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B777 Flight Instruments, Displays

73 Questions
B777 Quizzes & Trivia
Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What does the pitch limit indicator indicate?
    • A. 

      Pitch angle for best climb speed

    • B. 

      Pitch at which underspeed warning will sound

    • C. 

      Stick shaker activation point for the existing flight conditions

    • D. 

      Maximum pitch angle for takeoff

  • 2. 
    What does the pitch limit indication displayed?
    • A. 

      When the flaps are NOT up, or at slow speeds with the flaps up

    • B. 

      Only when the flaps are Not in the up position

    • C. 

      If airspeed is close to maximum

    • D. 

      After takeoff until passing 1000 feet

  • 3. 
    When is the landing altitude flag (LDG ALT) removed during preflight?
    • A. 

      After landing altitude is set on the pressurization panel

    • B. 

      After the original airfield is entered on CDU route page

    • C. 

      After correct local altimeter

    • D. 

      Only after takeoff

  • 4. 
    Which of the following is not a condition that allows an excessive Localizer deviation alert to occur?
    • A. 

      Low radio altitude

    • B. 

      Autopilot or Flight Director engaged

    • C. 

      Incorrect ILS frequency and course selected

    • D. 

      LOC roil mode engaged

  • 5. 
    When does an excessive glideslope deviation alert occur?
    • A. 

      At low radio altitudes with the Autopilot or Flight Director engaged

    • B. 

      Only after localizer capture

    • C. 

      Any time deviation exceeds 1 dot

    • D. 

      Any time after localizer capture

  • 6. 
    (WXR & TCAS RANGE ARCS) When are range arcs displayed in the expanded VOR mode?
    • A. 

      All the time

    • B. 

      Only at 10, 20, and 40 mile ranges

    • C. 

      With range scale tics

    • D. 

      If weather radar or TCAS is selected

  • 7. 
    (WXR & TCAS RANGE ARCS) Which control(s) cause range marks to display in expanded VOR or APP?
    • A. 

      Weather Radar (WXR) switch or ND Traffic (TFC) switch

    • B. 

      ND Range Selector

    • C. 

      ND Center ( CTR ) switch

    • D. 

      ND Mode Selector

  • 8. 
    What does the POS map switch display?
    • A. 

      Latitude/Longitude data for all waypoint

    • B. 

      ADIRU, GPS and raw VOR position data

    • C. 

      ETA, Altitude at each waypoint

    • D. 

      Waypoint ETA and altitude

  • 9. 
    What does the airplane symbol represent in ND Plan mode?
    • A. 

      Predicted track

    • B. 

      Waypoint selected by prompt on the LEGS page.

    • C. 

      Active waypoint

    • D. 

      Actual position and track along the flight plan route

  • 10. 
    When will the TRUE light illuminate in the heading reference (HDG REF) switch?
    • A. 

      Any time true heading is in use.

    • B. 

      Whenever the HDG REF switch is selected to the TRUE position

    • C. 

      Above 82 degrees N/S latitude or in the vicinities of the magnetic poles.

    • D. 

      When the ND is in the map mode.

  • 11. 
    When are the annunciations CDU L, C, or R displayed on the ND?
    • A. 

      Repecteive navigation source switch in CDU

    • B. 

      Only after a single FMC failure

    • C. 

      Only after a GPS failure

    • D. 

      While the ADIRU is in the align mode

  • 12. 
    Which statement about the standby attitude indicator is true?
    • A. 

      It displays roll and bank only

    • B. 

      It displays pitch, bank and slip

    • C. 

      It displays pitch and bank only

    • D. 

      It displays pitch, bank and heading

  • 13. 
    What does a rectangular white Icon next to an EICAS message indicate?
    • A. 

      The non-normal condition is no longer present

    • B. 

      There is no electronic checklist associated with this message

    • C. 

      There is an electronic checklist with procedural steps, notes or other information that is complete.

    • D. 

      There is an electronic checklist with procedural steps, notes or other information that is NOT complete.

  • 14. 
    What does cyan color indicate on the electroni checklist line item?
    • A. 

      The step must be reset.

    • B. 

      The step must be repeated.

