3m051a Volume 2: Food (Self Test Questions)
This quiz was created on 10JUN2010 from the self-test questions in the following CDC volume:
AFSC 3M051
3M051A 02 0807
EDIT CODE 04
Check the back cover of your volume to ensure that the above information matches yours.
Consider all choices carefully, and select the best answer to each question.
- 1.
(201) What do the Air Force APF dining facilities not provide for our Air Force personnel?
- A.
Subsistence entitlement to enlisted members living in the dorms.
- B.
A training environment for food service personnel to meet our war-fighting mission.
- C.
Flight meals in support of our daily operations.
- D.
No-cost snacks and beverages for civilian employees and contractors.
Correct Answer
D. No-cost snacks and beverages for civilian employees and contractors.Explanation
The Air Force APF dining facilities do not provide no-cost snacks and beverages for civilian employees and contractors. This means that these individuals would need to pay for their own snacks and beverages if they choose to eat at the dining facilities.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(201) When are permanent party officers and DOD civilians authorized to use the enlisted dining facility?
- A.
When the installation commander authorizes it after determining that all other facilities are not available, adequate, or readily accessible to the duty station.
- B.
When specials meals are offered, such as holiday meals or “surf and turf” night.
- C.
When dressed in civilian clothes.
- D.
When the services commander or NCOIC authorizes it.
Correct Answer
A. When the installation commander authorizes it after determining that all other facilities are not available, adequate, or readily accessible to the duty station.Explanation
Permanent party officers and DOD civilians are authorized to use the enlisted dining facility when the installation commander determines that all other facilities are not available, adequate, or readily accessible to the duty station. This means that if there are no other dining facilities or if the existing facilities are not sufficient, the installation commander can give permission for these individuals to use the enlisted dining facility. This authorization is based on the commander's assessment of the availability and accessibility of other dining options on the duty station.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(201) Who may authorize family members of military personnel to use the enlisted dining facility?
- A.
Services commander
- B.
Installation commander
- C.
Dining Facility manager
- D.
Shift leader
Correct Answer
B. Installation commanderExplanation
The installation commander may authorize family members of military personnel to use the enlisted dining facility. This is because the installation commander has the authority to make decisions and set policies for the installation, including determining who is allowed access to certain facilities.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(201) What are the two types of DOD meal rates?
- A.
Reduced and Premium
- B.
Discount and Standard
- C.
Premium and Standard
- D.
Discount and Reduced
Correct Answer
B. Discount and StandardExplanation
The correct answer is Discount and Standard. The Department of Defense (DOD) offers two types of meal rates: Discount and Standard. The Discount meal rate is a lower rate provided to military personnel who are eligible for reduced meal costs. The Standard meal rate is the regular rate paid by military personnel who do not qualify for discounted meals.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(201) What is the purpose of the proportional charge?
- A.
To fund NAF activities.
- B.
To offset the meal cost for E-4 and below.
- C.
To help purchase operating supplies such as paper plates, cups, etc.
- D.
To proportion portions according to the charge schedule.
Correct Answer
C. To help purchase operating supplies such as paper plates, cups, etc.Explanation
The purpose of the proportional charge is to help purchase operating supplies such as paper plates, cups, etc. This means that the charge is used to buy necessary supplies for the organization or activity. It is not used to fund NAF activities or offset meal costs for E-4 and below. The charge is also not used to proportion portions according to the charge schedule.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(202) Who can installation commanders allow to eat in dining facilities during emergencies?
- A.
Off-base civilians
- B.
Noncombatant evacuees
- C.
Family members evacuated from other DOD installations
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
During emergencies, installation commanders have the authority to allow off-base civilians, noncombatant evacuees, and family members evacuated from other DOD installations to eat in dining facilities. This means that all of the mentioned groups are permitted to access dining facilities during such situations.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(202) What form is used to record signatures and collect cash?
- A.
DD Form 79
- B.
