafaring organization
Correct Answer
B. A & CExplanation
The two elements of a ship's organization are battle organization and administration organization. Battle organization refers to the structure and arrangement of personnel and resources during combat or warfare situations. Administration organization, on the other hand, pertains to the management and coordination of non-combat related tasks and functions, such as logistics, finance, and personnel management.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Who is responsible for supply and treatment of potable water on board ships?
- A.
Medical Department
- B.
Engineering Department
- C.
CO
- D.
CMC
Correct Answer
B. Engineering DepartmentExplanation
The Engineering Department is responsible for the supply and treatment of potable water on board ships. This department is in charge of maintaining and operating the ship's systems, including the water supply and treatment systems. They ensure that the water on board is safe for consumption by the crew and passengers. This includes monitoring water quality, conducting regular tests, and performing necessary maintenance and repairs to ensure a continuous supply of potable water.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which of the following is NOT part of the alimentary canal?
- A.
Anus
- B.
Stomach
- C.
Mouth
- D.
Trachea
Correct Answer
D. TracheaExplanation
The alimentary canal is a long tube that starts from the mouth and ends at the anus, and it includes organs like the stomach and the mouth. The trachea, on the other hand, is a part of the respiratory system and is responsible for carrying air to and from the lungs. Therefore, the trachea is not part of the alimentary canal.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What does Section 1 of the EDVR contain?
Correct Answer
Perspective gains - 28.
The EDVR is organized into how many sections?
Correct Answer
12
TwelveExplanation
The EDVR is organized into 12 sections.Rate this question:
- 29.
Who provides potable water from approved sources when a ship is berthed at a Naval facility?
- A.
Naval Facilities Engineering Command (NAVFACENGCOM)
- B.
Coast Guard
- C.
EPA
- D.
MTF
Correct Answer
A. Naval Facilities Engineering Command (NAVFACENGCOM)Explanation
Naval Facilities Engineering Command (NAVFACENGCOM) provides potable water from approved sources when a ship is berthed at a Naval facility. This means that NAVFACENGCOM is responsible for ensuring that the water provided to the ship is safe and suitable for drinking. The Coast Guard, EPA, and MTF are not mentioned in relation to providing potable water in this context, so they are not the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 30.
________ affect the supportive and connective tissues of the jaw bones.
- A.
Wheals
- B.
Sarcomas
- C.
Blisters
- D.
Abcesses
Correct Answer
B. SarcomasExplanation
Sarcomas are a type of cancer that can affect the supportive and connective tissues of the jaw bones. These malignant tumors can arise from different types of soft tissues, such as muscle, fat, blood vessels, or bone. Sarcomas in the jaw bones can cause pain, swelling, difficulty in chewing or speaking, and may require surgical removal or other treatments like radiation or chemotherapy. It is important to diagnose and treat sarcomas early to prevent further spread and damage to the jaw bones and surrounding tissues.Rate this question:
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- 31.
These muscles acting individually rotate the head left or right and acting together, bend the head toward the chest.
Correct Answer
SternocleidomastoidExplanation
The sternocleidomastoid muscle is responsible for rotating the head left or right when acting individually. When both sides of the muscle work together, they bend the head towards the chest.Rate this question:
- 32.
Cancerous, dark bluish-purple lesions that involve the blood vessels are what?
- A.
Botryoid sarcoma
- B.
Giant-cell sarcoma
- C.
Sarcoidosis
- D.
Kaposi's sarcoma
Correct Answer
D. Kaposi's sarcomaExplanation
Kaposi's sarcoma is a type of cancer that causes dark bluish-purple lesions on the skin. These lesions are caused by abnormal growth of blood vessels. Kaposi's sarcoma is commonly seen in individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV/AIDS. The condition can also affect other organs, including the lungs and gastrointestinal tract.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Oral cancer is most commonly found in what areas?
- A.
Hard palate
- B.
Floor of mouth
- C.
Lower lip
- D.
Tongue
- E.
B, C & D
Correct Answer
E. B, C & DExplanation
Oral cancer is most commonly found in the hard palate, floor of the mouth, lower lip, and tongue. These areas are frequently affected by oral cancer due to factors such as tobacco and alcohol use, poor oral hygiene, and viral infections. Tumors in these areas can cause symptoms like mouth sores, difficulty swallowing, and changes in speech. Early detection and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in oral cancer patients.Rate this question:
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- 34.
This is usually found in the oral region of salivary glands, most often the palate and appears as a lump or bulge under mucosa?
- A.
Adenocarcinoma
- B.
Carcinoma
- C.
Wheal
- D.
Sarcoma
Correct Answer
A. AdenocarcinomaExplanation
Adenocarcinoma is the correct answer because it is a type of cancer that commonly occurs in the oral region of salivary glands, particularly in the palate. It presents as a lump or bulge under the mucosa. Carcinoma refers to any type of cancer, but it is not specific to the oral region or salivary glands. Wheal refers to a raised, itchy area on the skin, which is not relevant to the given context. Sarcoma is a type of cancer that originates in connective tissues, not salivary glands.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What information would you find in section 10 of the EDVR?
Correct Answer
Duty preferences that have been recieved and processed
Processed duty preferences
Duty preferencesExplanation
Section 10 of the EDVR contains information about duty preferences that have been received and processed. This section provides details on the duty preferences that individuals have submitted and the status of their processing. It includes information on the preferences that have been received and successfully processed, as well as any updates or changes made to these preferences. This section is important for individuals who want to know the current status of their duty preferences and any updates related to them.Rate this question:
- 36.
What section of the EDVR contains the Personnel Status Summary?
Correct Answer
Section 5Explanation
The Personnel Status Summary is located in Section 5 of the EDVR.Rate this question:
- 37.
