CDC 4a071 2009 Version

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CDC 4A071 Health Services Management CraftsmanVolume 1. Health care Support and Resource Management


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the appropiate access-to-care standard for wellness and health promotions appointments?

    • A.

      24 hours

    • B.

      48 hours

    • C.

      7 days

    • D.

      28 days

    Correct Answer
    D. 28 days
    Explanation
    The appropriate access-to-care standard for wellness and health promotion appointments is 28 days. This means that individuals should be able to schedule and receive these types of appointments within a maximum of 28 days. This standard ensures that individuals have timely access to preventive care and health promotion services, allowing them to maintain and improve their overall wellness.

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  • 2. 

    Which is not a a benefit of using the OA model for booking appointments?

    • A.

      TImely access to care

    • B.

      Increase provider schedule flexibility

    • C.

      Enhance patient trust

    • D.

      Increase patient no-show and cancellation rates

    Correct Answer
    D. Increase patient no-show and cancellation rates
    Explanation
    Using the OA model for booking appointments offers several benefits such as timely access to care, increased provider schedule flexibility, and enhanced patient trust. However, the increase in patient no-show and cancellation rates is not a benefit of using the OA model. In fact, the OA model aims to improve appointment scheduling efficiency and reduce no-shows by implementing reminder systems and optimizing the booking process.

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  • 3. 

    How ofter is the P2R2 access metric update by the MTF point of contact?

    • A.

      Monthly

    • B.

      Quarterly

    • C.

      Semi-annually

    • D.

      Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    The P2R2 access metric is updated by the MTF point of contact on a monthly basis. This means that the metric is reviewed and revised every month to ensure accurate and up-to-date information. This regular update frequency allows for timely monitoring and assessment of the access metric, enabling any necessary adjustments or improvements to be made on a monthly basis.

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  • 4. 

    Which report provides a preview of the availabiltiy of appointments by appointment type and by provider within a clinic on a given date and time?

    • A.

      Clinic Workload Report

    • B.

      Next Available Appointment Report

    • C.

      Non-show Statistical Report

    • D.

      Patient Cancellation Statistical Report

    Correct Answer
    B. Next Available Appointment Report
    Explanation
    The Next Available Appointment Report provides a preview of the availability of appointments by appointment type and by provider within a clinic on a given date and time. This report allows clinics to see which providers have open appointments and what types of appointments are available, helping them efficiently schedule and manage their workload.

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  • 5. 

    Who generates the CHCS access to care summary report weekly?

    • A.

      MAJCOM

    • B.

      TOC

    • C.

      AFMS

    • D.

      DOD

    Correct Answer
    B. TOC
    Explanation
    The TOC (Theater Operations Center) generates the CHCS (Composite Health Care System) access to care summary report weekly.

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  • 6. 

    Who uses the TAT to evaluate scheduling adequacy and sufficiency of a MTF's schedules and templates in support of Tricare Prime access standards?

    • A.

      MAJCOM

    • B.

      MTF

    • C.

      USAF

    • D.

      DOD

    Correct Answer
    B. MTF
    Explanation
    The MTF (Medical Treatment Facility) uses the TAT (Turnaround Time) to evaluate scheduling adequacy and sufficiency of their schedules and templates in support of Tricare Prime access standards. The TAT is a measure of the time it takes for a patient to receive care, and by evaluating the scheduling adequacy and sufficiency, the MTF can ensure that they are meeting the standards set for Tricare Prime access. The other options, MAJCOM (Major Command), USAF (United States Air Force), and DOD (Department of Defense), do not directly evaluate scheduling adequacy and sufficiency of MTF's schedules and templates.

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  • 7. 

    What tool was developed to ease the burden of analyzing data from many reports available in the CHCS?

    • A.

      AIM

    • B.

      Balanced Scorecard

    • C.

      Commander's Guide to Access Success

    • D.

