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1.dental Hygiene Board Review

89 Questions
Dental Hygiene Quizzes & Trivia

# 1. Board Review for Dental Hygiene. Questions were taken from various sources, including books, online sources, and etc.

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The physiological concept that refers to the maintenance of a constant environment is
    • A. 

      Hemostasis

    • B. 

      Dynamic equilibrium

    • C. 

      Homeostasis

    • D. 

      Interdependence

    • E. 

      Induction

  • 2. 
    The organelles that contain enzymes capable of digesting and destroying cellular debris
    • A. 

      Endoplasmic reticulum

    • B. 

      Golgi apparatus

    • C. 

      Mitochondria

    • D. 

      Lysosomes

    • E. 

      Ribosomes

  • 3. 
    Transport of water across a cell membrane
    • A. 

      Osmosis

    • B. 

      Facilitated diffusion

    • C. 

      Active transport

    • D. 

      Diffusion

  • 4. 
    The direction and rate of diffusion of an ion is influenced by the
    • A. 

      Concentration gradient

    • B. 

      Hydrostatic pressure gradient

    • C. 

      Electrical gradient

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 5. 
    Active transport differs from facilitated diffusion in that active transport
    • A. 

      Moves a substance against a concentration gradient

    • B. 

      Requires a carrier

    • C. 

      Requires energy from magnesius adenosine triphosphate (Mg ATP)

    • D. 

      Is exemplified by the movement of sodium and potassium across cell membranes

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 6. 
    All of the following are derived from endoderm except
    • A. 

      Epithelial parts of the respiratory system

    • B. 

      Epithelial parts of the gastrointestinal system

    • C. 

      Epithelium in the mouth

    • D. 

      Epithelium of the pharynx

  • 7. 
    Which of the following is derived from mesoderm?
    • A. 

      Epidermis

    • B. 

      Nervous system

    • C. 

      Adrenal medulla

    • D. 

      Posterior lobe of the pituitary gland

    • E. 

      Connective tissue

  • 8. 
    The developmental period in which teeth and the palate are most susceptible to teratogenic agents is the
    • A. 

      Third through the fifth week

    • B. 

      Fourth through the seventh week

    • C. 

      Fourth through the eighth week

    • D. 

      Eighth through the tenth week

  • 9. 
    Gingiva and buccal mucosa
    • A. 

      Simple squamous epithelium

    • B. 

      Stratified squamous epithelium

    • C. 

      Cuboidal epithelium

    • D. 

      Stratified columnar epithelium

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 10. 
    What type of connective tissue is present in scar tissue?
    • A. 

      Loose

    • B. 

      Dense fibrous

    • C. 

      Lymphatic

    • D. 

      Reticuloendothelial

    • E. 

      Adipose

  • 11. 
    What kind of cell types line the vascular channels of the body?
    • A. 

      Stratified squamous epithelium

    • B. 

      Endothelium

    • C. 

      Mesothelium

    • D. 

      Transitional epithelium

    • E. 

      Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

  • 12. 
    Pleura is a type of
    • A. 

      Serous membrane

    • B. 

      Mucous membrane

    • C. 

      Visceral membrane

    • D. 

      Parietal membrane

    • E. 

      Synovial membrane

  • 13. 
    In long bones, the process whereby cartilage cells are replaced by bone cells, organic matrix is laid down, and calcium and phosphate are deposited is known as
    • A. 

      Intramembranous ossification

    • B. 

      Endochondral ossification

    • C. 

      Osteoporosis

    • D. 

      Erythropoiesis

    • E. 

      Diaphyseal formation

  • 14. 
    What kind of joint, is described by the following: joint cavity present; bone ends covered by cartilage; may be separated by a disk; freely movable?
    • A. 

      Synarthrotic

    • B. 

      Diarthrotic

    • C. 

      Cartilagenous

    • D. 

      Synphysis

    • E. 

      Synchondroses

  • 15. 
    Which of the following is NOT associated with a skeletal muscle?
    • A. 

      Sarcolemma

    • B. 

      Myofibrils

    • C. 

      Intercalated disk

    • D. 

      Mitochondria

    • E. 

