CompTIA A+ Preparation Part 2

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CompTIA A+ Preparation Part 2 - Quiz

Here is part two of the quizzes based on the 220-701 and the 220-702.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What are the two standards of laptop memory form factors?

    • A.

      DIMM.

    • B.

      SoDIMM.

    • C.

      MicroDIMM

    • D.

      MinorDIMM

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. SoDIMM.
    C. MicroDIMM
    Explanation
    The two standards of laptop memory form factors are SoDIMM and MicroDIMM. SoDIMM stands for Small Outline Dual In-Line Memory Module and is a smaller version of the DIMM form factor used in desktop computers. MicroDIMM, on the other hand, is an even smaller form factor primarily used in ultra-compact laptops and other small form factor devices. These form factors allow for the installation of memory modules in laptops, providing the necessary storage and performance capabilities.

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  • 2. 

    Joel from shipping calls you because the Dot-Matrix printer he uses to print out orders is not working correctly. Instead of shipping addresses and order information all it prints out is unintelligible characters.  What are possible causes for this kind of error?

    • A.

      The cable has become partially unhooked.

    • B.

      The printed head is stuck with a pin in the out position.

    • C.

      The wrong driver has been selected.

    • D.

      The printer control board has gone bad.

    • E.

      The ribbon advance gear is slipping.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. The cable has become partially unhooked.
    C. The wrong driver has been selected.
    D. The printer control board has gone bad.
    Explanation
    Possible causes for the error of the Dot-Matrix printer printing unintelligible characters could be that the cable has become partially unhooked, the wrong driver has been selected, or the printer control board has gone bad. These issues can disrupt the communication between the printer and the computer, leading to the incorrect printing of characters.

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  • 3. 

    What is a common cause of paper jams in a laser printer?

    • A.

      Low toner.

    • B.

      Transfer corona

    • C.

      Worn pick up rollers

    • D.

      The printer overheated

    Correct Answer
    C. Worn pick up rollers
    Explanation
    Worn pick up rollers can be a common cause of paper jams in a laser printer. Over time, the pick up rollers can become smooth and lose their grip, making it difficult for them to properly feed the paper into the printer. This can result in the paper getting stuck or jammed in the printer.

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  • 4. 

    What command can you type at the command prompt to test connectivity to another destination?

    • A.

      Ping

    • B.

      Netstat

    • C.

      NSlookup

    • D.

      Tracert

    Correct Answer
    A. Ping
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Ping". The Ping command is used to test connectivity between two devices on a network. It sends a small packet of data to the specified destination and waits for a response. If a response is received, it indicates that there is connectivity between the two devices. This command is commonly used to troubleshoot network connectivity issues and to measure the round-trip time (RTT) between devices.

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  • 5. 

    Carol calls the helpdesk because she is having a problem with her Windows Vista computer. However she cannot tell you anything about an error message because her computer automatically reboots  every time it crashes. What do you need to do to enable her to see the error message next time it crashes?

    • A.

      Install a print screen program so she can save the screen the next time the computer crashes.

    • B.

      Disable automatic restart on system failure.

    • C.

      Tell her to read faster.

    • D.

      Install an antivirus program.

    Correct Answer
    B. Disable automatic restart on system failure.
    Explanation
    Disabling automatic restart on system failure will prevent the computer from automatically rebooting when it crashes. This will allow Carol to see the error message that appears on the screen, which can help in diagnosing and resolving the problem with her Windows Vista computer.

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  • 6. 

    A User reports that their system seems to be running extremely slow and that the hard drive is constantly being accessed. It seems to affect the computer more when multiple programs are being run. You make sure that it is not a virus related issue first. What could cause this type of behavior in the User's computer?

    • A.

      The paging file size is too small.

    • B.

      It's obviously a virus, you need better protection.

    • C.

      The BIOS needs to be updated.

    • D.

      Windows updates need to be run on this computer.