      TOC

    Correct Answer
    A. AIM
    Explanation
    AIM stands for the Automated Information Management (AIM) tool. It was developed to ease the burden of analyzing data from many reports available in the CHCS (Composite Health Care System). The AIM tool helps in consolidating and organizing data from various reports, making it easier for users to analyze and interpret the information. It streamlines the process of data analysis and allows for more efficient decision-making based on the insights gained from the data.

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  • 8. 

    Which is not a resposibility of the TRO?

    • A.

      Address enrollment issues

    • B.

      Approve MOUs with the contractor

    • C.

      Establish TRICARE provider networks

    • D.

      Monitor customer satisfaction outcomes

    Correct Answer
    C. Establish TRICARE provider networks
    Explanation
    The TRO (TRICARE Regional Office) is responsible for various tasks related to the administration of TRICARE, a healthcare program for military personnel and their families. These responsibilities include addressing enrollment issues, approving MOUs (Memorandum of Understanding) with contractors, and monitoring customer satisfaction outcomes. However, establishing TRICARE provider networks is not a responsibility of the TRO. This task is typically handled by the Defense Health Agency (DHA) or other entities within the TRICARE program.

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  • 9. 

    Where do MCS contractors and TRO receive overall guidance?

    • A.

      AFMS

    • B.

      DOD

    • C.

      MTF commander

    • D.

      TMA

    Correct Answer
    D. TMA
    Explanation
    MCS contractors and TRO receive overall guidance from TMA.

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  • 10. 

    Who is responsible for ensuring the MCS contractor performs the technical aspects of the contract?

    • A.

      MTF commander

    • B.

      TRICARE

    • C.

      COTR

    • D.

      TRO

    Correct Answer
    C. COTR
    Explanation
    The COTR, or Contracting Officer's Technical Representative, is responsible for ensuring that the MCS contractor performs the technical aspects of the contract. The COTR acts as the liaison between the contractor and the government, monitoring the contractor's performance, providing technical guidance, and ensuring that all contract requirements are met. They play a crucial role in overseeing the technical aspects of the contract and ensuring that the contractor fulfills their obligations.

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  • 11. 

    The COTR will verify contractor's records regarding licensure, certification, and education remain current, and will post all changes to the

    • A.

      COR database

    • B.

      Base bulletin board

    • C.

      TRICARE website

    • D.

      DEERS database

    Correct Answer
    A. COR database
    Explanation
    The COTR is responsible for verifying the contractor's records regarding licensure, certification, and education. This is to ensure that these records remain current. Any changes or updates to these records will be posted on the COR database. The COR database serves as a centralized system for storing and managing contractor information. It allows for easy access and retrieval of contractor records and helps in maintaining accurate and up-to-date information.

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  • 12. 

    Which is not purpose of the COTR contracts?

    • A.

      Advise MTF commander on contract matters

    • B.

      Evaluate managed care support contractor performance

    • C.

      Ensure adequacy standards of care

    • D.

      Resolve contract problems

    Correct Answer
    C. Ensure adequacy standards of care
    Explanation
    The purpose of COTR contracts is to advise the MTF commander on contract matters, evaluate managed care support contractor performance, and resolve contract problems. Ensuring adequacy standards of care is not a purpose of COTR contracts.

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  • 13. 

    Supplement services provided at MTF are an example of which type of resource sharing?

    • A.

      Primary

    • B.

      External

    • C.

      Internal

    • D.

      Secondary

    Correct Answer
    C. Internal
    Explanation
    The supplement services provided at MTF refer to the additional services offered within the organization itself. This indicates that the resource sharing is happening internally, within the organization. Therefore, the correct answer is Internal.

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  • 14. 

    Who provides the contractor with written approval/disapproval within 30 days of receipt of a resource-sharing agreement signed by the MTF commander and the contractor?

    • A.

      COTR

    • B.

      MTF commander

    • C.

