1.
When processing Air Mobility Command (AMC) mission capability (MICAP)/very, very important parts (VVIP)/forward supply system (FSS) shipments, how must the cargo be stored to allow for ready identification and expeditious movement of the material?
Correct Answer
B. Segregated from other cargo in the terminal
Explanation
The cargo must be segregated from other cargo in the terminal to allow for ready identification and expeditious movement of the material. This ensures that the specific shipment can be easily located and quickly processed without any confusion or delays caused by being mixed with other cargo.
2.
Air Mobility Command (AMC) mission capability (MICAP)/very, very important parts (VVIP)/forward supply system (FSS) shipments are transferred on a hand-receipt basis using
Correct Answer
A. Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) or manually produced cargo manifests
Explanation
AMC mission capability (MICAP)/very, very important parts (VVIP)/forward supply system (FSS) shipments can be transferred using either the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) or manually produced cargo manifests. These systems or documents are used to track and record the transfer of these important shipments. The GATES system is an automated system that allows for efficient and accurate tracking of cargo, while manually produced cargo manifests are physical documents that provide a record of the shipment. Both methods ensure proper accountability and control of the transferred items.
3.
When using category B passenger missions to move Air Mobility Command (AMC) mission capability (MICAP)/ very, very important parts (VVIP)/forward supply system (FSS) shipments, the shipment must fit into the baggage compartment and not exceed
Correct Answer
B. 100 pounds
Explanation
When using category B passenger missions to move Air Mobility Command (AMC) mission capability (MICAP)/ very, very important parts (VVIP)/forward supply system (FSS) shipments, the shipment must fit into the baggage compartment and not exceed 100 pounds. This weight limit ensures that the shipment can be safely and securely transported within the aircraft's limitations and does not exceed the capacity of the baggage compartment.
4.
When processing an originating Air Mobility Command (AMC) Mission Capability (MICAP)/very, very important parts (VVIP)/Forward Supply System (FSS) shipment, which form do you use to control and monitor each shipment?
Correct Answer
A. Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 36, Originating AMC MICAP/VVIP Control Log
Explanation
When processing an originating AMC MICAP/VVIP/FSS shipment, the form used to control and monitor each shipment is Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 36, Originating AMC MICAP/VVIP Control Log.
5.
Who does the Air Clearance Authority (ACA) at Ramstein AB, Germany, notify after a green sheet request is submitted?
Correct Answer
D. Load planning
Explanation
After a green sheet request is submitted, the Air Clearance Authority (ACA) at Ramstein AB, Germany, notifies the Load Planning department. Load planning is responsible for coordinating and ensuring the proper loading and distribution of cargo and passengers on aircraft. They need to be informed about the green sheet request so they can make any necessary adjustments or accommodations in the loading process.
6.
Who does the Air Clearance Authority (ACA) at Travis AFB, California, notify after a green sheet request is submitted?
Correct Answer
B. Customer Service Branch (CSB)
Explanation
After a green sheet request is submitted, the Air Clearance Authority (ACA) at Travis AFB, California, notifies the Customer Service Branch (CSB).
7.
You have received and signed an Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 101, Green Sheet Request. What is entered into the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) in the prime Transportation Control Movement Document (TCMD) record and trailer data to show the shipment as green sheet?
Correct Answer
D. “G” in the special priority field and the phrase “Green sheet as of [the Greenwich Meantime hour
and date the request was received] only
Explanation
The correct answer is "G" in the special priority field and the phrase "Green sheet as of [the Greenwich Meantime hour and date the request was received] only. This answer indicates that the shipment is designated as a green sheet in the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) by entering "G" in the special priority field. Additionally, the phrase "Green sheet as of [the Greenwich Meantime hour and date the request was received]" is included to specify the time and date of the green sheet request.
8.
When processing palletized green sheet cargo using manual procedures, what two documents must you annotate to ensure that the shipment is properly identified?
Correct Answer
A. Department of Defense (DD) Form 1384, Transportation Control and Movement Document, and
the DD Form 2775, Pallet Identifier
Explanation
When processing palletized green sheet cargo using manual procedures, it is necessary to annotate the Department of Defense (DD) Form 1384, Transportation Control and Movement Document, and the DD Form 2775, Pallet Identifier. These documents ensure that the shipment is properly identified and tracked during transportation.
9.
If you do not have enough airlift to move all green sheet cargo on hand for a particular destination, how do you move the remaining cargo and who must you notify?
