Take Another Quiz

Final Exam Part 2 (101-200)

94 Questions
Online Exam Quizzes & Trivia

Final exam final exam final exam final exam final exam final exam final exam final exam final exam final exam

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Your patient has a negative RPR, but a positive treponemal test (FTA-ABS).  Which of the following is NOT a possible explanation?
    • A. 

      Lyme disease

    • B. 

      Untreated early syphilis

    • C. 

      Adequately treated syphilis

    • D. 

      Untreated late syphilis

    • E. 

      All of the above are possibilities

  • 2. 
    When making a wet mount slide for evaluation of your patient’s vaginitis, the KOH prep (potassium hydroxide) is used for:
    • A. 

      Checking for GNIDS (gram negative intracellular bacteria)

    • B. 

      Checking for hyphae and spores of fungal infections

    • C. 

      Viewing aclue cells

    • D. 

      Keeping trichomonads motile

  • 3. 
    The first serology test to detect Hepatitis A virus infection is:
    • A. 

      Anti-hepatitis B core

    • B. 

      IgM anti-HAV antibody

    • C. 

      IgG anti-HAV antibody

    • D. 

      Hepatitis A antigen

  • 4. 
    Which serology test indicates immunity and confirmation of Hepatitis A?
    • A. 

      Anti-hepatitis A IgG antibody

    • B. 

      Hepatitis A serum antigen

    • C. 

      Transaminases

    • D. 

      Anti-hepatitis A IgM antibody

  • 5. 
    The first serological marker to appear in a person with  Hepatitis B is the:
    • A. 

      Hepatitis B core antigen

    • B. 

      Hepatitis B IgM antibody

    • C. 

      Hepatitis B IgG antibody

    • D. 

      Hepatitis B surface antigen

  • 6. 
    A serology test that is helpful in detecting Hepatitis B infections during the “window” period:
    • A. 

      IgM antibody Hepatitis B

    • B. 

      IgG antibody Hepatitis B

    • C. 

      IgE antibody Hepatitis B

    • D. 

      IgC antibody Hepatitis B

  • 7. 
    Which serology marker, when persistently present in the blood beyond 6 months, indicates development of chronic Hepatitis B?
    • A. 

      Hepatitis B core antigen antibody

    • B. 

      IgG antibody HepatitisB

    • C. 

      Hepatitis B surface antigen

    • D. 

      IgM antibody Hepatitis B

  • 8. 
                          A screening test for Hepatitis C in a high risk patient is the:      
    • A. 

      ELISA

    • B. 

      EIA-III

    • C. 

      Hepatitis C surface antigen

    • D. 

      Heptitis C antigen antibody

  • 9. 
    The above screening test for Hepatitis C is positive.  This indicates the patient has which form of the disease?
    • A. 

      Acute

    • B. 

      Chronic

    • C. 

      Resolved infection

    • D. 

      The test does not differentiate stages of infection

  • 10. 
    Confirmation of Hepaitis C is determined by a second test which is the:    
    • A. 

      Recombinant Immunoblot (RIBA)

    • B. 

      DNA quantification

    • C. 

      HCV antibody titer

    • D. 

      HCV surface antibody

  • 11. 
    In order for a positive diagnosis of an HIV infection, two test must be positive. They are:
    • A. 

      RNA viral load and RIBA

    • B. 

      ELISA and Western Blot

    • C. 

      CD4 and HIV-1 RNA

    • D. 

      BDNA and HIV-1 RNA

  • 12. 
    You perform iron studies to try to discern whether your patient with microcytic, hypochromic anemia has anemia of chronic disease or iron deficiency anemia.  Which of the following findings would indicate anemia of chronic disease
    • A. 

      Low serum iron, elevated TIBC, low serum ferritin

    • B. 

      Elevated serum ferritin, elevated TIBC, elevated transferrin, elevated serum iron

    • C. 

      Low serum iron, low TIBC, elevated transferrin, elevated serum iron

    • D. 

      Low serum iron, low TIBC, low transferrin, elevated ferritin

  • 13. 
    Which of the following is NOT a secondary cause for hyperlipidemia?
    • A. 

      Hypothyroidism

    • B. 

      Diabetes Mellitus

    • C. 