AF Form 1131
- C.
AF Form 79
- D.
DD Form 1131
Correct Answer
C. AF Form 79Explanation
AF Form 79 is the correct answer because it is the form used to record signatures and collect cash. This form is commonly used in the Air Force for various purposes, including documenting financial transactions and verifying the receipt of funds. By using AF Form 79, organizations can ensure that they have a proper record of signatures and cash collections, which is essential for maintaining accountability and financial accuracy.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(202) Where are the dining facility manager’s manual sales entry procedures for emergencies or disasters found?
- A.
Airman’s Manual
- B.
Corporate Food Service (CFS) Handbook
- C.
AFI 23-201
- D.
The dining facility manager’s emergency and disaster handbook
Correct Answer
B. Corporate Food Service (CFS) HandbookExplanation
The correct answer is the Corporate Food Service (CFS) Handbook. This handbook would contain the specific procedures for dining facility managers to follow in emergencies or disasters. The Airman's Manual is a general manual for all airmen and may not have specific information for dining facility managers. AFI 23-201 is a regulation that covers food service management, but may not specifically address emergency or disaster procedures. The dining facility manager's emergency and disaster handbook is not mentioned as an option, so it is not the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(202) If your unit has 300 ESM patrons, and is authorized to purchase and store Meals Ready to Eat (MRE) in support of major disasters and emergencies; how many MREs can your unit purchase?
- A.
2700 MREs (300 ESM members X 3 meals per day X 3 days)
- B.
1200 MREs (300 ESM members X 2 meals per day X 2 days)
- C.
1800 MREs (300 ESM members X 3 meals per day X 2 days)
- D.
2400 MREs (300 ESM members X 2 meals per day X 4 days)
Correct Answer
C. 1800 MREs (300 ESM members X 3 meals per day X 2 days)Explanation
The unit has 300 ESM patrons and they are authorized to purchase and store Meals Ready to Eat (MRE) in support of major disasters and emergencies. To calculate the number of MREs they can purchase, we need to multiply the number of ESM members by the number of meals per day and the number of days. In this case, there are 300 ESM members, 3 meals per day, and 2 days. So, the calculation would be 300 x 3 x 2 = 1800 MREs. Therefore, the unit can purchase 1800 MREs.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(203) What is one of the most rewarding challenges you’ll face in the services career field?
- A.
Completing your computer based training (CBT) courses and your career development courses (CDCs).
- B.
Managing an Air Force food service operation.
- C.
Learning the business philosophy of “Adapt, react, re-adapt, act.”
- D.
Earning your ServSafe Certificate.
Correct Answer
B. Managing an Air Force food service operation. -
- 11.
(203) What can be gained while dealing with a wide variety of customers?
- A.
Customer service and communications skills that no form of higher education can duplicate.
- B.
Headaches
Correct Answer
A. Customer service and communications skills that no form of higher education can duplicate.Explanation
Dealing with a wide variety of customers allows individuals to gain customer service and communication skills that cannot be replicated through higher education. This experience exposes individuals to different types of customers, their needs, and how to effectively communicate and provide satisfactory service. These skills are invaluable in any profession that involves interacting with customers, as they enable individuals to understand and cater to diverse customer requirements, leading to better customer satisfaction and success in business.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(203) Who has direct control of preparing food in the facilities and assumes the dining facility manager’s duties in his or her absence?
- A.
The shift leader
- B.
The dining facility manager
- C.
The installation commander
- D.
The NCOIC
Correct Answer
A. The shift leaderExplanation
The shift leader has direct control of preparing food in the facilities and assumes the dining facility manager's duties in his or her absence. This means that when the dining facility manager is not present, the shift leader takes on the responsibility of overseeing the preparation of food and managing the operations of the dining facility. The shift leader is in a position of authority and is trusted to ensure that the food is prepared properly and that the facility runs smoothly in the absence of the dining facility manager.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(203) What is the key to a successful food service operation?