Correct Answer
C. In the sequence in which it was green sheeted by each specific service; notify the TACC
Explanation
If there is not enough airlift to move all the green sheet cargo for a particular destination, the remaining cargo should be moved in the sequence in which it was green sheeted by each specific service. The Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) must be notified of this sequence.
10.
When processing purple sheet cargo, if the shipment is not transportation priority one with an expedited handling indicator of “999,” what do you enter into the appropriate fields in the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES)?
Correct Answer
B. TP1; “999.”
Explanation
When processing purple sheet cargo that is not transportation priority one and does not have an expedited handling indicator of "999," you enter TP1; "999." into the appropriate fields in the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES).
11.
While you are processing and inspecting the DD Form 1387-2, Special Handling Data/Certification, for a classified shipment, if none of the information entered in the blocks of the form is classified, the shipper completes how many total copies of the form?
Correct Answer
D. Four
Explanation
If none of the information entered in the blocks of the form is classified, the shipper completes four total copies of the form.
12.
When a classified shipment arrives damaged or improperly documented, packaged, marked, or labeled at an originating station, you refuse the shipment unless
Correct Answer
A. It arrives by commercial conveyance
Explanation
If a classified shipment arrives damaged or improperly documented, packaged, marked, or labeled at an originating station, you refuse the shipment unless it arrives by commercial conveyance. This means that if the shipment is delivered by a commercial carrier, it should still be accepted even if it is damaged or has other discrepancies. However, if the shipment arrives by any other means, it should be refused.
13.
Security and classified shipments must be inventoried and accountability transferred using an Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 214, Security Cage Log, or equivalent. This action is required
Correct Answer
B. At the closest shift change to 0001 hours local time each day
Explanation
The correct answer is "at the closest shift change to 0001 hours local time each day". This means that the inventory and accountability transfer for security and classified shipments should be done at the shift change closest to 0001 hours local time every day. This ensures that there is a regular and consistent process in place for tracking and monitoring these shipments, enhancing security and ensuring proper handling of sensitive materials.
14.
When processing Defense Courier Service (DCS) material, the DCS representative’s first choice to escort the material in the absence of a dedicated courier is
Correct Answer
A. A space-required passenger selected from a printed copy of the list of eligible passengers
Explanation
The correct answer is a space-required passenger selected from a printed copy of the list of eligible passengers. This means that when there is no dedicated courier available, the DCS representative will choose a passenger who needs to travel and has the required space on their flight. They will select this passenger from a printed copy of the list of eligible passengers, ensuring that the material is safely escorted to its destination. This method ensures that the material is not left unattended and is accompanied by someone who is authorized to handle it.
15.
What must you place inside the container for use at the destination station before sealing a container of registered mail?
Correct Answer
B. Content listing
Explanation
Before sealing a container of registered mail for use at the destination station, you must place a content listing inside the container. This content listing provides a detailed inventory of the items included in the registered mail. It helps ensure that all the items are accounted for and can be easily referenced if needed. By including a content listing, the recipient at the destination station can verify the contents of the container and ensure that nothing is missing or tampered with.
16.
After you have containerized registered mail shipments into one box, what is the first step in sealing the container?
Correct Answer
D. Tape the container shut and prominently annotate the boxcar seal number, as well as both
individuals’ signatures, across the tape
Explanation
The first step in sealing the container after containerizing registered mail shipments is to tape the container shut. Additionally, it is important to prominently annotate the boxcar seal number and both individuals' signatures across the tape. This ensures that the container is securely sealed and provides a clear record of who sealed it.
17.
What must you do before aircraft departure if an aircrew member notices a discrepancy with a registration number on a registered mail shipment?
Correct Answer
A. Correct it and generate a new manifest
Explanation
Before aircraft departure, if an aircrew member notices a discrepancy with a registration number on a registered mail shipment, they must correct it and generate a new manifest. This ensures that the correct information is recorded and that there is no confusion or errors in the shipment documentation.
18.
Before transferring custody of registered mail on a terminating mission, you and the aircrew member will
Correct Answer
A. Inspect the container to verify the contents
Explanation
Before transferring custody of registered mail on a terminating mission, it is important to inspect the container to verify the contents. This is necessary to ensure that the correct items are being transferred and to prevent any potential discrepancies or issues during the transfer process. By inspecting the container, both parties involved can confirm that the contents are as expected and that nothing has been tampered with or damaged. This step helps to maintain the integrity of the registered mail and ensures that it is being handled and transferred correctly.
19.
You are receipting for a terminating registered mail shipment and the manifested transportation control number (TCN) does not match the TCN on the shipment. What is your next step after annotating the manifested TCN as a short shipment and listing the correct TCN at the bottom of the manifest as an over shipment?