    Correct Answer
    A. The paging file size is too small.
    Explanation
    A small paging file size can cause the system to run extremely slow and constantly access the hard drive. The paging file, also known as the virtual memory, is used by the computer to temporarily store data that cannot fit in the RAM. When multiple programs are being run, the system may need to constantly swap data between the RAM and the paging file, leading to increased hard drive activity and slower performance. Increasing the paging file size can help alleviate this issue.

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  • 7. 

    In the services console you can see what dependencies a service has as well as what services depend on the particular service. True or False?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    In the services console, you can indeed see what dependencies a service has as well as what services depend on the particular service. This allows users to understand the relationships and connections between different services, providing a comprehensive view of the dependencies within the system.

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  • 8. 

    To prevent the UAC from prompting you when opening a specific program every time what must you do?

    • A.

      Access the services.msc and disable UAC.

    • B.

      Start> Control Panel> Administrative Tools> UAC settings tab> Disable.

    • C.

      Right-click the program icon, choose properties, choose compatibility tab, click Run this program as an administrator.

    • D.

      Always log on to the computer as the administrator.

    Correct Answer
    C. Right-click the program icon, choose properties, choose compatibility tab, click Run this program as an administrator.
    Explanation
    To prevent the UAC from prompting you when opening a specific program every time, you need to right-click the program icon, choose properties, go to the compatibility tab, and click on "Run this program as an administrator". This will allow the program to run with administrative privileges, bypassing the UAC prompt.

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  • 9. 

    Advanced startup options in Windows XP are accessed by?

    • A.

      Pressing the spacebar when prompted.

    • B.

      Administrative tools.

    • C.

      Pressing F8 during startup.

    • D.

      Entering the ASR.

    Correct Answer
    C. Pressing F8 during startup.
    Explanation
    During the startup process in Windows XP, pressing the F8 key allows access to the advanced startup options. These options include Safe Mode, Last Known Good Configuration, Debugging Mode, and other troubleshooting options. Pressing the spacebar when prompted or entering the ASR (Automated System Recovery) are not correct ways to access the advanced startup options in Windows XP. Administrative tools are a separate set of tools and settings in Windows XP, and they are not directly related to the advanced startup options.

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  • 10. 

    The maximum speed of 1000BaseT is?

    • A.

      100Mbps.

    • B.

      1Gbps.

    • C.

      10Mbps.

    • D.

      1024KBPS

    Correct Answer
    B. 1Gbps.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1Gbps because 1000BaseT is a type of Ethernet technology that supports a maximum data transfer rate of 1 gigabit per second (Gbps). This means that it can transmit data at a speed of 1 billion bits per second, which is significantly faster than the other options listed (100Mbps, 10Mbps, and 1024KBPS).

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  • 11. 

    This type of firewall is normally used to protect companies from public networks.

    • A.

      Host-Based Firewall

    • B.

      Great balls of firewalls

    • C.

      Network-based firewalls

    • D.

      Firewirewalls

    Correct Answer
    C. Network-based firewalls
    Explanation
    Network-based firewalls are typically used to protect companies from public networks. These firewalls are installed at the network perimeter and monitor incoming and outgoing traffic. They can filter and block specific types of traffic based on predefined rules, such as blocking certain IP addresses or ports. Network-based firewalls provide an additional layer of security by controlling access to the company's internal network and preventing unauthorized access from external sources.

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  • 12. 

    A virus that is designed to make itself difficult to detect or analyze and covers itself in protective code is a _______?

    • A.

      Companion Virus

    • B.

      Phage Virus

    • C.

      Polymorphic Virus

    • D.

      Armored Virus

    Correct Answer
    D. Armored Virus
    Explanation
    An armored virus is a type of virus that is specifically designed to make it difficult for antivirus software to detect or analyze. It achieves this by employing various techniques such as encrypting its code, using self-modifying code, or disguising itself within legitimate files. By doing so, it can evade detection and continue to infect systems. Therefore, an armored virus is a virus that covers itself in protective code to avoid detection and analysis.

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  • 13. 

    What is the purpose of using a thermal compound?

    • A.

      Creating a contact point between the heatsink and the fan.

    • B.

      Allows the processor to cool faster even without a fan.

    • C.

      When heated becomes a gel to protect the processor.

