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CISCO 3 Practice Final

59 Questions
CISCO Quizzes & Trivia

Cisco 3 practice final

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which two statements correctly describe RSTP?(choose two)
    • A. 

      It is a Cisco proprietary protocol.

    • B. 

      It recalculates the spanning tree in less than 1 second.

    • C. 

      It requires the PortFast and UplinkFast features on switch ports.

    • D. 

      It supports four states; blocking, listening, learning, and fowarding

    • E. 

      It requires a full-duplex, point-to-point connection between switches and achieve the highes recalculation speed

  • 2. 
    Which two statements correctly describe RIPv1 and RIPv2?(choose two)
    • A. 

      Both broadcast their entire routing table from all participating interfaces to 255.255.255.255.

    • B. 

      Both advertise their routing updates out all active interfaces every 30 seconds.

    • C. 

      Both have the same administrative distance value of 120

    • D. 

      Both can turn off automatic summarization.

    • E. 

      Both support VLSM and CIDR.

  • 3. 
    Refer to the exhibit. what is the purpose of assigning the IP address 192.168.30.1 to an access layer switch?
    • A. 

      To assign a default gateway to the hosts thar are connected to the switch.

    • B. 

      To allow hosts on the same LAN to connect to each other

    • C. 

      To allow remote management of the switch

    • D. 

      To allow inter-VLAN communication.

  • 4. 
    A sales representative is preparing to send sensitive information to corporate headquarters from a hotel room using the internet. Prior to the trip, the IT staff made the necessary provisions to allow secure Internet access. What solution was implemented for the sales representative?
    • A. 

      VPN

    • B. 

      Frame Relay

    • C. 

      PPP with CHAP authentication

    • D. 

      PPP with PAP authentication

  • 5. 
    Refer to the exhibit. If router RTA fails, Which statement is true?
    • A. 

      Hosts A and B can reach each other, but cannot reach hosts C and D or the server.

    • B. 

      No host can reach any other host.

    • C. 

      Hosts A, B, C, and D can reach each other, but cannot reach the server.

    • D. 

      All hosts can reach each other.

  • 6. 
    Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured R1, R2, and R3 to use RIPv2, and the network is fully converged. The hosts on the internal network are able to access R2, but they are unable to access the Internet.How can the administrator solve this problem?
    • A. 

      Configure a default route on R3 and propagate it via the

    • B. 

      Configure a default route on R2 and propagate it via RIPv2 to routers R1 and R3.

    • C. 

      Configure a default route on the ISP, and it will be automatically propagated to all routers.

    • D. 

      Configure a default route on R1, and it will be automatically propagated to all routers.

  • 7. 
    What are two benefits of implementing VLANs in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      Eliminates the need for a Layer 3 device

    • B. 

      Provides segmentation of broadcast domains

    • C. 

      Allows for the propagation of broadcasts from one local network to another

    • D. 

      Allows for the logical grouping of devices despite physical location

    • E. 

      Prevents issues such as broadcast storms by ensuring a loop free environment

  • 8. 
    Refer to the exhibit. R1 is using the default OSPF operation. Which IP address will be used as the router ID of R1?
    • A. 

      192.168.201.1

    • B. 

      172.16.1.1

    • C. 

      10.10.10.1

    • D. 

      10.1.1.1

  • 9. 
    In which VTP mode can a switch create VLANs, ignore VTP messages, and not pass local VLAN information to other VTP domainmembers?
    • A. 

      Client

    • B. 

      Server

    • C. 

      Pruning

    • D. 

      Transparent

  • 10. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Which VTP function will this switch perform?
    • A. 

      It will create, change, and delete VLANs.

    • B. 

      It will send VTP messages to other attached switches.

    • C. 

      It will ignore information that is contained in the VTP message.

    • D. 

      It will retain its original database when it receives updates from the server.

  • 11. 
    Which component of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture manages server farms?
    • A. 

      Service provider edge

    • B. 

      Enterprise campus

    • C. 

      Enterprise edge

    • D. 

      Edge device

  • 12. 
    Why is UDP preferred for transmission of video traffic?
    • A. 

      It is a reliable protocol.