      Actin and myosin

  • 16. 
    • A. 

      Myofibril

    • B. 

      Myofilament

    • C. 

      Fiber

    • D. 

      Sarcoplasmic reticulum

  • 17. 
    A single motor neuron and the muscle cells supplied by its axon branches is termed
    • A. 

      An efferent neuron

    • B. 

      A motor unit

    • C. 

      A motor end plate

    • D. 

      A sarcoplasmic reticulum

    • E. 

      An annulospiral ending

  • 18. 
    • A. 

      Ependymal cells

    • B. 

      Oligodendrocytes

    • C. 

      Microglia

    • D. 

      Schwann cells

  • 19. 
    Depolarization occurs with
    • A. 

      Transfer of sodium ions to the inside of a neuron

    • B. 

      Transfer of potassium ions to the outside of a neuron

    • C. 

      A reversal of charge across the nerve cell membrane making the outside of the fiber positive with respect to the inside

  • 20. 
    Conduction occurs when a stimulus reduces the membrane potential to a critical level. This level is called
    • A. 

      Summation

    • B. 

      Threshold

    • C. 

      Action potential

    • D. 

      Facilitation

    • E. 

      Refractory period

  • 21. 
    • A. 

      Lateral corticospinal tract

    • B. 

      Ventral corticospinal tract

    • C. 

      Lateral reticulospinal tract

    • D. 

      medial reticulospinal tract

    • E. 

      Ectospinal tract

  • 22. 
    • A. 

      Loss of sensation

    • B. 

      Loss of motor control

    • C. 

      Loss of sensation and movement

    • D. 

      Partial loss of sensation and movement

    • E. 

      Loss of sensation, movement, and control of the degree of constriction of blood vessels

  • 23. 
    Corticospinal tract
    • A. 

      Fibers are located in grey columns of the cord

    • B. 

      Fibers come from neuron cell bodies located in the spinal cord

    • C. 

      Fibers synapse with neurons in the cerebellar cortex

    • D. 

      Fibers are descending fibers from the cells in the primary motor cortex of the frontal lobe

    • E. 

      Nonfunctionng is one cause of loss of sensation

  • 24. 
    The primary motor area of the brain is the
    • A. 

      Precentral gyrus

    • B. 

      Postcentral gyrus

    • C. 

      Temporal lobe

    • D. 

      Occipital lobe

    • E. 

      Hypothalamus

  • 25. 
    Which of the following functions are conducted in the dorsal columns of the spinal cord, that is, in the fasciculus graciles and cuneatus?
    • A. 

      High degree of location

    • B. 

      Vibratory sense

    • C. 

      Fine gradations of pressure

    • D. 

      Kinesthesia

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 26. 
    Damage to the precental gyrus of the cerebral cortex
    • A. 

      Spastic paralysis

    • B. 

      Sensory loss

    • C. 

      Intention tremor

    • D. 

      Tremor at rest

    • E. 

      Loss of simple reflexes

  • 27. 
    Almost all sensory impulses pass through what structure on their way to the cerebral cortex?
    • A. 

      Basal ganglia

    • B. 

      Corpus striatum

    • C. 

      Hypothalamus

    • D. 

      Corpus callosum

    • E. 

      Thalamus

  • 28. 
    Which of the following describes the function of the hypothalamus?
    • A. 

      Temperature control centers

    • B. 

      Regulation of visceral activity

    • C. 

      Synthesis of hormonal releasing factors

    • D. 

      Influencing basic drives like sex, thirst, hunger

    • E. 

      All to the above describe hypothalamic functhions

  • 29. 
    Important centers for control of respiration and dardiovascular function are located in the
    • A. 

      Pons

    • B. 

      Medulla

    • C. 

      Midbrain

    • D. 

      Thalamus

  • 30. 
    Which of the following is/are not necessary for any of the responses referred to as reflexes?
    • A. 

      Autonomic nerves

    • B. 

      Cerebral cortex

    • C. 

      Effectors

    • D. 

      Receptors

    • E. 

      Synapses

  • 31. 
    A type of receptor which is sensitive to pain is
    • A. 