    • D.

      Creates a contact surface between the processor and the heatsink.

    Correct Answer
    D. Creates a contact surface between the processor and the heatsink.
    Explanation
    The purpose of using a thermal compound is to create a contact surface between the processor and the heatsink. This helps to improve heat transfer by filling in any microscopic gaps or imperfections on the surfaces of the processor and heatsink. By ensuring better contact, the thermal compound helps to dissipate heat more efficiently, preventing the processor from overheating.

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  • 14. 

    Your computer is up and running but the mouse is not responding. Further investigation reveals that the USB mouse is unplugged. What should you do?

    • A.

      Plug the mouse back in, USB mice are a hot-swappable item.

    • B.

      Perform an exorcism to dispel that pesky poltergeist who keeps unplugging it.

    • C.

      Turn off the computer and then turn it back on after plugging the mouse back in.

    • D.

      Use the keyboard to navigate to the Control Panel and enable the mouse, then plug it in.

    Correct Answer
    A. Plug the mouse back in, USB mice are a hot-swappable item.
    Explanation
    USB mice are designed to be hot-swappable, which means they can be plugged and unplugged while the computer is running without causing any damage or requiring a restart. Therefore, the correct action to take in this situation is to simply plug the mouse back in.

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  • 15. 

    You need to set up a workstation that will have three computers all being operated from the same keyboard and mouse configuration. Also, only one monitor is available for this set up. What piece of equipment will allow this type of set-up to work?

    • A.

      A simple 3-port router.

    • B.

      A USB hub.

    • C.

      A KVM switch.

    • D.

      Cross-over cables.

    Correct Answer
    C. A KVM switch.
    Explanation
    A KVM switch is the correct piece of equipment that will allow the set-up to work. A KVM switch stands for Keyboard, Video, and Mouse switch. It allows multiple computers to be controlled using a single keyboard, mouse, and monitor. By connecting the computers to the KVM switch and then connecting the switch to the monitor, users can easily switch between the computers and control them using the same peripherals. This is a convenient solution for managing multiple computers with limited space and resources.

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  • 16. 

    The correct connector that plugs into a Network Interface Card (NIC) is?

    • A.

      RJ-11

    • B.

      USB

    • C.

      RJ-45

    • D.

      STP

    Correct Answer
    C. RJ-45
    Explanation
    The correct connector that plugs into a Network Interface Card (NIC) is RJ-45. RJ-45 connectors are commonly used for Ethernet connections and are designed to connect network cables to devices such as computers, routers, and switches. They have eight pins and are larger than RJ-11 connectors, which are used for telephone connections. USB connectors are used for connecting peripheral devices to computers, and STP (Shielded Twisted Pair) refers to a type of cable used for network connections, not a connector itself.

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  • 17. 

    Which component is based on flash memory and is set to replace conventional hard disk drives?

    • A.

      SD cards

    • B.

      Thumb drives

    • C.

      Blu-ray drives

    • D.

      Solid-state drives

    Correct Answer
    D. Solid-state drives
    Explanation
    Solid-state drives (SSDs) are based on flash memory and are set to replace conventional hard disk drives (HDDs). SSDs offer faster access times, lower power consumption, and higher durability compared to HDDs. They have no moving parts, making them more resistant to physical damage and less prone to failure. SSDs are increasingly being used in laptops, desktops, and servers due to their improved performance and reliability.

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  • 18. 

    A screens resolution is referring to how many _______ are used to draw the screen.

    • A.

      Vectors

    • B.

      Bits per inch

    • C.

      Pixels

    • D.

      Dots

    Correct Answer
    C. Pixels
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Pixels". The screen's resolution refers to how many pixels are used to draw the screen. Pixels are the smallest units of color and light that make up an image on a screen. The more pixels there are, the higher the resolution and the sharper and more detailed the image will appear.

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  • 19. 

    WUXGA has a maximum resolution of......?

    • A.

      1900 x 1200

    • B.

      1680 x 1050

    • C.

      1024 x 768

    • D.