    • C. 

      The step is inactive or overriden.

    • D. 

      The step was performed wrong.

  • 15. 
    Which statement about the electronic checklist NORMAL and NON - NORMAL keys is not correct?
    • A. 

      The NON - NORMAL key displays when additional incomplete Non-normal checklist exist/

    • B. 

      The NON - NORMAL key is always displayed and recalls the last non-normal checklist completed

    • C. 

      The NORMAL key displays the next incomplet normal checklist in the sequence

    • D. 

      The NORMAL and NON - NORMAL keys are quickly acessed by placing a finger in an appropriate corner area of the cursor control device.

  • 16. 
    Which statement about the non - normal checklist queue is true?
    • A. 

      Each checklist in the queue must be completed in the order listed.

    • B. 

      The queue displays checklists for messages that do not di have an icon.

    • C. 

      While the queue is displaying, it continuously updates automatically each time a new EICAS message appears.

    • D. 

      The checklist queue allows you to select and display the checklist corresponding to the title.

  • 17. 
    How do you display an unannuciated non-normal checklist?
    • A. 

      Higlights and select the NON - NORMAL MENU key, then select the UNANNUNCIATED CHECKLISTS key.

    • B. 

      Highlights and select the NORMAL MENU key, then select the UNANNUNCIATED CHECKLISTS key.

    • C. 

      Highlights and select the NON - NORMAL CHECKLIST key.

    • D. 

      Highlight and select the CHKL RESETS key, then select the UNANNUNCIATED CHECKLISTS key.

  • 18. 
    What does the Operational NOTES key do?
    • A. 

      The NOTES key resets the operational notes collected from non-normal checklists during flight.

    • B. 

      The NOTES key displays the operational note shown in non-normal checklists.

    • C. 

      The NOTES key allows you to create a note for the displayed checklist.

    • D. 

      The NOTES key adds the displayed checklist to the notes queue.

  • 19. 
    Which Statement about Resets Menu Page is correct?
    • A. 

      RESETS key resets all of the normsl cheklists.

    • B. 

      RESETS key resets all of the non - normal checklists.

    • C. 

      All checklists can be reset at once by using the RESETS key followed by the RESET ALL key.

    • D. 

      All checklists can be reset at once by using the NON- NORMAL MENU key followed by the RESET ALL key

  • 20. 
    Which statement about checklist overrides is correct?
    • A. 

      To override a checklist you must display that checklist and then use the CHKL OVRD key.

    • B. 

      Closed loop steps cannot be overridden.

    • C. 

      Steps that are overridden remain white,

    • D. 

      To override a checklist it must first be reset.

  • 21. 
    What does the CHKL OVRD key do when selected?
    • A. 

      Overrides the highlighted item on the checklists.

    • B. 

      Overrides the displayed checklist and displays the next checklist to be overridden.

    • C. 

      Displays the next checklist to be overridden.

    • D. 

      Displays the last overridden checklist.

  • 22. 
    When using the Display Select Panel, what are the steps to select the status page on the left inboard display unit?
    • A. 

      Select R INBD switch, then select STAT switch

    • B. 

      Select LWR CTR switch, then select STAT switch

    • C. 

      Select L INBD switch, then select STAT switch

    • D. 

      Select L INBD switch, then select ENG switch

  • 23. 
    What Display Select Panel steps displays the flight control synoptic on the right inboard display unit?
    • A. 

      SeleSelect the R INBD switch, then select the FCTL switch

    • B. 

      Select the FCTL switch, then select the R INBD switch

    • C. 

      Select the L INBD switch, then select the FCTL switch

    • D. 

      Select the R INBD switch, then select the CONT switch

  • 24. 
    When and inboard display selector is in the EICAS position, Which switches on the Display Select Panel Affet that inboard display?
    • A. 

      All display select panel operations are normal.

    • B. 

      Inboard display unit can only display EICAS or the secondary engine display.

    • C. 

      All display switches are inoperative except ENG, FUEL and AIR.

    • D. 

      Any display select panel selection will be displayed on the lower center display unit.

  • 25. 
    Which statement about the Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) is most correct?
    • A. 