- A.
Effective discipline
- B.
Good physical fitness and personal hygiene
- C.
Properly trained and effective supervisors
- D.
Adherence to the FDA’s food pyramid
Correct Answer
C. Properly trained and effective supervisorsExplanation
Having properly trained and effective supervisors is the key to a successful food service operation. Supervisors play a crucial role in ensuring that all aspects of the operation run smoothly, from food preparation to customer service. They are responsible for training and guiding the staff, maintaining quality standards, and resolving any issues that may arise. With their expertise and leadership, supervisors ensure that the operation operates efficiently and meets the expectations of customers.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(203) What is one of the best ways to solve scheduling problems?
- A.
Institute a “zero tolerance” policy for tardiness
- B.
Make schedules three months in advance
- C.
Utilize split-shift scheduling
- D.
Help individuals resolve personal problems
Correct Answer
D. Help individuals resolve personal problemsExplanation
Helping individuals resolve personal problems is one of the best ways to solve scheduling problems. This is because personal problems can often interfere with an individual's ability to adhere to a schedule or be punctual. By addressing and resolving these personal issues, individuals are more likely to be able to effectively manage their time and adhere to a schedule, reducing scheduling problems.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(203) What must shift leaders and facility managers do to prevent manpower shortfalls?
- A.
Know the peak hours for serving food, and plan overlap of shifts to occur before this time.
- B.
Forecast the number of meals, and plan the work force needed to do the task.
- C.
All of the above
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. All of the aboveExplanation
Shift leaders and facility managers must both know the peak hours for serving food and plan the overlap of shifts to occur before this time. This ensures that there are enough employees available to handle the increased demand during busy periods. Additionally, they must also forecast the number of meals and plan the workforce needed to complete the task. This helps to prevent manpower shortfalls by ensuring that there are enough staff members scheduled to meet the workload. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."Rate this question:
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- 16.
(204) Who develops, publishes, and distributes the CFS (Corporate Food Service) menu?
- A.
DSCP (Defense Supply Center, Philadelphia)
- B.
HQ AFSVA/SVOHF (Headquarters Air Force Services Agency/ Air Force Food Service Branch)
- C.
Installation commander
- D.
The Pentagon
Correct Answer
B. HQ AFSVA/SVOHF (Headquarters Air Force Services Agency/ Air Force Food Service Branch)Explanation
HQ AFSVA/SVOHF (Headquarters Air Force Services Agency/ Air Force Food Service Branch) develops, publishes, and distributes the CFS (Corporate Food Service) menu. This agency is responsible for managing and overseeing the food service operations in the Air Force. They work closely with the installation commanders to ensure that the menu meets the needs and requirements of the Air Force personnel. The DSCP (Defense Supply Center, Philadelphia) is not involved in the development and distribution of the CFS menu. The Pentagon is the headquarters of the Department of Defense and is not directly responsible for the CFS menu.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(204) Why do we use the CFS (Corporate Food Service) menu?
- A.
For planning and serving good, multiple-choice menus.
- B.
It is required by the U.S. FDA (Food and Drug Administration).
- C.
To promote local agricultures and sustainable growing practices.
- D.
To avoid potential lawsuits or complaints.
Correct Answer
A. For planning and serving good, multiple-choice menus.Explanation
The reason why we use the CFS menu is for planning and serving good, multiple-choice menus. This menu allows for a variety of options to cater to different preferences and dietary needs. It ensures that there is something for everyone and helps in providing a well-rounded and satisfying meal service.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(204) List the operational advantages of the CFS (Corporate Food Service) menu.
- A.
Aids in production planning; helps forecast logistics requirements; provides flexibility
- B.
Increases serving efficiency; ensures training and scheduling consistency; aids in keeping menus configures within monetary targets for each meal period
- C.
A and B
- D.
None of the above.