      Addison’s disease

    • D. 

      Nephrotic syndrome

    • E. 

      Alcohol abuse

  • 14. 
    An elevation or decrease of which electrolyte can be especially dangerous for heart muscle?
    • A. 

      Sodium

    • B. 

      Bicarbonate

    • C. 

      Potassium

    • D. 

      Chloride

    • E. 

      Magnesium

  • 15. 
    Which of the following is often seen in liver disease?
    • A. 

      Hyperglycemia

    • B. 

      Elevated serum albumin

    • C. 

      Enhanced production of clotting factors

    • D. 

      Hypoglycemia

  • 16. 
    Which of the following is most consistent with the hepatic enzyme profile of a person who abuses alcohol?
    • A. 

      AST 98 U/L, ALT 210 U/L

    • B. 

      AST 1208 U/L , ALT 560 U/L

    • C. 

      AST 101 U/L, ALT 53 U/L

    • D. 

      AST 678 U/L , ALT 990 U/L

  • 17. 
    A 21yr old febrile woman presents with a total WBC of 15,200.  The most likely cause for this is
    • A. 

      Malignancy

    • B. 

      Viral infection

    • C. 

      Bacterial infection

    • D. 

      Inflammation

  • 18. 
    Macrocytes may be seen on the peripheral smear of all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Alcoholism

    • B. 

      Folate deficiency

    • C. 

      Iron deficiency

    • D. 

      Vitamin B12 deficiency

  • 19. 
    In health, the absolute band count is usually below:
    • A. 

      1500

    • B. 

      1000

    • C. 

      800

    • D. 

      500

    • E. 

      200

  • 20. 
    After migration into tissue basophils undergo transformation into
    • A. 

      Kupffer cells

    • B. 

      Mast cells

    • C. 

      Cochle bodies

    • D. 

      Macrophages

  • 21. 
    Patients with Pheochromocytoma exhibit a triad of symptoms to include all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Diaphoresis

    • B. 

      Hypotension

    • C. 

      Palpitations

    • D. 

      Headache

  • 22. 
    The most common disorder of the anterior pituitary is:
    • A. 

      SIADH

    • B. 

      Diabetes Insipidus

    • C. 

      Hypogonadism

    • D. 

      Hyperprolactinemia

  • 23. 
    When looking at a chest x-ray an area of the lung that is filled with fluid, will appear:
    • A. 

      White or light gray

    • B. 

      Radiolucent

    • C. 

      Black or very dark

    • D. 

      Marbled

  • 24. 
    When ordering a chest x-ray for a patient with a cough and fever, the appropriate outpatient view is:
    • A. 

      AP and lateral

    • B. 

      PA and lateral

    • C. 

      AP and decubitus

    • D. 

      PA and decubitus

  • 25. 
    There are four densities (fat, water, air, metal) in the human body which absorb varying degrees of radiation.  Which of the following correctly ranks these densities from most radiolucent to most radiodense?
    • A. 

      Air, fat, water, metal

    • B. 

      Fat, water, air, metal

    • C. 

      Metal, water, fat, air

    • D. 

      Air, water, fat, metal

  • 26. 
    A distortion commonly seen in a portable chest radiograph is:
    • A. 

      Expanded view of the right atrium and ventricle

    • B. 

      The chest is not fully expanded but the diaphragm is descended

    • C. 

      The heart is enlarged

    • D. 

      The absence of pulmonary edema that may be clinically present

  • 27. 
    When evaluating chest radiographs, a generalized decrease in vascular markings as you view outward to the periphery may be suggestive of:  (not sure)
    • A. 

      Pneumothorax

    • B. 

      Pneumonia

    • C. 

      Pulmonary Stenosis

    • D. 

      Fluid overload or CHF

  • 28. 
    A blunted or obscured costophrenic angle on a chest x-ray is most likely due to
    • A. 

      Pneumothorax

    • B. 

      Pleural effusion

    • C. 

      Fibrosis

    • D. 

      Lobar pneumonia

  • 29. 
    If you suspect a pneumothorax, you should order which type of chest x-ray
    • A. 

      Portable

    • B. 

      Lateral

    • C. 

      Expiratory

    • D. 