Correct Answer
C. Annotate all copies of the manifest with a statement describing the discrepancy; then you and the
crew member both sign the statement to confirm the discrepancy
Explanation
After annotating the manifested TCN as a short shipment and listing the correct TCN at the bottom of the manifest as an over shipment, the next step is to annotate all copies of the manifest with a statement describing the discrepancy. Then, both you and the crew member should sign the statement to confirm the discrepancy. This ensures that there is a record of the discrepancy and that both parties acknowledge it.
20.
What should you do if human remains are not embalmed and refrigeration is not available?
Correct Answer
B. Refuse the shipment
Explanation
If human remains are not embalmed and refrigeration is not available, refusing the shipment would be the appropriate action to take. This is because without embalming or refrigeration, the remains may pose health and safety risks during transportation. By refusing the shipment, you can ensure that proper measures are taken to handle the remains and prevent any potential harm or contamination.
21.
Where are human remains loaded when considering the possibility that cargo jettisoning may occur?
Correct Answer
B. In the forward-most available level cargo position
Explanation
Human remains are loaded in the forward-most available level cargo position when considering the possibility of cargo jettisoning. This means that the remains are placed in the cargo area towards the front of the aircraft. It is important to load them in this position because they cannot be jettisoned, ensuring that they are not accidentally lost or damaged in case of an emergency situation where cargo needs to be jettisoned.
22.
When must you review the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 106, Biologicals/Reicing/Refrigeration Log, to ensure that perishable shipment reicing is accomplished as necessary?
Correct Answer
D. At the beginning of each shift
Explanation
The Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 106, Biologicals/Reicing/Refrigeration Log, should be reviewed at the beginning of each shift to ensure that perishable shipment reicing is accomplished as necessary. This ensures that the perishable items are properly refrigerated and maintained throughout the entire shift, minimizing the risk of spoilage or damage. It allows for timely reicing if needed and helps maintain the quality and safety of the perishable shipments.
23.
When can you open a diagnostic specimen shipment to reice it?
Correct Answer
C. When closing instructions are provided with the shipment
Explanation
You can open a diagnostic specimen shipment to receive it when closing instructions are provided with the shipment. This implies that there are specific instructions on how to handle and close the shipment, ensuring the safety and integrity of the specimen. Following these instructions is crucial to maintain the quality of the specimen and prevent any contamination or damage.
24.
As a member of the special handling section, you’re handed a piece of unclassified cargo identified as nuclear weapons related material (NWRM). This cargo is treated as
Correct Answer
C. Classified, protected cargo
Explanation
The correct answer is classified, protected cargo. In the given scenario, the cargo is identified as nuclear weapons related material (NWRM), which indicates that it contains sensitive and potentially dangerous information. Therefore, it needs to be classified to ensure its protection and prevent unauthorized access or disclosure. Additionally, classifying the cargo as protected emphasizes the need for enhanced security measures to safeguard it during transportation and handling.
25.
“Assemblies and subassemblies identified by the military departments that comprise or could comprise a standardized war reserve nuclear weapon as it would exist once separated/removed from its intended delivery vehicle” is the Office of Secretary of Defense definition of what type of material?
Correct Answer
D. Nuclear Weapons-Related Material
Explanation
The Office of Secretary of Defense defines "Nuclear Weapons-Related Material" as assemblies and subassemblies identified by the military departments that make up or could make up a standardized war reserve nuclear weapon once separated from its intended delivery vehicle. This definition indicates that the material is directly associated with nuclear weapons and is essential for their functioning and deployment.
26.
In addition to individuals who are required by function to handle Nuclear Weapons-Related Material (NWRM), what percentage of authorized aerial port personnel must be appointed in writing and must complete the NWRM fundamentals course annually?
Correct Answer
A. 5%
Explanation
A small percentage of authorized aerial port personnel, specifically 5%, must be appointed in writing and complete the NWRM fundamentals course annually. This requirement ensures that a portion of the personnel responsible for handling Nuclear Weapons-Related Material (NWRM) are well-trained and knowledgeable about the fundamentals of handling such sensitive material.
27.
During engine running on/off-load (ERO) operations, the aircraft engines must be in what mode before load team members approach the aircraft?