      800 x 600

    Correct Answer
    A. 1900 x 1200
    Explanation
    WUXGA stands for Wide Ultra Extended Graphics Array, and it has a maximum resolution of 1900 x 1200. This resolution refers to the number of pixels displayed horizontally and vertically on a screen. Therefore, WUXGA can display a maximum of 1900 pixels horizontally and 1200 pixels vertically, resulting in a high-quality and detailed image.

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  • 20. 

    If you can see monitor flicker on a CRT monitor you can fix this by doing what?

    • A.

      Squinting your eyes until it goes away.

    • B.

      Change the refresh rate to a higher value(Hz).

    • C.

      Change the resolution to a lower setting.

    • D.

      Change a faulty power cord.

    Correct Answer
    B. Change the refresh rate to a higher value(Hz).
    Explanation
    The flickering on a CRT monitor is usually caused by a low refresh rate. By increasing the refresh rate to a higher value (Hz), the monitor will update the image more frequently, reducing or eliminating the flickering effect.

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  • 21. 

    The built in pointing device on most laptops is called a ________?

    • A.

      Touchpad

    • B.

      Mouse Pad

    • C.

      Touch screen

    • D.

      Finger Mouse

    Correct Answer
    A. Touchpad
    Explanation
    A touchpad is a built-in pointing device on most laptops that allows users to control the cursor by moving their finger across a flat surface. It is an alternative to a traditional mouse and provides a convenient and compact solution for navigating and interacting with the computer. The touchpad is sensitive to touch and gestures, allowing users to perform various actions such as clicking, scrolling, and zooming without the need for an external mouse.

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  • 22. 

    What is the difference between a docking station and a port replicator?

    • A.

      A docking station is made to be portable.

    • B.

      Port replicators replace damaged or non working ports.

    • C.

      Docking stations can include permanent components such as hard drives and act as an extension of the motherboard.

    • D.

      None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    C. Docking stations can include permanent components such as hard drives and act as an extension of the motherboard.
    Explanation
    Docking stations are different from port replicators because they have the capability to include permanent components such as hard drives and act as an extension of the motherboard. This means that docking stations not only provide additional ports for connecting peripherals, but also have the ability to enhance the functionality and storage capacity of the device they are connected to. In contrast, port replicators are primarily used to replace damaged or non-working ports on a device, without offering any additional features or components.

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  • 23. 

    The process of slowing down the processor to conserve power is called__________?

    • A.

      Regression

    • B.

      Dampening

    • C.

      Throttling

    • D.

      Suppressing

    Correct Answer
    C. Throttling
    Explanation
    Throttling refers to the process of slowing down the processor in order to conserve power. This technique is commonly used in electronic devices to reduce power consumption and extend battery life. By reducing the processing speed, the device can operate at a lower power level, resulting in energy savings. Throttling is a useful feature in devices such as smartphones and laptops, where power efficiency is crucial. It helps to balance performance and power consumption, allowing users to get the most out of their devices while optimizing battery life.

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  • 24. 

    What is the sequence of the laser printing process?

    • A.

      Developing, Cleaning, Charging, Transferring, Writing, Fusing.

    • B.

      Writing, Charging, Transferring, Developing, Fusing.

    • C.

      Cleaning, Charging, Writing, Developing, Transferring, Fusing.

    • D.

      Charging, Cleaning, Writing, Developing, Transferring, Fusing.

    Correct Answer
    C. Cleaning, Charging, Writing, Developing, Transferring, Fusing.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Cleaning, Charging, Writing, Developing, Transferring, Fusing." In the laser printing process, the first step is cleaning the drum or the imaging surface to remove any residual toner or debris. Then, the drum is charged with an electrostatic charge. After that, the laser beam writes the image or text onto the drum by selectively removing the charge. Next, the developing unit applies toner to the charged areas on the drum, creating a visible image. The image is then transferred onto the paper through a combination of heat and pressure in the fusing process.

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  • 25. 

    What kind of printer prints on a special, waxy paper that comes on a roll?

    • A.

      Solid-Ink Printer.

    • B.

      Laser Printer.

    • C.