      Inspiratory

  • 30. 
    At what age should initial cholesterol and lipid screening begin
    • A. 

      Age 35

    • B. 

      At the age of 40 for men, 50 for women

    • C. 

      Between the ages of 30-40

    • D. 

      Between the age of 18-21

  • 31. 
    Which of the following is considered a single gene disorder
    • A. 

      Parkinson’s disease

    • B. 

      Alzheimer’s disease

    • C. 

      Hemachromatosis

    • D. 

      Hypertensiosn

  • 32. 
    A person with a BRCA1 mutation has an increased risk of which of the following cancer(s)? 1. Breast 2. Ovarian 3. Colon 4. Prostate
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      Answers 1 and 2

    • C. 

      All of the above

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 33. 
    Joey Fastdriver was in a head on collision. He reports hitting his head on the windshield. His neuro exam is wnl, however you still would like to rule out any lesions that might need immediate surgical intervention.  The best test to choose is:
    • A. 

      Head CT with contrast

    • B. 

      Head CT without contrast

    • C. 

      MRI of the head

    • D. 

      CT angiography

  • 34. 
    What test must be checked before spinal puncture to rule out increased intracranial pressure?
    • A. 

      MRI

    • B. 

      PET scan of the brain

    • C. 

      CT of the head

    • D. 

      Blood pressure is sufficient

  • 35. 
    You have a patient who is complaining of numbness and tingling of the first 3 fingers in her right hand.  She is a painter, but she also was in a MVA six months ago.  What tests would you order to differentiate a cervical radicular lesion from carpal tunnel syndrome?
    • A. 

      EMG and ENG

    • B. 

      EEG

    • C. 

      MRI of the cervical spine

    • D. 

      X-ray of the right wrist

  • 36. 
    In which of the following conditions might you find an elevated PSA?
    • A. 

      Prostatitis

    • B. 

      Prostate cancer

    • C. 

      BPH

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      Prostate cancer and BPH

  • 37. 
    Tumor markers are useful for everything below except:
    • A. 

      Cancer screening

    • B. 

      Monitoring the effects of therapy

    • C. 

      Detecting recurrences of cancer

    • D. 

      Pinpointing tissue of origin

    • E. 

      Folowing the clinical course

  • 38. 
    Your patient’s Western Blot was positive for HIV.  What further testing would you do now?
    • A. 

      Chest x-ray

    • B. 

      CD4 counts and viral load

    • C. 

      Coagulation studies

    • D. 

      Immunoflourescent panel

  • 39. 
    A definitive diagnosis fo DVT is most often made with
    • A. 

      Positive Homan’s sign

    • B. 

      Contrast venography

    • C. 

      Doppler Ultrasonography

    • D. 

      Magnetic Resonance angiography (MRA)

  • 40. 
    Harry Grant is a 47 yr old caucasian who had a previous history of IV drug abuse. His only complaint is fatigue Liver enzymes and hepatitis screen were ordered.  What would these results indicate to you? HBsAG positive HBcAB positive Anti HBe positive HBe antigen negative Anti-HBs negative
    • A. 

      Harry has active hepatitis B and is infectious

    • B. 

      The positive core antibody indicates previous infection and present immunity

    • C. 

      The positive surface antigen and core antibody, and antibody to e antigen indicate that he is a chronic carrier with low risk of infectivity

    • D. 

      The negative hepatitis B e antigen indicates that Harry is highly infectious

  • 41. 
    Anita Bruno is a 55-yr old schoolteacher with type II diabetes who presents to your office with the complaints of low-grade fever for 3 days and cramping right upper quadrant pain, radiating to the right scapula. You suspect cholecystitis.  Which is the best test to choose first?
    • A. 

      KUB

    • B. 

      Upper endoscopy

    • C. 

      Upper GI series with small bowel follow through

    • D. 

      Ultrasound and hepatobiliary imaging (HIDA scan) of the gall bladder

  • 42. 
    Laboratory evaluation of hematuria begins with:
    • A. 

      Cystoscopy

    • B. 

      IVP (intravenous pyelogram)

    • C. 

      Serum BUN and creatinine

    • D. 

      Urinalysis and urine culture

  • 43. 
    Findings suggestive of bacterial vaginosis on wet mount include:
    • A. 