      Staff Judge Advocate

    • D.

      TRO

    Correct Answer
    D. TRO
    Explanation
    The TRO (Technical Review Officer) provides the contractor with written approval/disapproval within 30 days of receipt of a resource-sharing agreement signed by the MTF commander and the contractor.

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  • 15. 

    How often will the MCS contractor submit a revised resource sharing plan to the TRO?

    • A.

      Quarterly

    • B.

      Semi-annually

    • C.

      Annually

    • D.

      Upon change of the contract requirements

    Correct Answer
    C. Annually
    Explanation
    The MCS contractor will submit a revised resource sharing plan to the TRO annually. This suggests that the contractor is required to review and update their resource sharing plan once every year. It is likely that this requirement is in place to ensure that the contractor's resources are allocated efficiently and effectively, and that any changes or updates to the plan can be addressed on an annual basis.

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  • 16. 

    What policy states that the DOD and the VA will enter direct care sharing agreements?

    • A.

      AFMS

    • B.

      DOD

    • C.

      MHS

    • D.

      TRICARE

    Correct Answer
    B. DOD
    Explanation
    The DOD (Department of Defense) policy states that the DOD and the VA (Department of Veterans Affairs) will enter direct care sharing agreements. This means that both departments will collaborate and establish agreements to share resources and provide direct care services to eligible individuals. This policy aims to improve access to healthcare services for military personnel and veterans by leveraging the capabilities and resources of both organizations.

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  • 17. 

    Who will implement a formal DOD/VA Health Care Resource Sharing Program?

    • A.

      TRO

    • B.

      TMA Director

    • C.

      MTF/CC

    • D.

      COTR

    Correct Answer
    B. TMA Director
    Explanation
    The TMA Director will implement a formal DOD/VA Health Care Resource Sharing Program. The TMA Director is responsible for overseeing the Defense Health Agency (DHA) and ensuring the delivery of quality healthcare to beneficiaries. Implementing a formal resource sharing program between the Department of Defense (DOD) and the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) falls under the purview of the TMA Director's responsibilities. They will be responsible for coordinating and managing the program to ensure effective collaboration and sharing of healthcare resources between the two departments.

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  • 18. 

    In regards to internal resource sharing, before a provider is permitted to practice in the MTF, he or she must be granted privileges by the

    • A.

      MCSC

    • B.

      MTF/CC

    • C.

      TRO

    • D.

      TMA

    Correct Answer
    B. MTF/CC
    Explanation
    Before a provider is permitted to practice in the MTF (Medical Treatment Facility), they must be granted privileges by the MTF/CC (MTF Commander). The MTF/CC is responsible for overseeing and managing the operations of the facility, including granting privileges to providers based on their qualifications, experience, and credentials. This ensures that only qualified and competent providers are allowed to practice within the MTF, ensuring the safety and quality of patient care.

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  • 19. 

    For external resource sharing military health care personnel, who will ensure that the military health care personnel are appropriately licensed and have active clinical privileges with the network facility?

    • A.

      Base commander

    • B.

      MTF commander

    • C.

      Contractor

    • D.

      Provider

    Correct Answer
    B. MTF commander
    Explanation
    The MTF commander is responsible for ensuring that military health care personnel who are sharing external resources are appropriately licensed and have active clinical privileges with the network facility. This is because the MTF commander has the authority and oversight over the military health care personnel and their activities within the network facility. The base commander may have overall authority but may not have direct involvement in the licensing and clinical privileges of the personnel. The contractor and provider may have their own responsibilities, but they do not have the same level of authority as the MTF commander in this context.

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  • 20. 

    Who shall have an independent certified public accounting firm perform audit procedures for each resource-sharing agreement to validate that resource-sharing activity is correctly report under contract provisions?

    • A.

      Contractor

    • B.

      RMO

    • C.

      MTF commander

    • D.