      Pacinian corpuscle

    • B. 

      Meissener's corpuscle

    • C. 

      Free nerve endings

    • D. 

      End bulb of Krause

    • E. 

      Ruffin endings

  • 32. 
    The autonomic nervous system exerts its influence on
    • A. 

      Smooth muscle

    • B. 

      Glandular secretion

    • C. 

      Cardiac muscle

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 33. 
    The neurotransmitter substance released at the postganglionic terminal of the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is
    • A. 

      Norepinephrine

    • B. 

      Epinephrine

    • C. 

      Cholinesterase

    • D. 

      Acetylcholine

    • E. 

      Gamma-aminobutyric acid

  • 34. 
    Norepinephrine and epinephrine are released from
    • A. 

      Preganglionic and postganglionic fibers of the sympathetic nervous system

    • B. 

      Neuromyal junction

    • C. 

      Postganglionic fibers of the sympathetic nervous system and the adrenal medulla

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 35. 
    All of the following are autonomic effects on the body except regulation of
    • A. 

      Heart rate

    • B. 

      Digestive secretion

    • C. 

      Skeletal muscle tone

    • D. 

      Glandular secretion

    • E. 

      Blood pressure

  • 36. 
    Extreme excitement in a patient may have the following effects on organ systems:
    • A. 

      Increased blood pressure

    • B. 

      Increases gastrointestinal activity

    • C. 

      Relaxation of smooth muscles in bronchi

    • D. 

      A and C

    • E. 

      B and C

  • 37. 
    An increase in parasympathetic activity
    • A. 

      Increase salivation

    • B. 

      Increases gastrointestinal activity

    • C. 

      Decreases heart rate

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 38. 
    Hormones
    • A. 

      Catalyze intracellular biochemical reactions

    • B. 

      Enter into chemical reactions without being degraded or depleted

    • C. 

      Are chemical substances that are produced by endocrine glands, travel through the circulatory system, and exert their influence on specific structures

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 39. 
    • A. 

      Stimulates growth and secretion of a specific glandular tissue

    • B. 

      Acts by positive feedback control

    • C. 

      Is produced by the gonads

    • D. 

      Two of the above

  • 40. 
    Calcium homeostasis is maintained by
    • A. 

      Mineralocorticoids and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

    • B. 

      Aldosterone and parathyroid hormone

    • C. 

      Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin

    • D. 

      Calcitonin and glucagon

  • 41. 
    Calcitonin
    • A. 

      Potentiates the effect of parathyroid hormone

    • B. 

      Is secreted by the thyroid gland

    • C. 

      Is released in response to excess serum calcium

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      Only B and C are correct descriptions

  • 42. 
    • A. 

      Epinephrine

    • B. 

      Norepinephrine

    • C. 

      Cortisone

    • D. 

      Thyroxin

    • E. 

      Adrenocorticotropin

  • 43. 
    Cortisol
    • A. 

      Increases the flux of amino acids in the body

    • B. 

      Mobilizes stored fat

    • C. 

      Promotes gluconeogenesis

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      Only A and C are correct

  • 44. 
    Insulin has all of the following effects EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Promotes glucose entry into cells, therefore has a hypoglycemic effect

    • B. 

      Promotes transport of amino acids into cells, therefore increases protein synthesis

    • C. 

      Promotes transport of fatty acids into cells, therefore has a lipogenic effect

    • D. 

      Promotes liver glycogenolysis, therefor has a hyperglycemic effect

    • E. 

      Promotes potassium entry into cells, therefore has a hypokalemic effect

  • 45. 
    Antidiuretic hormone is released in direct response to
    • A. 

      Extracellular potassium levels

    • B. 

      Extracellular sodium levels

    • C. 

      Hyperosmolarity of extracellular fluids

    • D. 

      Hypo-osmolarity of extracellular fluids

    • E. 

      Degree of hydration

  • 46. 
    Aldosterone
    • A. 

      Increases reabsorption of water in the distal tubule of the kidney

    • B. 

      Increases reabsorption of sodium and secretion of potassium

    • C. 

      Increases reabsorption of sodium and hydrogen ions

    • D. 