      It displays airplane attitude, airspeed and ILS information.

    • B. 

      It displays airplane attitude, heading and airspeed information.

    • C. 

      It is displays airplane attitude, altitude and ILS information.

    • D. 

      It displays airpane attitude, airspeed, altitude, heading and ILS information.

  • 26. 
    What does the EICAS Message SGL SOURCE DISPLAYS indictae?
    • A. 

      Both PFDs are using the same dource for radio altitude display.

    • B. 

      Both PFDs are receiving air data from the same single channel source.

    • C. 

      Both PFDs are using the same source for flight director information.

    • D. 

      A single source of display information is used by some or all display unit.

  • 27. 
    What does the EICAS Message SGL SOURCE AIR DATA indicate?
    • A. 

      Both AIR DATA/ATTITUDE source switches are in the ALTN position.

    • B. 

      Both PFDs are receiving air data from the same single channel source.

    • C. 

      Both PFDs are using the same source for flight director information.

    • D. 

      A single source of display information is used by some or all display units.

  • 28. 
    What does the EICAS Message DISPLAY SELECT PNL indicate?
    • A. 

      Left, center or right CDU control of the Display Control Panel is active.

    • B. 

      The Display Control Panel is in use.

    • C. 

      Both PFDs are using the same source of air data information.

    • D. 

      A single source of display information is used by some or all display units.

  • 29. 
    What does the EICAS Message SGL SOURCE AIR DATA indicate?
    • A. 

      Both AIR DATA/ATTITUDE source swithces are in the aLTN position.

    • B. 

      Both PFDs are recieving air data from the same single channel source.

    • C. 

      Both PFDs are using the same source for flight director information.

    • D. 

      A single source of display information is used by some or all display units.

  • 30. 
    What does the EICAS Message BARO SET DISAGREE indicate?
    • A. 

      The standby altimeter barometric setting does not agree with the Captain's PFD barometric setting.

    • B. 

      A PFD barometric setting remains in the QNH mode above the transition altitude.

    • C. 

      The captains and the first officers barometric settings disagree

    • D. 

      Both PFDs are using STD but the preselected barometric settings disagree.

  • 31. 
    Which statement is not correct about the Radio Altitude display on the PFD?
    • A. 

      Display radio altitude belown 2500 feet AGL.

    • B. 

      Turns amber when below radio altitude minimums.

    • C. 

      The display box is highlighted in white for 10 seconds when passing below 1000 feet.

    • D. 

      Indicate current ADIRS altitude below 2500 feet.

  • 32. 
    Which statement is true bout the Glideslope Pointer and scale on the PFD?
    • A. 

      Indicate glideslope position relative to the airplane.

    • B. 

      Fills in solid when the glideslope is captured.

    • C. 

      Is it in view when the glideslope signal is received.

    • D. 

      The scale is in view after the frequency is tuned and identified.

  • 33. 
    When does the Localizer scale change to the expanded scale?
    • A. 

      Displays when the autopilot or flight director is LOC mode and the airplane captures the glideslope, providing a more sensitive display.

    • B. 

      Displays when the autopilot or flight director is LOC mode and the airplane is close to the runway center line, providing a more sensitive displays.

    • C. 

      Displays when the autopilot captures the LOC mode, providing a more sensitive display.

    • D. 

      Displays during LOC capture.

  • 34. 
    When the ND is in the Plan mode, what is the display orientation?
    • A. 

      The Top of the display represents Magnetic North.

    • B. 

      The top of the display represents True North.

    • C. 

      The top of the display represents the airplane track.

    • D. 

      The top of the displays represents the airplane heading.

  • 35. 
    Which statement about the EFIS control panel Map switches is true?
    • A. 

      WPT (waypoints) can be displayed up to the 320 NM range.

    • B. 

      ARPT (airports) can be only be displayed simultaneously on a single ND

    • C. 

      WXR can only be displayed on the 10, 20, or 40 NM ranges.

  • 36. 
    Which Display Select Panel switch displays the APU EGT?
    • A. 

      ENG (secondary engine EICAS)

    • B. 

      FUEL (fuel system synoptic)

    • C. 