    • B. 

      It retransmits lost packets.

    • C. 

      It is a three-way handshake protocol.

    • D. 

      It has low overhead.

  • 13. 
    Refer to the exhibit. All switches are configured with default bridge priority. Which two ports will be STP root ports if all links are operatingat the same bandwidth? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      Fa0/1 interface of switch A

    • B. 

      Fa0/2 interface of switch A

    • C. 

      Fa0/1 interface of switch B

    • D. 

      Fa0/2 interface of switch B

    • E. 

      Fa0/1 interface of switch C

  • 14. 
    Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are connected via serial interfaces. Both interfaces show that there is Layer 2 connectivity betweenthem. The administrator verifies that CDP is operational; however, pings between the two interfaces are unsuccessful. What is the causeof this connectivity problem?
    • A. 

      No set loopback

    • B. 

      Incorrect subnet mask on R2

    • C. 

      Incompatible bandwidth

    • D. 

      Incorrect IP address on R1

    • E. 

      Incompatible encapsulation

  • 15. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Which route will be added to the routing table of R1 as a result of running the commands displayed?
    • A. 

      D 192.168.0.0/24 is a summary, Null0

    • B. 

      D 192.168.0.0/22 is a summary, Null0

    • C. 

      D 192.168.0.0/24 [90/203010] via 10.1.1.2, 00:00:10, Serial0/0/0

    • D. 

      D 192.168.0.0/22 [90/203010] via 10.1.1.2, 00:00:10, Serial0/0/0

  • 16. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Which set of letters would appear at the beginning of the displayed routing table entries?
    • A. 

      1=R, 2=O, 3=D, 4=C

    • B. 

      1=R, 2=E, 3=O, 4=S

    • C. 

      1=R, 2=D, 3=O, 4=S

    • D. 

      1=O, 2=R, 3=D, 4=C

    • E. 

      1=R, 2=O, 3=E, 4=C

  • 17. 
    Refer to the exhibit. The administrator applies ACL 101 outbound on the Fa0/1 interface of R1 as displayed. How will this ACL affect traffic at R1?
    • A. 

      All traffic that exits the Fa0/1 interface will be denied.

    • B. 

      All FTP traffic from the 192.168.2.0 network will be denied.

    • C. 

      All traffic except FTP will be allowed to exit the Fa0/1 interface.

    • D. 

      All traffic except FTP will be allowed from the 192.168.1.0 network.

  • 18. 
    Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configured the routers using the displayed commands. What is the reason the EIGRPnetwork fails to converge?
    • A. 

      The network commands have been incorrectly issued on both routers.

    • B. 

      Both routers have been configured with the same autonomous number.

    • C. 

      The wildcard masks have been incorrectly configured on both routers.

    • D. 

      Autosummarization is enabled on both routers.

  • 19. 
    Which two STP states allow a switch to learn MAC addresses? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      Blocking

    • B. 

      Listening

    • C. 

      Learning

    • D. 

      Disabled

    • E. 

      Forwarding

  • 20. 
    While using the Class A addressing scheme, a network administrator decides to use the 255.255.254.0 subnet mask in the networkconfiguration. How many host addresses can be created for each subnetwork in this addressing scheme?
    • A. 

      510

    • B. 

      512

    • C. 

      1022

    • D. 

      1024

  • 21. 
    Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has implemented NAT on R1. Which two addresses are valid inside global addresses?(Choose two.)
    • A. 

      192.168.1.1

    • B. 

      192.168.1.2

    • C. 

      198.133.219.1

    • D. 

      198.133.219.102

    • E. 

      198.133.219.103

  • 22. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Using the command ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2 150, the network administrator configures a newroute. Which statement describes how the router will use the new route?
    • A. 

      The new route will be ignored and will never be added to the routing table.

    • B. 

      The new route will be added to the routing table and will be the primary route to the 192.168.1.0/24 network.

    • C. 

      The previously existing dynamic route will be replaced with the new static route.

    • D. 

      The new route will be displayed in the routing table if the dynamic routing information for this route is lost.

  • 23. 
    Which route will be excluded from the updates that are sent to the neighbor routers?
    • A. 