      Budding hyphae

    • B. 

      Clue cells

    • C. 

      Lactobacilli

    • D. 

      Trichomonas vaginalis

  • 44. 
    Which of the following intial tests are most appropriate when one suspects osteoporosis?
    • A. 

      CT scan of the L-S spine, serum PTH

    • B. 

      DEXA scan of the L-S spine, serum calcium, and alkaline phosphatase

    • C. 

      Thyroid scan and CBC

    • D. 

      Serum vitamin D levels, x-rays of the L-S spine

  • 45. 
    What laboratory tests do you order to confirm a diagnosis of syphillis?
    • A. 

      ELISA and confirm with Western Blot

    • B. 

      VDRL or RPR and confirm with specific treponemal tests

    • C. 

      VDRL and serology, confirm with a blood culture

    • D. 

      ELISA and Western Blot, confirm with treponemal tests

  • 46. 
    Your patient who returned from a camping trip in the northeast a few weeks ago is complaining of an erthematous lesion on her right forearm that is increasing in size, a mild headache, malaise and occasional fever and chills. You suspect lyme disease.  Which tests do you order?
    • A. 

      IgG and IgM for B. burgforferi antibodies

    • B. 

      ELISA

    • C. 

      Western Blot

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 47. 
    What are the screening guidelines for lung cancer?
    • A. 

      According to the American Cancer Society (ACS) guidelines, chest x-rays should be performed for all smoking and high risk patients over the age of 45.

    • B. 

      According to the American Cancer Society’s guidelines, early morning sputum should be obtained x 3 for cytology

    • C. 

      According to the National Cancer Institute (NCI), there are no beneficial, cost effective screening tools available for asymptomatic, high-risk persons

    • D. 

      According to the NCI, both sputum cytology and chest x-rays should be used as screening tools in asymptomatic, high risk persons

  • 48. 
    CEA antigen is a useful test for screening for gastric carcinomas, pancreatic carcinoma, breast cancer, lung cancer, ovarian cancer
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 49. 
    CA 125 is an excellent screening test to use to rule out ovarian cancer.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 50. 
    What is the percentage of people experiencing an acute MI with a non-diagnostic EKG
    • A. 

      25%

    • B. 

      50%

    • C. 

      75%

    • D. 

      100%

  • 51. 
    What is the normal FEV1/FVC ratio?
    • A. 

      Less than 25%

    • B. 

      Greater than 80%

    • C. 

      Less than 70%

    • D. 

      100%

  • 52. 
    What is the term for frequency of disease in a group?
    • A. 

      Frequency measurements

    • B. 

      Occurrences

    • C. 

      Prevalence

    • D. 

      Endemic

  • 53. 
    Choose A
    • A. 

      XXX

    • B. 

      XXX

    • C. 

      XXX

    • D. 

      XXX

  • 54. 
    You have a patient with chest pain, dyspnea, and hemoptysis. You suspect a pulmonary embolism.  What blood test do you want to order before sending her for a CTA (CT angiography)
    • A. 

      CBC

    • B. 

      PT/PTT

    • C. 

      Blood gases

    • D. 

      D-dimer

  • 55. 
    BNP (B natriuretic paptide’s) main benefit is its negative predictive value. If BNP levels are less than 100, which of the following conditions is ruled out?
    • A. 

      Hyperparathyroidism

    • B. 

      Acute MI

    • C. 

      Congestive heart failure

    • D. 

      COPD

  • 56. 
    A patient has an FEV1 of 1.91 liters (52% of the predicted value).  Which of the following might result in this low value? 1.     Small airways obstruction 2.     Poor effort at the start of the test 3.     Restriction due to fibrosis 4.     COPD
    • A. 

      All of the above

    • B. 

      1,3, 4

    • C. 

      1,2, 3

    • D. 

      1,2,4

    • E. 

      2,3,4

  • 57. 
    Choose A
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      A

    • C. 

      A

  • 58. 
    Choose A
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      A

    • C. 

      A

  • 59. 
    Deterrmine which of the urinary system functions is incorrect. ____
    • A. 

      Removes unwanted wastes

    • B. 

      Stabilizes blood volume, acidity, and electrolytes

    • C. 