Correct Answer
C. Low speed ground idle or reverse thrust only
Explanation
During engine running on/off-load (ERO) operations, the aircraft engines must be in low speed ground idle or reverse thrust only before load team members approach the aircraft. This is because low speed ground idle provides enough power for ground operations while minimizing the risk of injury to the load team members. Reverse thrust is also allowed as it helps to slow down the aircraft and provides an additional safety measure during ground operations. Forward thrust is not recommended during these operations as it can pose a safety risk to the load team members.
28.
During engine running on/off-load (ERO) operations, after being signaled by an aircrew member, load team members use a route that takes them
Correct Answer
A. Perpendicular to the aircraft fuselage until they reach the aircraft centerline
Explanation
The load team members are instructed to take a route that is perpendicular to the aircraft fuselage until they reach the aircraft centerline during engine running on/off-load (ERO) operations. This means that they will approach the aircraft from a direction that is at a right angle to the fuselage. This route is likely chosen to ensure that the load team members have a clear and unobstructed path to the aircraft centerline, where they can assist the loadmaster in lowering the load.
29.
During engine running on/off-load (ERO) operations, who must you coordinate with before off-loading passengers through the crew entrance door?
Correct Answer
B. Aircraft commander, command post, and ERO functional areas only
30.
Before entering an area where concurrent servicing operations are already in progress, you must report to the
Correct Answer
B. Concurrent servicing supervisor (CSS)
Explanation
Before entering an area where concurrent servicing operations are already in progress, it is necessary to report to the concurrent servicing supervisor (CSS). This is because the CSS is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the concurrent servicing operations, ensuring that they are carried out safely and efficiently. By reporting to the CSS, you can receive instructions and guidance on how to proceed in the area without disrupting the ongoing servicing operations.
31.
During concurrent servicing operations, what action must you take if a spark occurs when you first ground yourself?
Correct Answer
A. Reground yourself periodically during operations
Explanation
When a spark occurs when you first ground yourself, it indicates that there is still an electrostatic charge present in your body. To prevent any potential damage or harm, you must reground yourself periodically during operations. This means that you should regularly touch a grounded object or use a grounding strap to discharge any built-up static electricity. By doing so, you can ensure that you are continuously grounded and minimize the risk of sparks or electrostatic discharge.
32.
During concurrent servicing operations, passengers can enter or exit the aircraft only if
Correct Answer
A. A jet way or stairs are used and refueling operations are on the other side of the aircraft
Explanation
Passengers can enter or exit the aircraft only if a jet way or stairs are used and refueling operations are on the other side of the aircraft. This means that for safety reasons, passengers can only board or disembark the aircraft when there is a physical means of access such as a jet way or stairs. Additionally, refueling operations must be conducted on the opposite side of the aircraft to ensure the safety of the passengers and prevent any potential hazards or accidents.
33.
A passenger is considered a deportee when she or he
Correct Answer
B. Fails to meet border clearance requirements and is refused entry into the country
Explanation
A passenger is considered a deportee when they fail to meet border clearance requirements and are refused entry into the country. This means that they have been denied entry by immigration authorities due to not meeting the necessary criteria for entry, such as having the proper visa or documentation. As a result, they are considered a deportee and may be required to return to their country of origin.
34.
If a distinguished visitor (DV) requests honors while traveling, which DV honors code do you use?
Correct Answer
A. H
Explanation
When a distinguished visitor (DV) requests honors while traveling, the DV honors code that is used is "H". This code signifies that the DV is requesting full honors, which typically includes a formal arrival ceremony, a military escort, and other ceremonial honors. This code is used to ensure that the appropriate level of respect and recognition is given to the distinguished visitor during their travel.
35.
If a distinguished visitor (DV) requests no honors while traveling, but requests transportation, which DV honors code do you use?
Correct Answer
D. T
Explanation
If a distinguished visitor (DV) requests no honors while traveling but requests transportation, the DV honors code that should be used is "T." This code indicates that the DV is requesting transportation services without any additional honors or ceremonies.
36.
If a distinguished visitor (DV) requests no honors while traveling, but requests quarters only, which DV honors code do you use?
Correct Answer
C. Q
Explanation
If a distinguished visitor (DV) requests no honors while traveling but requests quarters only, the DV honors code to be used is "Q." This means that the DV will not receive any honors during their travel but will be provided with suitable accommodations or quarters.
37.
Which feature on some organic aircraft allows a large-bodied passenger to use standard seat belts?
Correct Answer
A. Side-wall seats designed to carry fully-equipped paratroopers
Explanation
Side-wall seats designed to carry fully-equipped paratroopers allow a large-bodied passenger to use standard seat belts because they are specifically designed to accommodate the size and weight of fully-equipped paratroopers, who are typically larger than the average passenger. These seats are built with reinforced structures and wider dimensions to provide the necessary support and space for larger individuals. As a result, they can easily accommodate a large-bodied passenger and allow them to use standard seat belts without any issues.