      Decreases reabsorption of sodium in the proximal tubule

    • E. 

      Increases reabsorption of glucose in the proximal tubule

  • 47. 
    Ovulation
    • A. 

      Is dependent on a high concentration of LH in the blood

    • B. 

      Occurs exactly 12 days after the end of menstruation

    • C. 

      Occurs in one of the uterine tubes

    • D. 

      Is dependent on high concentrations of estrogen in the blood

  • 48. 
    Which of the following secretes progesterone?
    • A. 

      Anterior pituitary gland

    • B. 

      Corpus luteum

    • C. 

      Corpus albicans

    • D. 

      Graafian follicles

    • E. 

      Posterior pituitary gland

  • 49. 
    With inspiration
    • A. 

      Volume of the lungs increases, pressure increases

    • B. 

      Volume of the lungs decreases, pressure increases

    • C. 

      Volume of the lungs increases, pressure decreases

    • D. 

      Volume of the lungs decreases, pressure decreases

  • 50. 
    During inspiration
    • A. 

      Intrapleural pressure decreases while intraalveolar pressure increases

    • B. 

      Both intrapleural and intra-alveolar pressure decrease

    • C. 

      Intrapleural pressure increases while intraalveolar pressure decreases

    • D. 

      Both intrapleural and intra-alveolar pressure increase

  • 51. 
    Respiratory tidal volume is
    • A. 

      The amount of air exchanged in the lungs with a normal breath

    • B. 

      Approximately 1 liter

    • C. 

      The maximum amount of air that can be inspired

    • D. 

      The volume of air left in the lungs after expiration

    • E. 

      The reserve lung volume

  • 52. 
    Which of the following has the highest PCO2?
    • A. 

      Atmospheric air

    • B. 

      Expired air

    • C. 

      Venous blood

    • D. 

      Intestitial fluid

    • E. 

      Intracellular fluid

  • 53. 
    Oxygen is carried in the blood
    • A. 

      As oxyhemoglobin

    • B. 

      Dissolved in plasma

    • C. 

      As carbaminohemoglobin

    • D. 

      Both A and B

    • E. 

      Both A and C

  • 54. 
    Carbon dioxide is carried in blood by all of the following EXCEPT
    • A. 

      As carbaminohemoglobin

    • B. 

      Dissolved in plasma

    • C. 

      As bicarbonate

    • D. 

      As carbonic acid

  • 55. 
    Alveolar ventilation is increase by all of the following except
    • A. 

      Decreased blood pressure

    • B. 

      Decrease blood pH

    • C. 

      Increased PCO2 of arterial blood

    • D. 

      Decreased PO2 of arterial blood

    • E. 

      Metabolic alkalosis

  • 56. 
    Which of the following is not a leukocyte?
    • A. 

      Neutrophil

    • B. 

      Thrombocyte

    • C. 

      Eosinophil

    • D. 

      Basophil

    • E. 

      Monocyte

  • 57. 
    A patient with type AB blood can give a transfusion to type
    • A. 

      O

    • B. 

      A

    • C. 

      B

    • D. 

      AB

  • 58. 
    A normal differential blood count shows about 20 to 25 percent of which of the following?
    • A. 

      Basophils

    • B. 

      Erythrocytes

    • C. 

      Lymphocytes

    • D. 

      Monocytes

    • E. 

      Neutrophils

  • 59. 
    All of the following terms are associated with the ventricles of the heart except
    • A. 

      Chordae tendineae

    • B. 

      Papillary muscle

    • C. 

      Sinoatrial node

    • D. 

      Purkinje system

    • E. 

      Endocardium

  • 60. 
      The sinoatrial node is the normal pacemaker of the heart because
    • A. 

      This region has a lower difference between resting membrane potential and threshold than other regions of the heart

    • B. 

      This region has a more rapid "sodium leakage," initiating spontaneous depolarization before other areas

    • C. 

      This region recovers from the previous refractory period more rapidly than other areas

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      Only A and C

  • 61. 
    Identify the correct sequence of the blood flow through the heart, to the lungs, its return to the heart and out of the heart to systemic circulation
    • A. 