      Regulates extracellular fluids of the body and the absorption of calcium ions by activating vitamin D

    • D. 

      Secretes the hormone renin, which controls the rate of red blood cell formation, and the hormone erythropoietin, which regulates blood pressure

  • 60. 
    Which of the following is an incorrect association? ____
    • A. 

      Urinary bladder/a hollow, muscular organ that holds urine until it is expelled

    • B. 

      Glomerulus/the tubular parts of the nephron

    • C. 

      Urethra/a tube that carries urine to the outside of the body

    • D. 

      Ureter/a slender, muscular tube 10 to 12 inches long that carries the urine formed in the kidneys

  • 61. 
    Which of the following describes the process in which fluids and dissolved substances that are in the blood are forced through the pores of the glomerulus into the glomerular capsule by hydrostatic pressure? ____
    • A. 

      Filtration

    • B. 

      Reabsorption

    • C. 

      Secretion

    • D. 

      Renal threshold

  • 62. 
    Two substances that are too large to be filtered from the blood in the glomerulus are ____.
    • A. 

      Urea and creatinine

    • B. 

      Water and electrolytes

    • C. 

      Proteins and RBCs

    • D. 

      Water and sugar

  • 63. 
    Which of the following substances is/are not normally found in urine? ____
    • A. 

      Urea, uric acid

    • B. 

      Creatinine

    • C. 

      Ammonia

    • D. 

      Glucose

  • 64. 
    The specific gravity is determined in what part of the urinalysis procedure? ____
    • A. 

      Collection

    • B. 

      Physical analysis

    • C. 

      Chemical analysis

    • D. 

      Microscopic analysis

  • 65. 
    Determine the statement that is incorrect regarding a 24-hour urine collection. ____
    • A. 

      After the patient has completed the procedure and returned the container, you should check the label for completeness and ask the patient whether there were any problems during the collection procedure.

    • B. 

      Instruct the patient to empty the bladder into the toilet when arising on the first day of the 24-hour procedure.

    • C. 

      Instruct the patient to empty the bladder into the toilet when arising on the second day of the 24-hour procedure.

    • D. 

      If at any time during the procedure some urine is not collected, the test must be started again.

  • 66. 
    Urine that is allowed to sit for too long at room temperature will undergo which of the following changes? ____
    • A. 

      Glucose will increase in the urine because of bacteria metabolism.

    • B. 

      Casts and crystals will increase.

    • C. 

      Cells in the urine will lyse open.

    • D. 

      Bilirubin, if present, will increase.

  • 67. 
    Which of the following urine colors is abnormal? ____
    • A. 

      Amber

    • B. 

      Yellow-brown

    • C. 

      Light yellow

    • D. 

      Straw colored

  • 68. 
    Which of the following statements regarding chemical urinalysis strip procedures is incorrect? ____
    • A. 

      The chemical strip bottle must be kept tightly sealed when not in use.

    • B. 

      Do not use expired strips.

    • C. 

      Any bottle that has been open more than 2 months should not be used.

    • D. 

      The strips must be stored in the refrigerator.

  • 69. 
    Which of the following proteins may be found in small amounts in the urine when screening patients who have diabetes mellitus, hypertension, heart attack, stroke, and pregnancy? ____
    • A. 

      Albumin

    • B. 

      Tamm Horsfall protein

    • C. 

      Bence Jones protein

    • D. 

      Hemoglobin

  • 70. 
    Which of the statements regarding the nitrite test is incorrect? ____
    • A. 

      The first morning urine is recommended because the urine has been in the urinary bladder for at least 4 hours.

    • B. 

      The urine specimen must not be left standing at room temperature for a long period of time because this could cause a false positive result.

    • C. 

      All bacteria can convert nitrates to nitrites.

    • D. 

      A positive nitrite test is correlated with a positive leukocyte test.

  • 71. 
    Evaluate which of the statements regarding cells found in microscopic urine is incorrect: ____
    • A. 

      The most common white blood cell found in the urine is the monocyte.

    • B. 

      Pyuria can be temporarily caused by fever or strenuous exercises.

    • C. 

      Squamous epithelial cells are the most frequently seen and least significant of the epithelial cells found in urine.