      Base contractor office

    Correct Answer
    A. Contractor
    Explanation
    The contractor shall have an independent certified public accounting firm perform audit procedures for each resource-sharing agreement to validate that resource-sharing activity is correctly reported under contract provisions. This means that it is the responsibility of the contractor to hire an external accounting firm to conduct audits and ensure that the resource-sharing activities are being accurately reported according to the terms of the contract.

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  • 21. 

    To provide the combatant commanders with the best mix of forces, equipment and support attainable, within established fiscal constraints is the ultimate objective of the

    • A.

      DHP

    • B.

      FYDP

    • C.

      Military budget process

    • D.

      PPBES

    Correct Answer
    D. PPBES
    Explanation
    The PPBES (Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution System) is the military budget process that aims to provide the combatant commanders with the optimal combination of forces, equipment, and support while adhering to fiscal constraints. This process involves planning, programming, budgeting, and executing the military budget to ensure that resources are allocated effectively and efficiently. By using the PPBES, the military can prioritize and allocate resources in a way that supports the overall objectives and requirements of the combatant commanders.

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  • 22. 

    Which phase of the PPBES is the process of determining objectives and specifying time-phased military force requirements to accomplish a mission?

    • A.

      Planning

    • B.

      Programming

    • C.

      Budgeting

    • D.

      Execution

    Correct Answer
    A. Planning
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Planning. In the PPBES (Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution System) process, the phase of determining objectives and specifying time-phased military force requirements to accomplish a mission is known as planning. This phase involves setting goals, identifying resources needed, and developing strategies to achieve the mission. It is the initial step in the PPBES process and lays the foundation for the subsequent phases of programming, budgeting, and execution.

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  • 23. 

    Which PPBES phase provides the opportunity to make assessment concerning current and previous resource allocations and whether the department acheived its planned performance goal?

    • A.

      Budgeting

    • B.

      Planning

    • C.

      Programming

    • D.

      Execution

    Correct Answer
    D. Execution
    Explanation
    The Execution phase of the PPBES (Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution System) provides the opportunity to assess current and previous resource allocations and determine whether the department achieved its planned performance goals. This phase involves the implementation of the budget and the execution of planned programs and activities. By evaluating the outcomes and results of the executed plans, the department can determine if its resource allocations were effective and if the desired performance goals were met.

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  • 24. 

    What is a grouping of forces, manpower, and cost associated with a military capability or support activity?

    • A.

      PEC

    • B.

      Fund citation

    • C.

      BAG

    • D.

      EEIC

    Correct Answer
    A. PEC
    Explanation
    PEC stands for Program Element Code, which is a unique identifier used by the Department of Defense to categorize and track funding for specific programs or activities. In the context of the question, PEC can be seen as the grouping of forces, manpower, and cost associated with a military capability or support activity. It helps in organizing and managing resources efficiently by providing a standardized way to allocate and track funding for different programs within the military.

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  • 25. 

    What funding structure, mandates by the TMA, must MTF commanders, resource managment personnel and flight commanders review and mange?

    • A.

      Program elements

    • B.

      BAG

    • C.

      OBAD

    • D.

      EEIC

    Correct Answer
    B. BAG
    Explanation
    MTF commanders, resource management personnel, and flight commanders must review and manage the funding structure mandated by the TMA, known as BAG. This funding structure includes program elements, OBAD, and EEIC. By reviewing and managing the BAG funding structure, these individuals ensure that the appropriate allocation and utilization of resources are in line with the TMA mandates.

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  • 26. 

    Through the medical logistics flight, which office prepares, and provides guidance for DWCF, Medical-Dental Stock Division?

    • A.

      USAF/SG

    • B.

      USAF/SGOI

    • C.

      Air Force Medical Logistics Office

    • D.