      Inferior vena cave, left atrium, bicuspid valves, left ventricle, pulmonary trunk to pulmonary circulation, return via pulmonary veins to right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, and out through the ascending aorta

    • B. 

      Inferior vena cava, right atrium, triscupid valves, right ventricle, pulmonary trunk to pulmonary circulation, return via pulmonary veins to left atrium, bicuspid valves, left ventricle and outh through the ascending aorta

  • 62. 
    The pressoreceptor system
    • A. 

      Responds to an increase in blood pressure at the area of the aortic arch and carotid bodies

    • B. 

      Operates through the vasomotor center

    • C. 

      Responds by decreasing the heart rate, strength of contraction, and peripheral resistance

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 63. 
    Select the correct pressure point statement:
    • A. 

      Inferior to the angle of the mandible for carotid arteries to the head

    • B. 

      Inferior border of the angle of the mandible at the junction of the medial and lateral thirds for the facial artery to the face

    • C. 

      Superior and deep to the clavicle for the subclavian artery to the arm

    • D. 

      Medial side of the humerus for the branchial artery to the lower arm

    • E. 

      All statements correctly describe pressure points

  • 64. 
    Mean arterial blood pressure is regulated by
    • A. 

      Neural mechanisms that control constriction of the arteries

    • B. 

      Principle of capillary dynamics that regulate blood volume

    • C. 

      Renal and hormonal mechanisms that regulate blood volume and arteriolar constriction

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      Two of the above

  • 65. 
    Diastolic blood pressure is maintained at levels above zero by
    • A. 

      Peripheral resistance

    • B. 

      Elasticity of arteries

    • C. 

      Viscosity of blood

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 66. 
    Which of the following valves prevent backflow of deoxygenated blood?
    • A. 

      Pulmonary and aortic valves

    • B. 

      Pulmonary and right atrioventricular valves

    • C. 

      Right and left atrioventricular valves

    • D. 

      Aortic and left atrioventricular valves

  • 67. 
    Cardiac output is the product of the
    • A. 

      Heart rate and peripheral resistance

    • B. 

      Heart rate and stroke volume

    • C. 

      Heart rate and strength of contraction

    • D. 

      Heart rate and vascular dilation

  • 68. 
    Blood pressure depends on
    • A. 

      Heart rate and stroke volume

    • B. 

      Peripheral resistance

    • C. 

      Blood volume

    • D. 

      Blood viscosity

    • E. 

      All of the above factors influence blood pressure

  • 69. 
    Oxygenated blood flows through which of the following structures
    • A. 

      Pulmonary valve

    • B. 

      Right atrioventricular valve

    • C. 

      Pulmonary artery

    • D. 

      Coronary arteries

  • 70. 
    Digestion means
    • A. 

      Splitting large chemical compounds in foods into simpler substances that can be absorbed

    • B. 

      Absorption of small molecular weight end products into body fluids

    • C. 

      Hydrolysis

    • D. 

      Only A and C

    • E. 

      Only B and C

  • 71. 
    All of the following are concerned with protein digestion except
    • A. 

      Pepsin

    • B. 

      Trypsin

    • C. 

      Chymotrypsin

    • D. 

      Carboxypolypeptidase

    • E. 

      Amylase

  • 72. 
    • A. 

      The quantity of liquid in chyme

    • B. 

      Neural and hormonal reflexes from the small intestine

    • C. 

      The quantity of chyme present in the small intestine

    • D. 

      A and C

    • E. 

      All of the Above

  • 73. 
    Which of the following is not a function of the pancreas?
    • A. 

      Secretion of digestive enzymes

    • B. 

      Secretion of insulin

    • C. 

      Secretion of bile

    • D. 

      Secretion of glucagon

  • 74. 
    Which gastrointestinal hormone controls secretion of water and bicarbonate by acinar cells of the pancreas
    • A. 

      Gastrin

    • B. 

      Secretin

    • C. 

      Pancreozymin

    • D. 

      Cholecystokinin

    • E. 

      Chymotrypsin

  • 75. 
    An enzyme that hydrolyzes polysaccharides is
    • A. 