    • D. 

      Renal tubular epithelial cells are the most significant of the epithelial cells and can indicate tubular necrosis.

  • 72. 
    Which of the following statements is true? ____
    • A. 

      Tests for renal casts, uric acid crystals, and calculi are among the tests found on a reagent strip.

    • B. 

      All casts and crystals indicate a disease state.

    • C. 

      Crystal formation is affected by the temperature and pH of the urine.

    • D. 

      When a urine reagent strip tests positive for blood, red blood cells will always be seen under the microscope.

  • 73. 
    Determine which of the following statements best describes a waxy cast: ____
    • A. 

      Contains renal tubule epithelial cells and can be very hard to differentiate from white blood cell casts

    • B. 

      Appears very refractile, is homogenously smooth, have blunt and cracked ends, and represents extreme urine stasis signifying chronic renal failure

    • C. 

      Frequently contains neutrophils that are refractile because of the presence of granules and multilobed nuclei

    • D. 

      Contains granules throughout the matrix that can appear coarse or finely granular, but it is not necessary to distinguish between the two

  • 74. 
    Which of the following statements about the formation of crystals in urine is incorrect?
    • A. 

      Crystals are formed by the precipitation of urine salts when there are changes in pH.

    • B. 

      Crystals are formed by the precipitation of urine salts when there are changes in temperature.

    • C. 

      Crystals are formed by the precipitation of urine salts when there are changes in concentration.

    • D. 

      The most important aid in the identification of urine crystals is the urine temperature.

  • 75. 
    Which crystals are commonly seen as colorless octahedron crystals that resemble envelopes (they have the appearance of an X on them)?
    • A. 

      Calcium oxalates

    • B. 

      Uric acid crystals

    • C. 

      Calcium carbonates

    • D. 

      Leucine crystals

  • 76. 
    Which crystals are yellow-brown granules often found in clumps that give the urine a macroscopic (large enough to see with the eyes) pink, “brick dust” color and are found in urine at pH levels under 7? ____
    • A. 

      Calcium oxalates

    • B. 

      Uric acid crystals

    • C. 

      Amorphous urates

    • D. 

      Leucine crystals

  • 77. 
    Which of the following crystals resemble coffin lids? ____
    • A. 

      Calcium oxalates

    • B. 

      Uric acid crystals

    • C. 

      Amorphous urates

    • D. 

      Triple phosphate crystals

  • 78. 
    Determine which of the following statements about bacteria in urine is incorrect: ____
    • A. 

      Presence of bacteria could indicate either contamination or a urinary tract infection (UTI).

    • B. 

      If WBCs are present with bacteria, this could be significant for a UTI.

    • C. 

      Bacteria are viewed on low power and are reported as few, moderate, or many, or 1+, 2+, 3+, or 4+.

    • D. 

      Because contaminant bacteria reproduce rapidly if the urine is kept at room temperature for a prolonged period, it is important that the testing and microscopic examination be done on fresh urine.

  • 79. 
    When calculating a microscopic urinalysis, which of the following is incorrect?
    • A. 

      Casts are observed, counted, and identified on high power.

    • B. 

      It is important that standard counting and reporting systems be used by everyone in the same laboratory.

    • C. 

      Casts are reported as the average seen on low power field (lpf).

    • D. 

      Cells are reported using numerical ranges based on the average per high power field (hpf).

  • 80. 
    Which of the following is not a granulocyte? ____
    • A. 

      Eosinophil

    • B. 

      Neutrophil

    • C. 

      Lymphocyte

    • D. 

      Basophil

  • 81. 
    Which of the following is not a formed element in the blood? _____
    • A. 

      Prothrombin

    • B. 

      White blood cells

    • C. 

      Red blood cells

    • D. 

      Platelets

  • 82. 
    Which of the following white blood cells does not match the associated description? ____
    • A. 

      Basophil becomes a mast cell when it enters the tissues to mediate the inflammatory response

    • B. 

      Lymphocyte is the smallest white blood cell (WBC)

    • C. 

      Eosinophil increases in number during allergic reactions

    • D. 

      Neutrophil can differentiate into a T-cell or B-cell

    • E. 