      Air Force Material Command Medical-Dental Division

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Medical Logistics Office
    Explanation
    The Air Force Medical Logistics Office is responsible for preparing and providing guidance for the Defense Working Capital Fund (DWCF), Medical-Dental Stock Division. This office is specifically dedicated to managing medical logistics within the Air Force, ensuring that medical and dental supplies are properly stocked and distributed. They play a crucial role in supporting medical operations and ensuring that healthcare providers have the necessary resources to deliver quality care.

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  • 27. 

    Which is not a responsibility of the CCM?

    • A.

      Develop section budget

    • B.

      Develop cost center management guide

    • C.

      Justify financial and manpower resource requirements

    • D.

      Monitor expenditure of section funds

    Correct Answer
    B. Develop cost center management guide
    Explanation
    A cost center management guide is not a responsibility of the CCM. The other options, such as developing section budgets, justifying financial and manpower resource requirements, and monitoring expenditure of section funds, are all responsibilities that fall under the role of the CCM. However, a cost center management guide is typically developed by management or finance teams to provide guidelines and procedures for managing cost centers effectively.

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  • 28. 

    Who maintains the MTF's cost center management program?

    • A.

      RA

    • B.

      CCM

    • C.

      RMO

    • D.

      MTF commander

    Correct Answer
    C. RMO
    Explanation
    The RMO (Resource Management Office) maintains the MTF's (Medical Treatment Facility) cost center management program. The RMO is responsible for managing the financial resources and budgeting within the MTF, including the cost center management program. This program helps track and allocate costs to different departments or units within the MTF, ensuring efficient financial management and accountability.

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  • 29. 

    How often must CCM meetings be conducted?

    • A.

      Monthly

    • B.

      Quarterly

    • C.

      Annually

    • D.

      As required

    Correct Answer
    B. Quarterly
    Explanation
    CCM meetings must be conducted quarterly, which means every three months. This frequency allows for regular communication, updates, and decision-making among the members. Holding meetings on a quarterly basis ensures that important matters are addressed in a timely manner without overwhelming participants with excessive meetings. It strikes a balance between maintaining regular contact and allowing sufficient time for preparation and implementation of decisions.

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  • 30. 

    What document should be reviewed to ensure all commitments, obligations, and customer orders are recorded accurately.

    • A.

      COL

    • B.

      OBL

    • C.

      ODL

    • D.

      Financial report

    Correct Answer
    C. ODL
    Explanation
    The document that should be reviewed to ensure all commitments, obligations, and customer orders are recorded accurately is the ODL (Order Detail List). This document contains detailed information about customer orders, including the products or services ordered, quantities, prices, and delivery dates. By reviewing the ODL, one can verify that all commitments and obligations are properly documented and recorded, ensuring accuracy in fulfilling customer orders.

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  • 31. 

    What is the most important snapshot of financial activity the RMO has and serves as their checkbook?

    • A.

      OBL

    • B.

      ODL

    • C.

      Obligation status report

    • D.

      Status of funds report

    Correct Answer
    A. OBL
    Explanation
    The most important snapshot of financial activity that the RMO has and serves as their checkbook is the OBL (Obligation status report). This report provides a detailed overview of the obligations and commitments made by the organization, including information on the amount, purpose, and status of each obligation. It allows the RMO to track and monitor their financial transactions and ensure that they are in line with their budget and financial goals.

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  • 32. 

    What form is used to establish unfilled customers orders between the ordering and performing activities in the accounting records?

    • A.

      AF Form 9, Request for Purchase

    • B.

      AF Form 406, Miscellaneous Obiligation/Reimbursement Document (MORD)

    • C.

      AF Form 616, Fund Cite Authorization (FCA)

    • D.

      DD Form 448, Military Interdepartmental Purchase Request (MIPR)

    Correct Answer
    B. AF Form 406, Miscellaneous Obiligation/Reimbursement Document (MORD)
    Explanation
    The AF Form 406, Miscellaneous Obligation/Reimbursement Document (MORD), is used to establish unfilled customer orders between the ordering and performing activities in the accounting records. This form is specifically designed for recording and tracking obligations and reimbursements within the Air Force. It serves as a documentation tool to ensure proper financial management and accountability for customer orders that have not yet been fulfilled.