      AIR (air systems synoptic)

    • D. 

      STAT (status page)

  • 37. 
    Which statement about the red MAximum Speed indicator on the PFD airspeed indicator is not correct?
    • A. 

      Indicates maximum airspeed as limited by the spoilar placard speed.

    • B. 

      Indicate maximum airspeed as limited by Vmo/Mmo.

    • C. 

      Indicates maximum airspeed as limited by the landing gear placard speed.

    • D. 

      Indicates maximum airspeed as limited by the flap placard speed.

  • 38. 
    What happebs if he ADIRU switch is lft in then primary power is removed fro0m the airplane and the BATTERY switch is turned off?
    • A. 

      The ON BAT light illuminates and the EICAS memo message ADIRU ON BAT displays.

    • B. 

      The ON BAT light illuminates and the ground crew call horn sounds.

    • C. 

      The ON BAT light extigueshes when the BATTERY switch is turned off.

    • D. 

      Nothing. The ADIRU switch is always left on when securing the airplanes.

  • 39. 
    Which of the following asbout the SET INERTIAL POS line on the POS INIT page is not correct?
    • A. 

      A position can be entered at any time on the ground

    • B. 

      A position can be entered before the ADIRU can enter the navigation mode.

    • C. 

      A Position entry is optional when the ADIRU is in the automatic realign mode.

    • D. 

      A position entry is not possible when the airplane is moving.

  • 40. 
    Which message is displayed when the ADIRU is in the alignment mode?
    • A. 

      EICAS alert message NAV ADIRU INERTIAL

    • B. 

      EICAS memo message ADIRU ALIGN MODE

    • C. 

      CDU scrachpad message ADIRU ALIGN

    • D. 

      CDU scratchpad message ENTER ADIRU POSITION

  • 41. 
    How often is a complete ADIRU alignment recommended?
    • A. 

      Every 15 hours

    • B. 

      Every 24 hours

    • C. 

      Whenever the total time in the nivigation mode is expected to exceed 15 hours.

    • D. 

      Whenever the total time in the navigation mode is expected to exceed 24 hours.

  • 42. 
    The EXEC lights is illuminated and you push the DEP ARR key but do not see the desired destination ARRIVALS page.Which of the following actions will not display the DEP/ARR  INDEX page?
    • A. 

      Push teh INTIT REF key and select the INDEX line selectkey (6L).

    • B. 

      Push the ERASE prompt line select key (6L) then push the INDEX line select key (6L).

    • C. 

      Push the EXEC key then push the INDEX line select key (6L).

    • D. 

      When until traveling more than 400 NM from the ORIGN or more than half way to the destination before selecting the DEP/ARR key again.

  • 43. 
    Which of the following are data sources for the ADIRU?
    • A. 

      Static ports only

    • B. 

      Air data modules,AOA sensors, and TAT probe

    • C. 

      Air data modules only

    • D. 

      AOA sensors and TAT probe only.

  • 44. 
    Which of the following are data sources for the SAARU?
    • A. 

      Air data modules only

    • B. 

      Static ports only

    • C. 

      Air data modules, AOA sensors, and TAT probe

    • D. 

      AOA sensors and TAT probe only.

  • 45. 
    What is the altitude source for transponder altittude reporting when the ALT SOURCE selector is in the ALTN position?
    • A. 

      ADIRU

    • B. 

      Air data modules

    • C. 

      The master FMC

    • D. 

      SAARU

  • 46. 
    Which one of the following is inoperative with dual FMC failure?
    • A. 

      LNAV

    • B. 

      VNAV

    • C. 

      MAP display

    • D. 

      Both CDUs

  • 47. 
    When will the FMC not automatically sequence the active waypoint in flight?
    • A. 

      When more than 21 NM off the active route and not on an offset.

    • B. 

      When more than 2.5 NM off the active route and not on an offset.

    • C. 

      When passing over the waypoiny in HDG SEL.

    • D. 

      When passing over the PROCEDURE HOLD waypoint on an approach.

  • 48. 
    What color is the VOR data on the NAV RADIO page?
    • A. 

      Magenta

    • B. 

      Cyan

    • C. 