      Monocyte is the largest WBC

  • 83. 
    Most CLA waived hematology tests use blood from ____
    • A. 

      An artery

    • B. 

      Vein

    • C. 

      A capillary.

    • D. 

      An evacuated tube.

  • 84. 
    Critical vitamin used by the liver to produce clotting factors is ____
    • A. 

      Vitamin A

    • B. 

      Vitamin D

    • C. 

      Vitamin E

    • D. 

      Vitamin K

    • E. 

      Vitamin B

  • 85. 
    Which term does not match its description? ____
    • A. 

      Erythrocytes are the most numerous blood cells, occupying almost 50% of blood volume.

    • B. 

      Bands are immature neutrophils.

    • C. 

      Basophils have coarse red granules in their cytoplasm.

    • D. 

      Segs are mature neutrophils.

    • E. 

      Platelets are fragments of cytoplasm.

  • 86. 
    Which of the following statements regarding erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is false? ____
    • A. 

      The following technical interferences will increase the ESR result: vibrating surface, reading after 60 minutes, and tilting the sed rate tube.

    • B. 

      When plasma proteins increase, they cause the RBCs to stack together like poker chips, a condition known as rouleaux.

    • C. 

      The following medical conditions will cause a decreased ESR result: inflammatory diseases, autoimmune disorders, cancer, and leukemia.

    • D. 

      ESR tests cannot be performed on capillary blood because of the volume of blood needed.

  • 87. 
    Which of the following statements regarding Pro Time testing is false? ____
    • A. 

      The major use of the Pro Time test is to monitor patients who have been placed on anticoagulant therapy.

    • B. 

      Patients with a 40-second ProTime result are in therapeutic range.

    • C. 

      Patients with low ProTime results are in danger of internal clotting, which can cause strokes and heart attacks.

    • D. 

      The ProTime test uses thromboplastin as the active reagent to initiate the coagulation process.

  • 88. 
    The erythrocyte indices ____
    • A. 

      Aid in diagnosing anemia classifications.

    • B. 

      Provide information for hematocrit.

    • C. 

      Allow for calculations of oxygen in hemoglobin.

    • D. 

      Compare the RBC count to the WBC count.

  • 89. 
    Blood
    • A. 

      Normally found in urine in small amounts

    • B. 

      Increased during fat metabolism, and an increase may indicate starvation or diabetes mellitus when present with glucose

    • C. 

      Red blood cells in the urine; may indicate infection, trauma, or menses

    • D. 

      White blood cells in urine; found during urinary tract infections

    • E. 

      Increases during liver disease

  • 90. 
    Ketone
    • A. 

      Normally found in urine in small amounts

    • B. 

      Increased during fat metabolism, and an increase may indicate starvation or diabetes mellitus when present with glucose

    • C. 

      Red blood cells in the urine; may indicate infection, trauma, or menses

    • D. 

      White blood cells in urine; found during urinary tract infections

    • E. 

      Increases during liver disease

  • 91. 
    Urobilinogen
    • A. 

      Normally found in urine in small amounts

    • B. 

      Increased during fat metabolism, and an increase may indicate starvation or diabetes mellitus when present with glucose

    • C. 

      Red blood cells in the urine; may indicate infection, trauma, or menses

    • D. 

      White blood cells in urine; found during urinary tract infections

    • E. 

      Increases during liver disease

  • 92. 
    Leukocytes
    • A. 

      Normally found in urine in small amounts

    • B. 

      Increased during fat metabolism, and an increase may indicate starvation or diabetes mellitus when present with glucose

    • C. 

      Red blood cells in the urine; may indicate infection, trauma, or menses

    • D. 

      White blood cells in urine; found during urinary tract infections

    • E. 

      Increases during liver disease

  • 93. 
    Immature red cell in bone marrow (also called rubriblast)
    • A. 

      Anisocytosis

    • B. 

      Reticulocytes

    • C. 

      Hematologists

    • D. 

      Erythroblast

    • E. 

      Poikilocytosis

  • 94. 
    Variances in red blood cell (RBC) size
    • A. 

      Anisocytosis

    • B. 

      Reticulocytes

    • C. 

      Hematologists

    • D. 

      Erythroblast

    • E. 

      Poikilocytosis

Related Topics