Correct Answer
C. A and BExplanation
The operational advantages of the CFS (Corporate Food Service) menu include aiding in production planning, helping forecast logistics requirements, providing flexibility, increasing serving efficiency, ensuring training and scheduling consistency, and aiding in keeping menus configured within monetary targets for each meal period.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(204) How many days is the CFS (Corporate Food Service) menu cyclic plan based on?
- A.
14.
- B.
30.
- C.
7.
- D.
10.
Correct Answer
A. 14.Explanation
The CFS menu cyclic plan is based on a 14-day cycle. This means that the menu is designed to repeat every 14 days, ensuring that there is a variety of food options for the employees over a two-week period. This allows for a balanced and diverse selection of meals to be offered to the employees without becoming monotonous.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(204) What is the first step in menu planning?
- A.
Conduct a survey to determine taste preferences.
- B.
Examine the CFS (Corporate Food Service) menu and determine its appropriateness for your facility.
- C.
Reviewing seasonal discounts with the PV (Prime Vendor)
- D.
Completing a full inventory of stores.
Correct Answer
B. Examine the CFS (Corporate Food Service) menu and determine its appropriateness for your facility.Explanation
The first step in menu planning is to examine the CFS (Corporate Food Service) menu and determine its appropriateness for your facility. This involves assessing the menu items, portion sizes, nutritional content, and any special dietary requirements or restrictions that need to be considered. By evaluating the existing menu, you can identify any necessary adjustments or additions to meet the specific needs and preferences of your facility. Conducting a survey to determine taste preferences, reviewing seasonal discounts, and completing a full inventory of stores may be important steps in the menu planning process, but they are not the first step.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(204) What is the basis for food buying and production?
- A.
Menu Planning
- B.
Seasonal discounts offered by the PV (Prime Vendor)
- C.
Inventories held at DSCP (Defense Supply Center, Philadelphia)
- D.
Preference of the installation commander.
Correct Answer
A. Menu PlanningExplanation
Menu planning is the basis for food buying and production. This involves carefully selecting and designing menus to meet the dietary needs and preferences of the customers. Menu planning takes into consideration factors such as nutritional requirements, available ingredients, budget constraints, and customer preferences. By planning the menu in advance, food buyers and producers can ensure that the necessary ingredients are purchased and that the production process is efficient and cost-effective.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(204) What must be done to a recipe if a dining facility does not serve exactly 100 servings?
- A.
It must be removed from the menu schedule.
- B.
It should be reported to HQ AFSVA/SVOHF (Headquarters Air Force Services Agency/ Air Force Food Service Branch).
- C.
You must reduce or increase a recipe.
- D.
You must reduce or increase the serving size.
Correct Answer
C. You must reduce or increase a recipe.Explanation
If a dining facility does not serve exactly 100 servings, the recipe needs to be adjusted by either reducing or increasing it. This is necessary in order to ensure that the correct amount of food is prepared to meet the actual number of servings needed. The other options, such as removing the recipe from the menu schedule or reporting it to HQ AFSVA/SVOHF, are not appropriate actions to take in this situation.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(204) What is the standard serving size for beverages?
- A.
12oz but no larger than 21oz per serving
- B.
8oz but no larger than 16oz per serving
- C.
10oz but no larger than 12oz per serving
- D.
There is no standard serving size because beverages are self-serve.
Correct Answer
A. 12oz but no larger than 21oz per servingExplanation
The standard serving size for beverages is 12oz, but it should not be larger than 21oz per serving. This means that the recommended amount to serve for beverages is 12oz, but it can be as large as 21oz. This ensures that individuals are consuming an appropriate portion size of beverages.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(204) Which of the items below are standards for lunch and dinner menus?(select all that apply)
- A.
One soup; 3 – 4 entrees
- B.
1 or more gravies or sauces; Choice of potato and additional starch
- C.
3 – 4 cooked vegetables; Standard salad bar and 2 – 8 additional salads
- D.
At least 3 fat-free dressings; At least 4 fresh fruits
- E.