What type of appropriations are made for appropriations that require long lead time for planning and execution?
Correct Answer
Multiple year appropriations
Multiple yearExplanation
Multiple year appropriations are made for appropriations that require long lead time for planning and execution. This type of appropriation allows for funds to be allocated over multiple fiscal years, providing the necessary resources for projects or programs that cannot be completed within a single year. By spreading the funding over multiple years, it allows for better planning and ensures a consistent flow of resources for long-term projects.Rate this question:
- 38.
What results would you annotate on form DD 2808?
- A.
NEC
- B.
HIV results
- C.
G-6 PD results
- D.
B & C
Correct Answer
D. B & CExplanation
Form DD 2808 is a medical examination form used by the Department of Defense to assess the medical fitness of individuals for military service. The form requires the annotation of various medical results. In this case, the correct answer is B & C, which means that both HIV results and G-6 PD results should be annotated on form DD 2808. This implies that individuals undergoing the medical examination need to provide their HIV test results as well as their G-6 PD test results for evaluation.Rate this question:
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- 39.
The Shock Trauma Platoon (STP) has how many patients holding beds in its pure form?
- A.
5
- B.
10
- C.
15
- D.
20
Correct Answer
B. 10Explanation
The Shock Trauma Platoon (STP) has 10 patients holding beds in its pure form.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What is a monthly statement on activities enlisted personnel account, listing all individuals assigned and provides a summary of present and future manning?
Correct Answer
EDVRExplanation
EDVR stands for Enlisted Distribution and Verification Report. It is a monthly statement that provides a summary of present and future manning for enlisted personnel. It lists all individuals assigned to a particular unit or organization and includes information about their assignments and activities. This report helps in tracking and managing the manpower resources within the enlisted personnel account.Rate this question:
- 41.
What does a Random Sampling Inventory measure?
Correct Answer
Measures the stock record accuracy for a segment of material on hand
The stock record accuracy for a segment of material on handExplanation
A Random Sampling Inventory measures the stock record accuracy for a segment of material on hand. It helps to determine how accurately the inventory records match the actual physical inventory. This method involves randomly selecting a sample of items from the inventory and comparing the recorded quantities with the actual quantities counted. By doing so, it provides an estimate of the overall accuracy of the inventory records for that particular segment of material.Rate this question:
- 42.
What color of piping is used to identify the ship's fire main system?
Correct Answer
RedExplanation
The color red is used to identify the ship's fire main system. This is because red is a universally recognized color for indicating danger and emergencies. By using red piping, it helps to quickly and easily identify the fire main system on a ship, allowing for immediate action to be taken in case of a fire emergency.Rate this question:
- 43.
What year was the first underwater launch of a Polaris guided missile successful?
- A.
1961
- B.
1957
- C.
1960
- D.
1959
Correct Answer
C. 1960Explanation
In 1960, the first underwater launch of a Polaris guided missile was successful. This marked a significant achievement in military technology and demonstrated the capability of launching missiles from submarines.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which two combat systems came into full use during WW II?
Correct Answer
Radar and sonar
Sonar and radarExplanation
During World War II, both radar and sonar systems were utilized extensively. Radar was used to detect and track enemy aircraft, allowing for early warning and effective defense. Sonar, on the other hand, was used to detect and track enemy submarines, enabling the Allied forces to locate and neutralize underwater threats. Both systems played crucial roles in enhancing the combat capabilities of the military during the war.Rate this question:
- 45.
What is the maximum effective range of discharge hoses when connected to the FP-180?
- A.
100 ft
- B.
200 ft
- C.
300 ft
- D.
400 ft
Correct Answer
A. 100 ftExplanation
The maximum effective range of discharge hoses when connected to the FP-180 is 100 ft. This means that the discharge hoses can reach a maximum distance of 100 ft when connected to the FP-180.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What article of the UCMJ deals specifically with drug offenses?
- A.
112
- B.
110
- C.
99
- D.
112a
Correct Answer
D. 112aExplanation
Article 112a of the UCMJ deals specifically with drug offenses. This article outlines the punishments and penalties for various drug-related offenses committed by military personnel. It covers offenses such as possession, distribution, and use of illegal drugs, as well as the possession and distribution of drug paraphernalia. This article is important in maintaining discipline and ensuring the safety and readiness of the military forces.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Before going over the side or aloft to work, you must obtain permission from whom?
Correct Answer
OODExplanation
Before going over the side or aloft to work, you must obtain permission from the OOD (Officer of the Deck). The OOD is responsible for the safe operation and navigation of the ship and has the authority to grant or deny permission for crew members to perform tasks outside of the ship's normal operations. This ensures that proper safety protocols are followed and that the work being done does not interfere with the overall functioning of the ship.Rate this question:
- 48.
Which personnel are authorized to certify a closed space is safe to enter?
- A.
Medical Department Represenative
- B.
Gas free engineers
- C.
OOD
- D.
CO
Correct Answer
B. Gas free engineersExplanation
Gas free engineers are authorized to certify a closed space is safe to enter. These engineers have the expertise and knowledge to assess and eliminate any potential hazards or risks associated with entering a closed space. They are trained to conduct thorough inspections, test for gas leaks, and ensure proper ventilation before granting permission to enter the space. Their certification provides assurance that the area is free from any dangerous gases or substances, making it safe for personnel to enter.Rate this question:
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- 49.
The M258A1 decon kit is used to decontaminate which agent?
- A.
Nuclear
- B.
Riot
- C.
Chemical
- D.
Nerve
Correct Answer
C. ChemicalExplanation
The M258A1 decon kit is used to decontaminate chemical agents. It is specifically designed for chemical decontamination purposes and is not suitable for decontaminating other types of agents such as nuclear, riot, or nerve agents.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Aug 26, 2009Quiz Created by
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