      Green

    • D. 

      White

  • 49. 
    What color is the ADF frequency data on the NAV RADIO page?
    • A. 

      Magenta

    • B. 

      Cyan

    • C. 

      Green

    • D. 

      White

  • 50. 
    Which of the following statements about waypoint altitude constraints is not correct?
    • A. 

      The active altitude constraint is displayed on line 1 of the LEGS page.

    • B. 

      The active altitude constraint is displayed in mageta.

    • C. 

      The active altitude constraint is displayed on the ND map

    • D. 

      The active altitude constraint can be displayed on the CLB, CRZ asnd DES pages.

  • 51. 
    What is the maximum range at which turbulence returns can be displayed?
    • A. 

      10 nm

    • B. 

      20 nm

    • C. 

      40 nm

    • D. 

      80 nm

  • 52. 
    Which of the following statements about FMC fuel monitoring is not correct?
    • A. 

      The FMC uses fuel quantity system values in flight.

    • B. 

      The FMC uses calculated fuel values for performance.

    • C. 

      During fuel jettison, the FMC calcuted values are independant of the fuel quantity system values.

    • D. 

      The FMC updates calculated values with fuel quantity system values regularly in flight and informs the crew when the differences are significant.

  • 53. 
    What does the WXR FAIL ANT fault message indicate?
    • A. 

      Weather returns will still display.

    • B. 

      Weather returns will not display correctly.

    • C. 

      There is a problem with the radar antenna.

    • D. 

      Weather returns will not display or weather returns will display, but will be unreliable.

  • 54. 
    Which of the following actions does not begin an early VNAV descent?
    • A. 

      Selecting the DES NOW promt on the DES page.

    • B. 

      Selecting a lower altitude in the MCP altitude window in response to the CDU scratchpad message RESET MCP Altitude.

    • C. 

      Selecting a lower altitude in the MCP altitude window and pushing the MCP altitude selector when less than 50 NM from th T/D

    • D. 

      Selecting a lower altitude in the MCP altitude window and pushing the mcp altitude selector when more than 50 NM from the T/D

  • 55. 
    Which statement about the ADIRU is correct?
    • A. 

      The inertial reference position is updated using information from the air data modules.

    • B. 

      The ADIRU sends magnetic variation data the FMCs to convert true heading to magnetic heading.

    • C. 

      The ADIRU receives the same data inputs as the SAARU but compares and validates the data indenpendently.

    • D. 

      If the ADIRU fails, the PFDs will blank.

  • 56. 
    What is the source of air data for the integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD)?
    • A. 

      ADIRU

    • B. 

      An ndependant attitude source inside of the ISFD

    • C. 

      SAARU

    • D. 

      FMC

  • 57. 
    /Which of the following statements about the FMC "on approach" logic is not correct?
    • A. 

      VNAV PTH remains displayed during a descent after airspeed intervention is selected.

    • B. 

      VNAV continues to command a descent after the MCP altitude selection is set to at least 300 feet above the current airplane altitudes.

    • C. 

      "On approach" logic requires the FMC be in the descent phase and the flaps out of UP.

    • D. 

      A glide path angle must be included in the approach and displayed on the LEGS page.

  • 58. 
    Which of the following will not cause the EICAS mesage FMC to be displayed?
    • A. 

      CDU is selected on the instrument Source selector.

    • B. 

      The FMC selector is in the L position with the left FMC failed.

    • C. 

      The FMC selector is in the R position with the right FMC failed.

    • D. 

      Both FMCs have failed.

  • 59. 
    What is the only FMC page that will accept entry of airways?
    • A. 

      ACT RTE X, page 1

    • B. 

      ACT RTE X, any page

    • C. 

      ACT RTE X, page 2 and beyond

    • D. 

      ACT RTE X LEGS, any page.

  • 60. 
    Which of the following actions does not activate tha FMC descent phase?
    • A. 

      Passing the T/D point in FLCH.

    • B. 

      Selecting the DES NOW prompt on the DES page.

    • C. 

      Selecting a lower altitude in the MCP altitude window and pressing the MCP altitude selector when less than 50 NM from the T/D

    • D. 