      R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.100.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/1

    • B. 

      R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/15] via 192.168.101.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0

    • C. 

      R 192.168.3.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.101.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0

    • D. 

      R 192.168.4.0/24 [120/7] via 192.168.101.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0

  • 24. 
    Refer to the exhibit. How many routers have established OSPF adjacencies with R1?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      7

  • 25. 
    Which Frame Relay component provides connection status information about PVCs in the network?
    • A. 

      CIR

    • B. 

      LMI

    • C. 

      DLCI

    • D. 

      FECN

  • 26. 
    Refer to the exhibit. R3 is announcing all displayed internal networks as a summary address to R4. Which summary address will bemost specific?
    • A. 

      172.16.0.0/21

    • B. 

      172.16.4.0/21

    • C. 

      172.16.0.0/22

    • D. 

      172.16.4.0/22

  • 27. 
    Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of configuring the newly installed R1 with the exhibited command?
    • A. 

      It will set the gateway of last resort for R1.

    • B. 

      It will configure the IP address 10.1.1.2 on one interface of R1.

    • C. 

      It configures the router to forward traffic that is destined for the 192.168.1.128/26 network through the interface with IP address 10.1.1.2.

    • D. 

      It configures a static route for all packets with the source network address 192.168.1.128/26.

  • 28. 
    Which routing protocol is unable to support discontiguous networks?
    • A. 

      RIPv1

    • B. 

      RIPv2

    • C. 

      EIGRP

    • D. 

      OSPF

  • 29. 
    Which EIGRP packet type is sent when DUAL places a route in the active state?
    • A. 

      Acknowledgment

    • B. 

      Hello

    • C. 

      Query

    • D. 

      Reply

    • E. 

      Update

  • 30. 
    What is the difference between the passive and active route status as displayed in an EIGRP topology table?
    • A. 

      Routes that are passive are never updated.

    • B. 

      Routes that are active are used to forward data.

    • C. 

      Routes that are active are being recalculated by DUAL.

    • D. 

      Routes that are passive are waiting for the neighbor adjacency process to complete.

  • 31. 
    Which function does the access layer provide in a hierarchical internetworking model?
    • A. 

      It provides a high-speed backbone layer between geographically dispersed networks.

    • B. 

      It provides hierarchical design between the core layer and the distribution layer.

    • C. 

      It provides an entry point for hosts into the network.

    • D. 

      It provides data security and traffic management for the core layer.

  • 32. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 and Switch2 are connected to each other via a trunk link that has been tested and is working properly. is VTP unable to propagate VLANs from one switch to the other?
    • A. 

      The revision number is different on both switches.

    • B. 

      Both switches are in server mode.

    • C. 

      The VTP domain name is different on both switches.

    • D. 

      The VTP pruning mode is disabled.

  • 33. 
    What is a feature of PAP authentication?
    • A. 

      It uses a three-way handshake with encryption. It

    • B. 

      It sends the username/password pair across the link in clear text.

    • C. 

      It provides protection against playback attack through a variable challenge value.

    • D. 

      It designates the called device to control the frequency and timing of the authentication.

  • 34. 
    Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the exhibited command?
    • A. 

      The command specifies how traffic will be routed to the 10.1.1.2 host.

    • B. 

      It will set the default route in the routing table.

    • C. 

      This route has an administrative distance of 1.

    • D. 

      If a dynamic routing protocol with default parameters is configured on this router, this route will not be installed in the routing table

  • 35. 
    What are two characteristics of EIGRP? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      It supports a maximum hop count of 15.

    • B. 

      It sends small hello packets to maintain knowledge of its neighbors.

    • C. 

      It forwards complete routing tables in its updates to neighboring routers.

    • D. 

      It supports equal and unequal cost load balancing.

    • E. 

      It supports only one network layer protocol.

  • 36. 
    What are two reasons for assigning switch ports to different VLANs? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      They increase network security.

    • B. 

      They facilitate VTP implementation.

    • C. 

      They decrease the size of the collision domain.

    • D. 

      They make more physical connections to the network possible.

    • E. 

      They logically group hosts according to their function.