      Thermal Printer.

    • D.

      Dye-Sublimation Printer.

    Correct Answer
    C. Thermal Printer.
    Explanation
    A thermal printer is the correct answer because it uses heat to transfer an image or text onto special waxy paper that comes on a roll. This type of printer is commonly used in industries such as retail and logistics for printing labels, receipts, and barcodes. The heat from the printer's thermal head causes the special paper to react and produce the desired printout. Unlike other printers, a thermal printer does not require ink or toner cartridges, making it a cost-effective and low-maintenance option for certain printing needs.

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  • 26. 

    One of the associates at your company has a large report that they must print for a meeting. When they try to print it they receive a "Print Over run" error. What must they do to fix it?

    • A.

      Install a bigger hard drive.

    • B.

      Use bigger sheets of paper to compensate.

    • C.

      Increase the Ram memory installed.

    • D.

      Reinstall a corrupted driver.

    Correct Answer
    C. Increase the Ram memory installed.
    Explanation
    The "Print Over run" error indicates that the printer's buffer memory, which temporarily stores the data to be printed, is not sufficient to handle the large report. Increasing the RAM memory installed in the computer will provide more space for the printer's buffer, allowing the large report to be printed without encountering the error. Installing a bigger hard drive or using bigger sheets of paper will not address the issue of insufficient buffer memory. Reinstalling a corrupted driver may resolve other printing issues, but it will not specifically fix the "Print Over run" error.

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  • 27. 

    What is the minimum processor speed for all versions of Vista?

    • A.

      1 Ghz.

    • B.

      300 Mhz.

    • C.

      800 Mhz.

    • D.

      2 Ghz.

    Correct Answer
    C. 800 Mhz.
    Explanation
    The minimum processor speed for all versions of Vista is 800 Mhz. This means that any computer running Vista must have a processor that is at least 800 Mhz in speed.

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  • 28. 

    This command prompt tool sends out four 32-byte packets to a specified destination  and waits for a reply.

    • A.

      TRACERT

    • B.

      PING

    • C.

      NETSTAT

    • D.

      NSLOOKUP

    Correct Answer
    B. PING
    Explanation
    The given correct answer is PING. PING is a command prompt tool that sends out four 32-byte packets to a specified destination and waits for a reply. It is commonly used to test the connectivity between two devices on a network.

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  • 29. 

    The default size Windows sets for virtual memory is?

    • A.

      Two times the amount of Ram in the system.

    • B.

      One and a half times the amount of Ram in the system.

    • C.

      One tenth of the available hard drive space.

    • D.

      The same size as the Ram installed on the system.

    Correct Answer
    B. One and a half times the amount of Ram in the system.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is one and a half times the amount of RAM in the system. Windows sets the default size for virtual memory to be 1.5 times the amount of RAM in the system. This is done to ensure that there is enough virtual memory available for the system to use when the physical RAM is fully utilized. By setting the virtual memory size to be larger than the physical RAM, it allows the system to use the hard drive space as additional memory when needed.

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  • 30. 

    Windows file naming conventions allow for names up to what size?

    • A.

      64 characters

    • B.

      8kb

    • C.

      255 characters

    • D.

      Font size 72

    Correct Answer
    C. 255 characters
    Explanation
    Windows file naming conventions allow for names up to 255 characters in size. This means that when naming a file in Windows, you can use up to 255 characters for the file name, including letters, numbers, spaces, and special characters. This allows for more descriptive and detailed file names, making it easier to organize and find files on a Windows system.

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  • 31. 

    File names are case-sensitive. True or False.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    File names are not case-sensitive in most operating systems. This means that whether a file name is written in uppercase or lowercase letters does not affect the ability to access or open the file. For example, a file named "document.txt" can be accessed by typing "document.txt" or "DOCUMENT.TXT". However, it is important to note that some operating systems, such as Linux, do treat file names as case-sensitive.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following can be used on a file or folder?

    • A.

      Compression

    • B.

      Encryption

    • C.

      Both

    • D.