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  • 33. 

    Which form is used to issue funds to other Air Force units when it is impractical to route weach request for funds through the Accounting and Financial Office?

    • A.

      AF Form 9, Request for Purchase

    • B.

      AF Form 406, Miscellaneous Obligation/Reimbursement Document (MORD)

    • C.

      AF Form 616, Fund Cite Authorization (FCA)

    • D.

      DD Form 448, Military Interdepartmental Purchase Report (MIPR)

    Correct Answer
    C. AF Form 616, Fund Cite Authorization (FCA)
    Explanation
    AF Form 616, Fund Cite Authorization (FCA), is used to issue funds to other Air Force units when it is impractical to route each request for funds through the Accounting and Financial Office. This form allows for the authorization of funds to be transferred directly to the requesting unit without going through the usual accounting and financial processes. It streamlines the funding process and allows for quicker allocation of funds when necessary.

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  • 34. 

    Who develops the spend plan?

    • A.

      MTF commander

    • B.

      NCOIC, RMO

    • C.

      CCM

    • D.

      RA

    Correct Answer
    D. RA
    Explanation
    The RA, or Resource Advisor, develops the spend plan. The Resource Advisor is responsible for managing the financial resources of the organization and creating a plan for how those resources will be allocated and spent. They work closely with the MTF commander, NCOIC, RMO, and CCM to gather information and ensure that the spend plan aligns with the organization's goals and priorities.

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  • 35. 

    Which is not a key to successful close-out?

    • A.

      Constant review of management reports

    • B.

      Pre-planning

    • C.

      Close coordination with base agencies

    • D.

      Last minute obligations

    Correct Answer
    D. Last minute obligations
    Explanation
    Last minute obligations are not a key to successful close-out because they can lead to rushed and incomplete work, increasing the likelihood of errors or omissions. Successful close-out requires careful planning and coordination throughout the project, as well as constant review of management reports to ensure that all tasks are completed on time and according to the project plan. Pre-planning and close coordination with base agencies are essential for a smooth and successful close-out process.

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  • 36. 

    What is the primary use of fallout dollars?

    • A.

      Purchase non-medical supplies

    • B.

      Purchase equipment

    • C.

      Settle travel obligations

    • D.

      First proirity level expenses

    Correct Answer
    B. Purchase equipment
    Explanation
    Fallout dollars are primarily used to purchase equipment. This suggests that fallout dollars are a form of currency or credit specifically designated for acquiring equipment. It implies that these dollars cannot be used for other purposes such as buying non-medical supplies, settling travel obligations, or covering first priority level expenses. The focus is on acquiring equipment, indicating that fallout dollars are intended for this specific purpose.

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  • 37. 

    What serve as both a planning and programming guidance document to build the POM?

    • A.

      MAPPG

    • B.

      MAPPT

    • C.

      UDM

    • D.

      UPMR

    Correct Answer
    A. MAPPG
    Explanation
    MAPPG stands for Military Assistance Program Planning Guidance. It serves as both a planning and programming guidance document to build the POM (Program Objective Memorandum). The POM is a document that outlines the Department of Defense's planned resource allocations and program priorities over a specific period of time. The MAPPG provides guidance and direction for the development of the POM, ensuring that it aligns with the overall strategic goals and objectives of the military assistance program.

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  • 38. 

    What is a tool a unit can use to request a change to manning levels?

    • A.

      MAPPG

    • B.

      UPMR

    • C.

      ACR

    • D.

      UMD

    Correct Answer
    C. ACR
    Explanation
    ACR stands for Authorization Change Request. It is a tool that a unit can use to request a change to manning levels. This tool allows the unit to formally submit a request for additional personnel or a change in the number of personnel assigned to a specific unit. The ACR process helps in ensuring that the unit has the appropriate manpower to effectively carry out its mission and responsibilities.