      Selecting a lower altitude in the MCP altitude window and pressing the MCP altitude selector when more than 50 NM from the T/D

  • 61. 
    When does LNAV automatically engage if selected during preflight?
    • A. 

      At or above 50 feet when within 2.5 NM laterally from the active route leg.

    • B. 

      At or above 50 feet with an intercept heading to the active route leg.

    • C. 

      Only at or above 50 feet on the departure route active leg.

    • D. 

      LNAV is already active during take off.

  • 62. 
    Which of the following statements bout FMC missed approach is not correct?
    • A. 

      VNAV and LNAV can not be activated below 400 feet radio altitude.

    • B. 

      Descent constraint latitudes below the current airplane altitude are deleted.

    • C. 

      The highest altitude in the missed approach procedure becomes the new cruise altitude.

    • D. 

      Automatic transition to the missed approach phase is not possible without pushing the TOGA switch.

  • 63. 
    When eletrical power is interrupted and reuturns and the FCM restarts, whhich of the following actions must be performed?
    • A. 

      The active waypoint must be entered on LEGS page 1, line 1 and the desired course to that waypoint also selected before LNAV can be activated.

    • B. 

      The previously active route automatically remains the active route.

    • C. 

      The master FCM (left or right) must be selected and iniatialized on the FCM selector.

    • D. 

      Performance data entry is not required, it is retained in temporary memory.

  • 64. 
    What is data source for the standby atitude indicator?
    • A. 

      ADIRU

    • B. 

      FMC

    • C. 

      SAARU

    • D. 

      ADIRU or FMC

  • 65. 
    How long should the ADIRU switch remain off when manually realigning the ADIRU?
    • A. 

      Momentarily

    • B. 

      24 seconds

    • C. 

      45 seconds

    • D. 

      30 seconds

  • 66. 
    What is the altitude source for transponder altitude reporting when the ALT SOURCE  selecctor is in the NORM position?
    • A. 

      ADIRU

    • B. 

      SAARU

    • C. 

      Air data modules

    • D. 

      The master FCM

  • 67. 
    Which one of the following pages is availbale following dual FCM failure?
    • A. 

      ALTN PERF INIT

    • B. 

      ALTN REF NAV DATA

    • C. 

      ALTN POS REF

    • D. 

      ALTN NAV LEGS

  • 68. 
    Which of the following ND modes can display weather radar returns?
    • A. 

      APP centered

    • B. 

      MAP centered

    • C. 

      VOR centered

    • D. 

      PLAN

  • 69. 
    What does the WXR FAIL R/T faukt message indicate?
    • A. 

      Weather returns will still display.

    • B. 

      Weather returns will not display correctly.

    • C. 

      The selected R/T has failed.

    • D. 

      Weather returns will not display or weather returns will display, but will be unreliable.

  • 70. 
    What does the EICAS message SGL SOURCE ILS indicate?
    • A. 

      Both PFDs and NDs are using the same source of ILS information.

    • B. 

      Only one ILS receiver is tuned

    • C. 

      Both PFDs and NDs are using the same source of air data information.

    • D. 

      A single source of display infromation is used by some or all display units.

  • 71. 
    When can the active navigation database be changed on the IDENT page?
    • A. 

      Only during preflight.

    • B. 

      Only on the ground.

    • C. 

      Anty time, on the ground or in flight.

    • D. 

      Only during preflight before entry of the ORIGIN.

  • 72. 
    The FMC scratchpad message TAKE OFF SPEEDS DELETED does not display for which of the following conditions?
    • A. 

      A new ZFW is entered on the PERF INIT page.

    • B. 

      A new FLAPS setting is entered on the TAKEOFF REF page.

    • C. 

      A new CG value is entered on the TAKEOFF REF page.

    • D. 

      New runway winds are entered on the TAKEOFF REF page.

  • 73. 
    What is represented by the color magenta in weather radar returns?
    • A. 

      Turbulence within precipitation. Heavy precipitation Moderate precipitation Clear air turbulence Turbulence within precipitation

    • B. 

      Heavy precipitation

    • C. 

      Moderate precipitation

    • D. 

      Clear air turbulence