      Neither

    Correct Answer
    C. Both
    Explanation
    Both compression and encryption can be used on a file or folder. Compression is the process of reducing the size of a file or folder, making it easier to store or transfer. Encryption, on the other hand, is the process of converting data into a code, making it unreadable to unauthorized users. Both techniques can be applied to files or folders to enhance security and efficiency.

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  • 33. 

    SATA stands for?

    • A.

      Same as time allowed.

    • B.

      Some attached technical apparatus

    • C.

      Serial advanced technology attachment

    • D.

      Serial advanced timing accessory

    Correct Answer
    C. Serial advanced technology attachment
    Explanation
    SATA stands for Serial Advanced Technology Attachment. This is a computer bus interface that connects host bus adapters to mass storage devices such as hard disk drives and solid-state drives. It is used to transfer data between the computer's motherboard and storage devices.

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  • 34. 

    You are installing Windows from CD and network resources on several computers located in different parts of your facility. To make the process quicker you decide to use an unattended installation method . After starting the last computer you return to the first computer only to find it sitting at the first user interaction prompt. Others loaded successfully. What went wrong?

    • A.

      The computer was not hooked up to the network and did not receive the answer file.

    • B.

      The answer file was set up incorrectly.

    • C.

      The computer is a different model than the others.

    • D.

      Someone moved the mouse while you were away from the computer.

    Correct Answer
    A. The computer was not hooked up to the network and did not receive the answer file.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the computer was not hooked up to the network and did not receive the answer file. This means that the computer was unable to access the necessary resources and instructions for the unattended installation process. As a result, it was unable to progress beyond the first user interaction prompt.

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  • 35. 

    Which three options are on the Windows XP main setup screen?

    • A.

      Repair a Windows XP installation.

    • B.

      Quit setup.

    • C.

      Restore to a previous point.

    • D.

      Setup unattended installation.

    • E.

      Set up Windows XP.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Repair a Windows XP installation.
    B. Quit setup.
    E. Set up Windows XP.
    Explanation
    The three options on the Windows XP main setup screen are Repair a Windows XP installation, Quit setup, and Set up Windows XP. These options allow the user to either repair an existing installation, exit the setup process, or proceed with setting up a new installation of Windows XP.

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  • 36. 

    If Plug and play doesn't recognize a new device plugged into the system what Control Panel utility can you use to install it?

    • A.

      Administrative Tools.

    • B.

      Security Center.

    • C.

      Power Options.

    • D.

      Add/Remove Hardware.

    Correct Answer
    D. Add/Remove Hardware.
    Explanation
    If Plug and play doesn't recognize a new device plugged into the system, the Control Panel utility that can be used to install it is Add/Remove Hardware. This utility allows the user to manually add or remove hardware devices from the system. It helps in detecting and installing new devices that may not be recognized by the Plug and Play feature. The Administrative Tools, Security Center, and Power Options do not have the specific functionality to install new hardware devices.

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  • 37. 

    Rebooting a computer after a software error is usually done for what reason?

    • A.

      It gives you time to think of what to say to the User.

    • B.

      The hard drive may need to cool down in order to work properly.

    • C.

      It clears the memory and allows Windows to restart anew.

    • D.

      Windows can restart and search the network for connections.

    Correct Answer
    C. It clears the memory and allows Windows to restart anew.
    Explanation
    Rebooting a computer after a software error is done to clear the memory and start fresh. When a software error occurs, it can cause the computer's memory to become corrupted or overloaded. By rebooting, the computer clears out any lingering issues in the memory and restarts with a clean slate. This can help resolve the software error and allow the computer to function properly again.

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  • 38. 

    The utility that returns all your files to contiguous blocks is called?

    • A.

      Memory Checker.

    • B.

      Disk Defragmenter.

    • C.

      Integrity checker.

    • D.

      Data Execution Prevention.

    Correct Answer
    B. Disk Defragmenter.
    Explanation
    Disk Defragmenter is the correct answer because it is the utility that rearranges fragmented files on a disk to make them contiguous. Fragmentation occurs when files are broken up into smaller pieces and stored in non-contiguous blocks on the disk. This can slow down the computer's performance as it takes longer to access the fragmented files. Disk Defragmenter helps to optimize disk performance by rearranging the files and placing them in contiguous blocks, making them easier and faster to access.