      Lipase

    • B. 

      Amylase

    • C. 

      Protease

    • D. 

      Trypsin

    • E. 

      Pepsin

  • 76. 
    Functions of the adult liver include all of the following except
    • A. 

      Bile formation

    • B. 

      Reticuloendothelial activity

    • C. 

      Glycogenesis, glycogenolysis, and glucogenesis

    • D. 

      Erythropoiesis

    • E. 

      Detoxication

  • 77. 
    • A. 

      Trigeminal

    • B. 

      Facial

    • C. 

      Glossopharyngeal

    • D. 

      Vagus and hypoglossal

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 78. 
    An accumulation of collecting ducts, as seen on gross examination of a kidney is called
    • A. 

      Pelvis

    • B. 

      Calyx

    • C. 

      Cortex

    • D. 

      Pyramids

  • 79. 
    Filtration in the kidney occurs at the
    • A. 

      Glomerulus

    • B. 

      Proximal convoluted tubule and loop of Henle

    • C. 

      Distal convoluted tubule

    • D. 

      Collecting tubule

  • 80. 
    Reabsorption of water in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts is regulated by
    • A. 

      Adrenocorticotropic hormone

    • B. 

      Antidiuretic hormone

    • C. 

      Aldosterone

    • D. 

      Angiotensin

  • 81. 
    Amino acids and glucose are reabsorbed in the proximal tubule by
    • A. 

      Diffusion and osmosis

    • B. 

      Active transport

    • C. 

      Osmotic forces and pressure gradients

    • D. 

      Electrochemical gradients

  • 82. 
    Sodium ions are reabsorbed, and potassium and hydrogen ions are secreted under the control of
    • A. 

      Antidiuretic hormone

    • B. 

      Thyroxin

    • C. 

      Epinephrine

    • D. 

      Aldosterone

    • E. 

      Cortisol

  • 83. 
    Functions of the kidney include all of the following except
    • A. 

      Regulation of hydrogen ion concentration

    • B. 

      Regulation of body fluid volumes

    • C. 

      Regulation of serum calcium levels

    • D. 

      Regulation of serum sodium levels

    • E. 

      Removal of urea, creatinine, and other metabolic end products

  • 84. 
    Parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal glands and the secretory glands of the nose and palate is transmitted via the
    • A. 

      Trigeminal nerve

    • B. 

      Abducens nerve

    • C. 

      Facial nerve

    • D. 

      Glossopharyngeal nerve

    • E. 

      Vagus nerve

  • 85. 
    The sympathetic innervation to the face and head structures is transmitted via nerves that have cells of origin in the
    • A. 

      Submandibular ganglion

    • B. 

      Superior cervical ganglion

    • C. 

      Oxic ganglion

  • 86. 
    The area of the brain stem that contains cells of origin for the nerves that control motor activity for swallowing is
    • A. 

      Cerecellum

    • B. 

      Trigeminal nucleus of the pons

    • C. 

      The nucleus abiguus of the medulla

    • D. 

      Hypoglossal nucleus of the pons

  • 87. 
    The nerve responsible for constriction of the pupil of the eye is
    • A. 

      Optic nerve

    • B. 

      Oculomotor nerve

    • C. 

      Abducents nerve

    • D. 

      Vagus nerve

  • 88. 
    When a person is experiencing much pain, the pupils of the eye will
    • A. 

      Dilate because it is a parasympathetic response

    • B. 

      Dilate because it is a sympathetic response

    • C. 

      Constrict because this is the sympathetic response

    • D. 

      No change in the pupil will be experienced

  • 89. 
    The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) can be accurately described by all of the following except
    • A. 

      It damages T4 lymphocytes

    • B. 

      It weakens the immune system in ways that allow opportunistic infections to kill the person that is infected

    • C. 

      HIV is an unstable virus and can be killed by Lysol tm, Chlorox tm, and proper sterilization methods

    • D. 

      If a person tests HIV negative, their blood and body fluids will contain the virus

    • E. 

      Most scientists think that if a person tests positive for HIV-1 antibodies that they will eventually develop AIDS