The Pathology Of Endometriosis! Trivia Questions Quiz

1.

What is the meaning of endometriosis?
- A.
  
  Occurrence of endometrial tissue at site other than the lining of uterine cavity
- B.
  
  Cyclical shedding of endometrium, no foothold
- C.
  
  None of the above
- D.
  
  All of the above
- E.
  
  Does not matter
Correct Answer
A. Occurrence of endometrial tissue at site other than the lining of uterine cavity

Explanation
Endometriosis refers to the occurrence of endometrial tissue outside of the uterine cavity. This condition occurs when the tissue that normally lines the uterus starts growing in other areas of the body, such as the ovaries, fallopian tubes, or even the intestines. This can lead to symptoms such as pelvic pain, heavy periods, and infertility.

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2.

Postpartum sepsis (puerperal sepsis), ascending gonococcal, and pyometra (obstruction of os by neoplasm) as all associated etiologies of _

Correct Answer
endometritis

Explanation
Postpartum sepsis, ascending gonococcal infection, and pyometra are all known causes of endometritis. Endometritis is the inflammation of the inner lining of the uterus, usually caused by an infection. Postpartum sepsis refers to an infection that occurs after childbirth, often due to bacteria entering the uterus during delivery. Ascending gonococcal infection occurs when the bacteria that cause gonorrhea spread from the lower reproductive tract to the uterus. Pyometra, on the other hand, is the accumulation of pus in the uterus, typically caused by an obstruction of the cervix by a neoplasm (abnormal growth). These conditions can all lead to the development of endometritis.

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3.

A woman presents with dysmenorrhea, menorrhagia, and infertility with complications of tubal pregnancy. She is diagnosed with endometriosis. The possible mechanisms of this disease include retrograde movement of blood during menstruation, vascular dissemination through blood or lymphatics, and metaplasia of celomic epithelium. A key gross feature of her disease would be _

Correct Answer
chocolate cysts of the ovary
follicular cysts
simple cysts

Explanation
Endometriosis is a condition where the tissue that normally lines the uterus grows outside of it, causing various symptoms. One key gross feature of endometriosis is the presence of chocolate cysts of the ovary, also known as endometriomas. These cysts are filled with old blood that has a dark, chocolate-like appearance. Follicular cysts and simple cysts are not specific to endometriosis and are not typically associated with the condition.

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4.

A woman, upon taking a biopsy of her endometrial tissue, is said to present with a premalignant lesion that is in-situ and with atypia. After providing progesterone therapy, the lesion regressed. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her lesion?
- A.
  
  Increased estrogen levels
- B.
  
  Decreased estrogen levels
- C.
  
  Increased testosterone levels
- D.
  
  None of the above
- E.
  
  All of the above
Correct Answer
A. Increased estrogen levels

Explanation
Increased estrogen levels are the most likely cause of the woman's premalignant lesion with atypia. Estrogen is known to stimulate the growth of endometrial tissue, and an excess of estrogen can lead to abnormal cell proliferation and the development of premalignant lesions. Progesterone therapy is commonly used to counteract the effects of estrogen and promote regression of these lesions. Decreased estrogen levels would not be the cause of the lesion, and increased testosterone levels are not typically associated with endometrial abnormalities. Therefore, the correct answer is increased estrogen levels.

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5.

A 60-year-old woman obese woman, with diabetes and hypertension, presents with postmenopausal bleeding, a biopsy of her tissue is taken and she is diagnosed with cancer of the endometrium. Grossly you see a polyploid fungating mass in the cavity. What is a key histological feature of her disease?
- A.
  
  Back to back glands
- B.
  
  Increased cysts in the glands
- C.
  
  Koilocytes
- D.
  
  All of the above
- E.
  
  None of the above.
Correct Answer
A. Back to back glands

Explanation
The key histological feature of the woman's disease is the presence of back to back glands. This refers to the arrangement of the glands in close proximity to each other without any stroma in between. This pattern is commonly seen in endometrial cancer and is an important diagnostic feature. Increased cysts in the glands and koilocytes are not typically associated with endometrial cancer, so they are not the correct answer options.

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6.

A 35-year-old woman presents with masses in the endometrium. Gross the cut surface of the lesion appears as whorled masses. She presents with menorrhagia, metrorrhagia, and acute pain during pregnancy, also known as red degeneration. What are the chances of her lesion progressing to malignancy?
- A.
  
  High
- B.
  
  Low
- C.
  
  Very high, because most likely it will lead to leiomyosarcomas
- D.
  
  All of the above
- E.
  
  A and C
Correct Answer
B. Low

Explanation
The chances of the woman's lesion progressing to malignancy are low. This is because the description of the lesion, with whorled masses in the endometrium, is consistent with uterine leiomyomas (fibroids). While uterine leiomyomas are common and can cause symptoms such as menorrhagia and metrorrhagia, they are typically benign and do not progress to malignancy. The mention of red degeneration during pregnancy further supports the diagnosis of leiomyomas, as this is a known complication of these benign tumors. Therefore, the chances of malignancy are low.

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7.

A 70-year-old woman presents with postmenopausal bleeding. It is known that the tumor is large, bulky, hemorrhage, and necrosis. The tumor is not associated with leiomyosarcoma. What is the prognosis of her tumor?
- A.
  
  Good
- B.
  
  Poor
- C.
  
  Unsure
- D.
  
  All of the above
- E.
  
  None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Poor

Explanation
The prognosis of the tumor is poor because the woman is experiencing postmenopausal bleeding, which is a concerning symptom. Additionally, the tumor is described as large, bulky, and showing signs of hemorrhage and necrosis. These characteristics suggest an aggressive and advanced tumor. The fact that the tumor is not associated with leiomyosarcoma does not necessarily indicate a better prognosis, as other types of tumors can still have a poor outcome. Therefore, the correct answer is "poor."

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The Pathology Of Endometriosis! Trivia Questions Quiz

What is the meaning of endometriosis?

Postpartum sepsis (puerperal sepsis), ascending gonococcal, and pyometra (obstruction of os by neoplasm) as all associated etiologies of _

A woman, upon taking a biopsy of her endometrial tissue, is said to present with a premalignant lesion that is in-situ and with atypia. After providing progesterone therapy, the lesion regressed. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her lesion?

A 60-year-old woman obese woman, with diabetes and hypertension, presents with postmenopausal bleeding, a biopsy of her tissue is taken and she is diagnosed with cancer of the endometrium. Grossly you see a polyploid fungating mass in the cavity. What is a key histological feature of her disease?

A 35-year-old woman presents with masses in the endometrium. Gross the cut surface of the lesion appears as whorled masses. She presents with menorrhagia, metrorrhagia, and acute pain during pregnancy, also known as red degeneration. What are the chances of her lesion progressing to malignancy?

A 70-year-old woman presents with postmenopausal bleeding. It is known that the tumor is large, bulky, hemorrhage, and necrosis. The tumor is not associated with leiomyosarcoma. What is the prognosis of her tumor?