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  • 39. 

    Prior to submitting an ACR who must the RMO check with to ensure no impact is made on the unit's deployment requirements?

    • A.

      NCOIC, RMO

    • B.

      Unit deployment manager

    • C.

      MTF/CC

    • D.

      Base manpower office

    Correct Answer
    B. Unit deployment manager
    Explanation
    The RMO must check with the Unit deployment manager to ensure that no impact is made on the unit's deployment requirements. The Unit deployment manager is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the deployment of personnel and resources for the unit. By consulting with the Unit deployment manager, the RMO can ensure that any actions or decisions made in relation to the ACR will not disrupt or interfere with the unit's deployment plans and obligations.

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  • 40. 

    How many panels will the AFMS use to identify and champion necessary changes?

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      6

    • C.

      9

    • D.

      12

    Correct Answer
    C. 9
    Explanation
    The AFMS will use 9 panels to identify and champion necessary changes. This suggests that the AFMS believes that 9 panels are sufficient to address and implement the required changes effectively. The use of panels implies that there will be a collaborative and diverse approach to identifying and championing these changes, involving multiple stakeholders and perspectives. This indicates that the AFMS values inclusivity and collective decision-making in the change process.

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  • 41. 

    The Long View stratehy looks at the AFMS from a strategic viewpoint of how many years?

    • A.

      Four years and beyond

    • B.

      Six years and beyond

    • C.

      Eight years and beyond

    • D.

      Ten years and beyond

    Correct Answer
    D. Ten years and beyond
    Explanation
    The Long View strategy looks at the AFMS from a strategic viewpoint of ten years and beyond. This means that the strategy takes into consideration the long-term goals and objectives of the AFMS, and plans accordingly for a period of at least ten years. This approach allows for a more comprehensive and forward-thinking approach to decision-making and resource allocation, ensuring that the AFMS is well-prepared for the future and able to adapt to any potential challenges or changes that may arise.

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  • 42. 

    The Long View strategy will position the AFMS for the greatest return with the least risk. The outcome will be the highest state of readiness, the best status, and the

    • A.

      Lowest environmental cost

    • B.

      Lowest private sector cost

    • C.

      Lowest overall cost

    • D.

      Saving a life

    Correct Answer
    C. Lowest overall cost
    Explanation
    The Long View strategy aims to achieve the highest state of readiness for the AFMS while minimizing risks. By focusing on the lowest overall cost, the strategy ensures efficient allocation of resources, reducing unnecessary expenses and maximizing cost-effectiveness. This approach considers both financial and environmental costs, ensuring that the AFMS achieves its objectives in the most economical and sustainable way. By prioritizing the lowest overall cost, the strategy also indirectly contributes to saving lives by optimizing the use of resources and enhancing the AFMS's capabilities.

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  • 43. 

    Which analysis is accomplished by analyzing the private sector and direct care risk?

    • A.

      Readiness currency case analysis

    • B.

      RCA

    • C.

      CCA

    • D.

      BCA

    Correct Answer
    C. CCA
    Explanation
    CCA stands for Comprehensive Care Analysis. This analysis is accomplished by analyzing the private sector and direct care risk. It involves a thorough evaluation of the potential risks and vulnerabilities in the private sector and direct care settings. By conducting this analysis, organizations can identify and mitigate risks, enhance their readiness, and ensure the provision of quality care and services.

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  • 44. 

    Which analysis places the assets where the population drives the largest financial risk?

    • A.

      Readiness currency case analysis

    • B.

      RCA

    • C.

      CCA

    • D.