At least 3 sliced breads; At least 5 desserts
Correct Answer(s)
A. One soup; 3 – 4 entrees
B. 1 or more gravies or sauces; Choice of potato and additional starch
C. 3 – 4 cooked vegetables; Standard salad bar and 2 – 8 additional salads
D. At least 3 fat-free dressings; At least 4 fresh fruits
E. At least 3 sliced breads; At least 5 dessertsExplanation
The correct answer includes standards for lunch and dinner menus such as one soup, 3-4 entrees, 1 or more gravies or sauces, choice of potato and additional starch, 3-4 cooked vegetables, standard salad bar and 2-8 additional salads, at least 3 fat-free dressings, at least 4 fresh fruits, at least 3 sliced breads, and at least 5 desserts. These items are considered standard because they provide a variety of options for a balanced meal, including soups, entrees, side dishes, salads, dressings, fruits, breads, and desserts.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(204) Which of the following are not standards for short order menus?
- A.
1 soup and chili con carne
- B.
At least 4 grilled short-order type items, 2 cold deli sandwiches, 2 (egg, ham, turkey, chicken)salad sandwiches
- C.
French fries, onion rings, assorted chips; Accompaniments and condiments
- D.
Same salad, dessert, fruit, and beverage selections offered for the lunch and dinner meals
- E.
This is a trick question- all of the above are standards for short order menus.
Correct Answer
E. This is a trick question- all of the above are standards for short order menus.Explanation
The correct answer is that all of the options listed are standards for short order menus. This means that soup and chili con carne, grilled short-order type items, cold deli sandwiches, French fries, onion rings, assorted chips, accompaniments and condiments, salad, dessert, fruit, and beverage selections are all commonly found on short order menus. This question is considered a trick question because it tries to confuse the reader by suggesting that some of the options may not be standards, when in fact they all are.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(204) What menu should the entrée items on the night meal come from?(Use the assumption that the night meal is the first meal of the day)
- A.
Fresh entrees from that day’s lunch meal.
- B.
Leftover entrees from that day’s lunch meal.
- C.
Leftover entrees from that day’s dinner meal.
- D.
Fresh entrees from that day’s dinner meal.
Correct Answer
A. Fresh entrees from that day’s lunch meal.Explanation
The entrée items on the night meal should come from fresh entrees from that day's lunch meal. This is because the assumption is that the night meal is the first meal of the day, so the entrees from lunch would be the most recent and fresh options available.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(205) Where can you find detailed information about flight kitchen operations?
- A.
In the job orientation guide for flight kitchen supervisors.
- B.
In the Airman’s Manual.
- C.
In the addendum to the CFS (Corporate Food Service) menu.
- D.
In the Flight Kitchen Manager’s Handbook and the food service section on the services agency website.
Correct Answer
D. In the Flight Kitchen Manager’s Handbook and the food service section on the services agency website.Explanation
The detailed information about flight kitchen operations can be found in the Flight Kitchen Manager's Handbook and the food service section on the services agency website. These resources are likely to provide comprehensive guidelines, procedures, and regulations related to flight kitchen operations, making them the most reliable sources of information for flight kitchen supervisors.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(205) Where can you find a management tool for planning and serving a good choice of flight and ground support meals?
- A.
On the U.S. FDA (Food and Drug Administration) website
- B.
The preface to the CFS (Corporate Food Service) menu
- C.
In the continuity binder
- D.
In the STORES (Subsistence Total Ordering and Receipt Electronic System) information file
Correct Answer
B. The preface to the CFS (Corporate Food Service) menuExplanation
The preface to the CFS menu is the correct answer because it suggests that the management tool for planning and serving flight and ground support meals can be found in the introduction or opening section of the Corporate Food Service menu. This implies that the menu contains information and guidelines for meal planning and service, making it a useful tool for managing these tasks.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(205) When are bases required to offer the CFS (Corporate Food Service) menu healthy flight and snack meal menus?