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  • 39. 

    This type of backup backs up selected files and clears the archive bit.

    • A.

      Copy.

    • B.

      Incremental.

    • C.

      Differential.

    • D.

      Normal.

    • E.

      Daily.

    Correct Answer
    D. Normal.
    Explanation
    Normal backup is a type of backup that backs up selected files and clears the archive bit. This means that after performing a normal backup, the archive bit is reset for all the files that were backed up, indicating that they have been successfully backed up. This type of backup is commonly used as a baseline backup and is typically performed on a regular basis to ensure that all selected files are backed up and can be restored if needed.

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  • 40. 

    You suspect that a recurring error is a hardware problem. What utility will check the hard drive for physical errors?

    • A.

      Disk Search.

    • B.

      Fixboot.

    • C.

      Chkdsk.

    • D.

      Disk Defragmenter.

    Correct Answer
    C. Chkdsk.
    Explanation
    Chkdsk is a utility that can be used to check the hard drive for physical errors. It scans the file system and the physical disk surface to detect and fix any errors that may be present. It is commonly used to diagnose and repair issues related to the hard drive, such as bad sectors or corrupted files. Disk Search, Fixboot, and Disk Defragmenter are not specifically designed to check for physical errors on the hard drive.

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  • 41. 

    Mary in accounting calls you to report that her computer has locked up while she was in the middle of a big spreadsheet. It comes to light that she was also using a word processing program, her email and streaming a radio station to her desktop.  What can you tell her while on the phone to do?

    • A.

      Tell her to go home. When she comes back in the next day everything should be fine.

    • B.

      Tell her to email a helpdesk ticket.

    • C.

      Tell her to reboot her computer. She simply had too much going on for her computer to handle.

    • D.

      Advise her to unplug the network cable. The signal is obviously messing with her system.

    Correct Answer
    C. Tell her to reboot her computer. She simply had too much going on for her computer to handle.
    Explanation
    Rebooting the computer can help resolve the issue of the computer being locked up. Having multiple programs running simultaneously, such as the spreadsheet, word processing program, email, and streaming a radio station, can overload the computer's resources and cause it to freeze. By rebooting the computer, it clears the memory and allows the computer to start fresh, potentially resolving the issue.

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  • 42. 

    Your boss dropped his laptop and now the keyboard is not functioning correctly. The mouse still works. Most of the keys don't respond at all and the ones that do only change the volume settings, dim and brighten the screen and change his screen to an external display. What has happened to the laptop.

    • A.

      The caps lock key is on.

    • B.

      The numlock key is on.

    • C.

      The keyboard has suffered a failure and needs to be replaced.

    • D.

      The function key is stuck on.

    Correct Answer
    D. The function key is stuck on.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the function key is stuck on. This is indicated by the fact that most of the keys don't respond at all and the ones that do only change the volume settings, dim and brighten the screen, and change the screen to an external display. When the function key is stuck on, it can cause the keyboard to behave in this way, as the function key is designed to modify the behavior of other keys when pressed in combination with them.

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  • 43. 

    When you first power on a computer it runs a diagnostic program that is built into BIOS this is known as what?

    • A.

      DHCP.

    • B.

      WEP

    • C.

      POST

    • D.

      MEMCHK

    • E.

      SSID

    Correct Answer
    C. POST
    Explanation
    When you first power on a computer, it runs a diagnostic program called POST (Power-On Self Test) that is built into the BIOS (Basic Input/Output System). This test checks the hardware components of the computer to ensure they are functioning properly before the operating system is loaded. POST helps identify any potential issues or errors that may prevent the computer from starting up correctly.

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  • 44. 

     Which network topologies can be both logical and physical? Choose three.

    • A.

      Bus.

    • B.

      Star

    • C.

      Ring

    • D.

      Mesh

    • E.