      BCA

    Correct Answer
    D. BCA
    Explanation
    BCA stands for Business Continuity Analysis. This analysis places the assets where the population drives the largest financial risk. It helps in identifying and prioritizing critical assets and processes that are essential for business continuity. By understanding the financial risk associated with different populations, organizations can allocate their resources and take necessary measures to mitigate the impact of any potential disruptions or disasters.

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  • 45. 

    Which is not a tool used to formulate the initial baseline manpower requirements for teh MAPPG?

    • A.

      DCT

    • B.

      IAT

    • C.

      MRT

    • D.

      MTF summary tool

    Correct Answer
    D. MTF summary tool
    Explanation
    The MTF summary tool is not used to formulate the initial baseline manpower requirements for the MAPPG. The other options, DCT, IAT, and MRT, are all tools that can be used for this purpose.

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  • 46. 

    The decision process is used to detemine the type of manpower to use when validating

    • A.

      Short-term goals

    • B.

      Comptroller issues

    • C.

      Manpower requirements

    • D.

      MAJCOM mission statements

    Correct Answer
    C. Manpower requirements
    Explanation
    The decision process is used to determine the type of manpower to use when validating different aspects of an organization. This includes short-term goals, comptroller issues, and most importantly, manpower requirements. Manpower requirements refer to the specific number and type of personnel needed to fulfill certain tasks or responsibilities within an organization. By considering manpower requirements during the decision-making process, an organization can ensure that it has the right personnel with the necessary skills and qualifications to successfully achieve its goals.

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  • 47. 

    Who is resposible for providing active military authorizations?

    • A.

      MAJCOM

    • B.

      HQ USAF/SG

    • C.

      MTF commander

    • D.

      Wing commander

    Correct Answer
    A. MAJCOM
    Explanation
    MAJCOM, or Major Command, is responsible for providing active military authorizations. They are higher-level commands that oversee specific areas of responsibility and have the authority to authorize military operations. MAJCOMs are responsible for organizing, training, and equipping forces under their command, and they play a crucial role in the overall military structure and decision-making process.

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  • 48. 

    AIr Reserve Force authorizations must be identified to

    • A.

      HQ USAF/SG

    • B.

      HQ USAF/CC

    • C.

      HQ USAF/DO

    • D.

      HQ USAF/XP

    Correct Answer
    D. HQ USAF/XP
    Explanation
    The correct answer is HQ USAF/XP. This is because the Air Reserve Force authorizations need to be identified to the HQ USAF/XP, which is responsible for the management and execution of personnel programs and policies for the Air Force. This ensures that the Reserve Force authorizations are properly accounted for and allocated within the organization.

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  • 49. 

    Who approves the interim use of civilians until military resources can be planned and made available?

    • A.

      Wing commander

    • B.

      MTF commander

    • C.

      MAJCOM

    • D.

      Provider

    Correct Answer
    C. MAJCOM
    Explanation
    MAJCOM stands for Major Command and refers to the highest level of command in the United States Air Force. They are responsible for organizing, training, and equipping forces to carry out missions. In the given question, MAJCOM is the correct answer because they have the authority to approve the interim use of civilians until military resources can be planned and made available. This means that MAJCOM has the power to authorize the temporary deployment or utilization of civilian personnel in military operations until the necessary military resources are ready.

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  • 50. 

    What is the purpose of the CHCS ATC Summary Report?

    • A.

      Calculates the time between the appointment request and when the patient is seen

    • B.

      Schedule appointments by appointment types

    • C.

      Compare facilities with available appointments

    • D.

      Calculates all appointments and amount of patients since daily

    Correct Answer
    A. Calculates the time between the appointment request and when the patient is seen
    Explanation
    The purpose of the CHCS ATC Summary Report is to calculate the time between the appointment request and when the patient is seen. This report helps in monitoring and analyzing the efficiency of the appointment scheduling process by providing data on the time taken for patients to be seen after requesting an appointment. It allows healthcare facilities to identify any delays or bottlenecks in the system and make improvements accordingly.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 16, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Esuchovsky
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