- A.
When the bases serve a total of 35 flight and snack meals a day
- B.
When the bases serve a total of 55 flight and snack meals a day
- C.
When the bases serve a total of 35 flight and snack meals a week
- D.
When the bases serve a total of 55 flight and snack meals a week
Correct Answer
A. When the bases serve a total of 35 flight and snack meals a day -
- 30.
(205) How are flight and snack meals identified as healthy selections?
- A.
They do not contain donuts.
- B.
The U.S. FDA (Food and Drug Administration) food pyramid sticker is placed on top of the flight meal packaging.
- C.
The flight meal packaging is green in color.
- D.
The DOD (Department of Defense) nutrition logo stickers are placed on top of the flight meal packaging.
Correct Answer
D. The DOD (Department of Defense) nutrition logo stickers are placed on top of the flight meal packaging.Explanation
Flight and snack meals are identified as healthy selections because the DOD (Department of Defense) nutrition logo stickers are placed on top of the flight meal packaging. This implies that these meals meet the nutritional standards set by the Department of Defense and are considered to be healthy options.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(205) What meals may not be issued as a primary meal for flight feeding?
- A.
The small meal and snack meal
- B.
The bite-sized and sandwich meal
- C.
The high-protein, low residue meal and MRE (Meals, ready to eat)
- D.
The frozen meal and sandwich meal
Correct Answer
A. The small meal and snack mealExplanation
The small meal and snack meal may not be issued as a primary meal for flight feeding.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(205) When are bite-sized meals authorized?
- A.
During long- duration flights
- B.
When serving children or small Airmen
- C.
When flight turbulence is expected
- D.
When serving crewmembers wearing oxygen masks
Correct Answer
D. When serving crewmembers wearing oxygen masksExplanation
Bite-sized meals are authorized when serving crewmembers wearing oxygen masks. This is likely because crewmembers wearing oxygen masks may have difficulty eating larger meals or may require smaller, more easily manageable portions.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(205) What meal may be issued as a second meal on flights of long duration?
- A.
Happy Meal
- B.
MRE (Meal, ready to eat)
- C.
Snack Meal
- D.
Small Meal
Correct Answer
B. MRE (Meal, ready to eat)Explanation
MRE (Meal, ready to eat) may be issued as a second meal on flights of long duration. MREs are pre-packaged meals that are designed to be easily consumed in various conditions, including during flights. They are compact, lightweight, and do not require refrigeration or cooking, making them suitable for extended flights where access to traditional meal preparation may be limited. MREs typically contain a variety of food items and are nutritionally balanced to provide the necessary sustenance for individuals during long journeys.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(206) What does the FSO use to rate food service operations?
- A.
AF Form 1038
- B.
DD Form 1038
- C.
AF Form 1130
- D.
DD Form 1130
Correct Answer
A. AF Form 1038Explanation
The FSO uses AF Form 1038 to rate food service operations.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(206) How many categories are inspected using the AF Form 1038?
- A.
3
- B.
4
- C.
5
- D.
6
Correct Answer
C. 5Explanation
The AF Form 1038 is used to inspect five categories.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(206) What is done after you identify problems in a category?
- A.
Assign corrective actions with suspense dates to the person responsible for the problem area.
- B.
Write up the person responsible and file the documentation in a PIF (Personal Information File)
- C.
Immediately act to correct the problems, and issue an after-actions report
- D.
Report problems identified to Public Health.
Correct Answer
A. Assign corrective actions with suspense dates to the person responsible for the problem area.Explanation
After identifying problems in a category, the next step is to assign corrective actions with suspense dates to the person responsible for the problem area. This ensures that the responsibility for addressing and resolving the problems is clearly assigned and that there is a timeline for completing the necessary actions. This approach helps to streamline the problem-solving process and hold individuals accountable for their role in resolving the identified issues.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jun 10, 2010Quiz Created by
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