      Hybrid

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Bus.
    C. Ring
    D. Mesh
    Explanation
    Bus, Ring, and Mesh network topologies can be both logical and physical. In a Bus topology, all devices are connected to a single cable, creating a logical and physical connection. In a Ring topology, devices are connected in a circular manner, forming a logical and physical loop. In a Mesh topology, devices are connected to each other directly, creating both logical and physical connections between them.

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  • 45. 

    What is the maximum distance for the 10baseT standard?

    • A.

      400m.

    • B.

      85 ft.

    • C.

      100m.

    • D.

      There is no limit.

    Correct Answer
    C. 100m.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 100m. The 10baseT standard, which is a type of Ethernet networking, has a maximum distance limit of 100 meters. This means that the cable used for this standard can transmit data effectively up to a distance of 100 meters. Beyond this distance, the signal may weaken and cause data transmission issues.

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  • 46. 

    The 802.xx standard for wireless networks is________?

    • A.

      802.5

    • B.

      802.10

    • C.

      802.11g

    • D.

      802.11

    Correct Answer
    D. 802.11
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 802.11. The 802.11 standard is used for wireless local area networks (WLANs). It specifies the protocols and technologies for wireless communication, including data transfer rates, frequency bands, and security measures. This standard is commonly known as Wi-Fi and is widely used for wireless internet access in homes, offices, and public spaces.

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  • 47. 

    A DHCP server provides what information to a computer? Choose four.

    • A.

      IP Address.

    • B.

      APIPA Address.

    • C.

      DNS Server Address.

    • D.

      MAC Address.

    • E.

      Subnet Mask.

    • F.

      Default Gateway Address.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. IP Address.
    C. DNS Server Address.
    E. Subnet Mask.
    F. Default Gateway Address.
    Explanation
    A DHCP server provides the IP address, DNS server address, subnet mask, and default gateway address to a computer. These pieces of information are necessary for the computer to establish a network connection and communicate with other devices on the network. The IP address is the unique identifier assigned to the computer, the DNS server address is used for domain name resolution, the subnet mask determines the network boundaries, and the default gateway address is the IP address of the router that connects the local network to the internet.

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  • 48. 

    Which is the correct format for a MAC address?

    • A.

      45-67-70-C8-4G-DE

    • B.

      45:67:70:C8:4G:DE

    • C.

      45.67.70.C8.4G.DE

    • D.

      45/67/70/C8/4G/DE

    Correct Answer
    A. 45-67-70-C8-4G-DE
    Explanation
    A MAC address is a unique identifier assigned to network interfaces for communication on a network. The correct format for a MAC address is usually six groups of two hexadecimal digits separated by hyphens or colons. In this case, the correct format is 45-67-70-C8-4G-DE.

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  • 49. 

    While explaining to some co-workers that MAC filtering on the router is only one way to protect your wireless network your boss walks over and asks you to explain it to him. How would you explain MAC filtering?

    • A.

      Computers that have not had their MAC address registered with the router will not be allowed on the wireless network.

    • B.

      Keeps the cheese runny enough to stick to the pasta.

    • C.

      Machine active control filtering times out computers on the network that have been inactive for a period of time.

    • D.

      Mac filtering redirects packets to the server before sending them out over the internet.

    Correct Answer
    A. Computers that have not had their MAC address registered with the router will not be allowed on the wireless network.
    Explanation
    MAC filtering is a security feature that allows the router to only allow access to devices whose MAC addresses have been registered. MAC addresses are unique identifiers assigned to each network device. By enabling MAC filtering, the router will only grant network access to devices whose MAC addresses have been pre-approved. This helps to prevent unauthorized devices from connecting to the wireless network.

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  • 50. 

    You are working in a school environment and need to block access to the internet. Which port number are you going to block?

    • A.

      23

    • B.

      110

    • C.

      389

    • D.

      80

    Correct Answer
    D. 80
    Explanation
    In a school environment, blocking access to the internet is important to ensure that students do not get distracted or access inappropriate content. Port number 80 is the default port for HTTP, which is used for accessing websites. By blocking port 80, all web traffic will be blocked, effectively preventing access to the internet.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 04, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Dogma1029

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