  • 37. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 172.30.20.0/24 network are unable to access any of the servers located on the 192.168.0.0/23 network.Given the network topology and OSPF configuration, what two problems exist in this network? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      There is a routing loop occurring between all three routers.

    • B. 

      There is a network statement missing.

    • C. 

      Network 172.30.20.0 has an incorrect wildcard mask.

    • D. 

      The OSPF area configuration is incorrect.

    • E. 

      /23 is an invalid subnet mask for the 192.168.0.0 network.

  • 38. 
    Refer to the exhibit. What are two possible procedures that would ensure that R1 would always be the DR for OSPF area 0? (Choosetwo.)
    • A. 

      Set the router ID of R2 to 10.0.0.1.

    • B. 

      Set the Loopback0 IP address of R3 to 192.168.1.253.

    • C. 

      Set the FastEthernet0/0 IP address of R1 to 192.168.1.1.

    • D. 

      Set the router ID of R1 to the highest IP address in the network.

    • E. 

      Set the OSPF priority to 0 on the R3 FastEthernet0/0 interface.

  • 39. 
    Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is enabled and the network is fully converged. Which two routers will be designated as the DR and BDR, the routers are booted at the same time? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      R1 will be the DR.

    • B. 

      R4 will be the DR.

    • C. 

      R5 will be the DR.

    • D. 

      R2 will be the BDR.

    • E. 

      R3 will be the BDR.

  • 40. 
    Refer to the exhibit. A router has learned the six routes that are shown in the exhibit. Which two routes will be installed in the routingtable? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      5

    • E. 

      6

  • 41. 
    Which three statements relate to PPP encapsulation and CHAP authentication? (Choose three.)
    • A. 

      CHAP sends passwords in clear text.

    • B. 

      CHAP uses repeated challenges for verification.

    • C. 

      PPP encapsulation is configured in interface mode.

    • D. 

      CHAP uses a 2-way handshake to establish a link.

    • E. 

      CHAP uses a challenge/response that is based on the MD5 hash algorithm.

  • 42. 
    Refer to the exhibit. A network support technician has been asked to set an IP address on one of the FastEthernet interfaces on a newrouter. What is causing the interface to reject the address?
    • A. 

      The IP address is already in use.

    • B. 

      The technician is using a network address.

    • C. 

      The technician is using the wrong subnet mask for /26.

    • D. 

      The technician must enable VLSM on the interface.

  • 43. 
    Which two wildcard masks are required in an extended access list statement that blocks the traffic from host 172.16.1.2 to network192.168.1.0/25? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      255.255.255.255

    • B. 

      0.0.0.255

    • C. 

      0.0.0.128

    • D. 

      0.0.0.127

    • E. 

      0.0.0.0

  • 44. 
    What are two benefits of using ACLs? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      They provide IP filtering.

    • B. 

      They reduce the processing load on the router.

    • C. 

      They simplify the configuration of inter-VLAN routing.

    • D. 

      They prevent routing loops and facilitate convergence.

    • E. 

      They identify traffic for multiple uses such as QoS and NAT.

  • 45. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address can be used at the Fa0/0 interface of R1 to enable host A to access the Internet?
    • A. 

      192.168.1.65/27

    • B. 

      192.168.1.32/27

    • C. 

      192.168.1.63/27

    • D. 

      192.168.1.61/27

  • 46. 
    Which two statements are true about untagged frames on a switch? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      An untagged frame cannot pass through access ports.

    • B. 

      An untagged frame cannot pass through trunk ports.

    • C. 

      All frames that pass through trunk ports are untagged frames.

    • D. 

      Untagged frames minimize the delays that are associated with inspection of the VLAN ID tag.

    • E. 

      Untagged frames that are received on an 802.1Q trunk port are members of the native VLAN.

  • 47. 
    Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer at the BRANCH1 office wishes to use network summarization to announce the fewest networkspossible to the MAIN office. If the summaries include only the networks that are shown and no others, how many networks will beannounced?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 48. 
    What are two features of a standard IP ACL? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      It permits or denies access based on the entire protocol.

    • B. 

      It filters the packet based on the source IP address only.

    • C. 

      It uses identification numbers between 100 and 199.

    • D. 

      It can filter traffic based on port number.

    • E. 

      It can only filter inbound traffic on an interface.

  • 49. 
    An organization is planning to expand by adding five new branches. After the expansion, it will require secured, full-time, andsimultaneous connectivity for its new branch offices with the central office. There is only one port available on the central office router.Which WAN technology can be used in this situation?
    • A. 

      PPP

    • B. 

      ISDN

    • C. 

      Frame Relay

    • D. 

      Analog dialup

  • 50. 
    Refer to the exhibit. None of the hosts in network A are able to access the Internet. How can this problem be resolved?
    • A. 

      Configure dynamic NAT instead of PAT.

    • B. 

      Configure the access list for the correct network.

    • C. 

      Include the ip nat pool command in the configuration.

    • D. 

      Configure the ip nat inside command on the correct interface.

  • 51. 
    Which statement describes a PVC?
    • A. 

      A PVC provides a permanent logical connection to forward data between two points.

    • B. 

      A PVC is dynamically established when a router requests a transmission.

    • C. 

      A PVC prevents small messages from being held up behind larger messages.

    • D. 

      A PVC requires call set-up information to be sent before transmitting any data.

  • 52. 
    What are three correct host addresses in the 172.16.0.0/17 network? (Choose three.)
    • A. 

      172.16.0.255

    • B. 

      172.16.16.16

    • C. 

      172.16.127.127

    • D. 

      172.16.128.1

    • E. 

      172.17.1.1

  • 53. 
    Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct description of the highlighted address?
    • A. 

      It is the address of the destination network.

    • B. 

      It is the routerID of the neighboring router.

    • C. 

      It is the next hop address of the feasible successor.

    • D. 

      It is the IP address of the serial0/0/0 interface of RouterC.

  • 54. 
    Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator must manually summarize all IP addresses on the POP router for the ISP. Which one is correct summary address?
    • A. 

      192.168.0.0/22

    • B. 

      192.168.0.0/23

    • C. 

      192.168.0.0/24

    • D. 

      192.168.0.0/25

  • 55. 
    Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for inter-VLAN communication as displayed. PC1 is able to ping PC2 but unable to ping PC3. Whatis the cause of this problem?
    • A. 

      PC3 and the FastEthernet0/0 interface of R1 are not on the same subnet.

    • B. 

      Fa0/1 is configured for access mode.

    • C. 

      Fa0/4 must be configured as a trunk.

    • D. 

      PC1 and the switch are not on the same subnet.

  • 56. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Which Telnet session will be blocked as a result of the displayed commands?
    • A. 

      The session from host A to host B

    • B. 

      The session from host B to hosts C and D

    • C. 

      The session from host B to hosts E and F

    • D. 

      The session from host E and host F to host A and host B

  • 57. 
    Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are connected to each other through their serial0/0/0 interfaces, but are unable to establish OSPFadjacency. What are two reasons for this? (Choose two.)  ONLY ONE ANSWERED AT THIS TIME!!!
    • A. 

      The router IDs of the two routers do not match.

    • B. 

      The process IDs of the two routers do not match.

    • C. 

      The Hello and Dead timers of the routers do not match.

    • D. 

      The OSPF backbone area is configured on both routers.

    • E. 

      The serial interfaces of the two routers are in different subnets.

  • 58. 
    What are two advantages of using dynamic routing protocols in a network? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      They adapt to topological changes.

    • B. 

      They are more secure than static routes.

    • C. 

      They eliminate the need for default routes.

    • D. 

      They have lower administrative distances than static routes.

    • E. 

      They enable routers to share information about the reachability and status of remote networks.

  • 59. 
    Refer to the exhibit. What are two consequences of issuing the displayed commands? (Choose two.) ONLY ONE ANSWERED AT THIS TIME!!!!
    • A. 

      The routing update information is protected against being falsified.

    • B. 

      The routing table of R2 will be secured.

    • C. 

      The key is encrypted with the MD5 hashing algorithm.

    • D. 

      OSPF routes will get priority over EIGRP routes going into the routing table.

    • E. 

      The overhead of OSPF information exchange will reduce.