38.
What must a female passenger who is less than 6 weeks postpartum present to passenger agents in order to travel?
Correct Answer
B. Females less than 6 weeks postpartum are never authorized to travel
Explanation
According to the given answer, female passengers who are less than 6 weeks postpartum are never authorized to travel. This means that they are not allowed to travel during this time period for medical reasons or other considerations.
39.
Which unique passenger would cause transportation working capital fund (TWCF) cargo to be downloaded up to two hours prior to aircraft block time?
Correct Answer
B. Mission route support (MRS)
Explanation
Mission route support (MRS) is the unique passenger that would cause transportation working capital fund (TWCF) cargo to be downloaded up to two hours prior to aircraft block time. This implies that MRS plays a crucial role in the transportation process and requires early access to the cargo for mission support purposes. The other options, Phoenix Raven (PR), Defense Courier Service (DCS), and Air Mobility Command (AMC) mobility mission observers (MMO), do not have the same level of involvement in cargo downloading as MRS.
40.
If a mission essential ground personnel (MEGP) passenger notifies the Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) within three hours of aircraft departure, then he/she
Correct Answer
D. Is normally not added to the mission if it will adversely impact already-manifested passengers
Explanation
If a mission essential ground personnel (MEGP) passenger notifies the Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) within three hours of aircraft departure, they are normally not added to the mission if it will adversely impact already-manifested passengers. This means that if adding the MEGP passenger to the mission would negatively affect the passengers who are already scheduled to be on the flight, they will not be added. This ensures that the mission can proceed smoothly without causing any disruptions or inconveniences to the passengers who have already been accounted for.
41.
If a customer has a problem, what is the most important thing you can do to provide great customer service?
Correct Answer
B. Listen
Explanation
Listening is the most important thing you can do to provide great customer service because it shows that you value the customer's concerns and are willing to understand their problem. By actively listening, you can gather important information, empathize with the customer, and find the best solution to their problem. It also helps in building trust and rapport with the customer, making them feel heard and respected.
42.
In which two ways can you build rapport with your customers?
Correct Answer
A. Listening and asking good questions
Explanation
Building rapport with customers involves creating a connection and establishing trust. One way to achieve this is by actively listening to customers, showing genuine interest in their concerns and needs. This helps to build empathy and understanding. Additionally, asking good questions allows you to gather more information, demonstrate your interest, and engage customers in meaningful conversations. By combining active listening and effective questioning, you can build rapport by showing that you value and respect your customers' opinions and experiences.
43.
Once you receive the mission load report (MLR) from the previous station, your next step is to
Correct Answer
C. Determine how much traffic requires download and how much is continuing on the aircraft
Explanation
After receiving the mission load report (MLR) from the previous station, the next step is to determine how much traffic requires download and how much is continuing on the aircraft. This involves analyzing the report to identify the items that need to be downloaded from the aircraft and those that can remain on board. By doing so, the necessary actions can be taken to ensure that the appropriate items are unloaded and the aircraft is properly prepared for its next mission.
44.
When accomplishing a departure mission load report (MLR), you forward the report to the downline stations after the
Correct Answer
B. Senior controller approves it, but no later than 30 minutes after mission departure
45.
You are accomplishing a departure mission load report (MLR) without the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES). What document does the load information come from?
Correct Answer
C. AF Form 4080, Load Plan Sequence/Breakdown Worksheet
Explanation
The load information for a departure mission load report (MLR) without the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) comes from the AF Form 4080, Load Plan Sequence/Breakdown Worksheet.
46.
When accomplishing a departure mission load report (MLR), when the cargo breakdown section includes rolling stock and multipallet trains, what other information about those items is included?
Correct Answer
C. The fuselage station on the aircraft where the item starts and stops
Explanation
The cargo breakdown section of the departure mission load report (MLR) includes information about the fuselage station on the aircraft where the rolling stock and multipallet trains start and stop. This information is important for the proper loading and unloading of these items during the departure mission.
47.
When accomplishing a departure mission load report (MLR) with human remains cargo on board, which of the following answers best represents the information that must be included in the report and in which section the information is placed.
Correct Answer
A. SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/Dover AFB Mortuary Affairs; special interest cargo section
Explanation
The information that must be included in the report is "SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/Dover AFB Mortuary Affairs" and it should be placed in the "special interest cargo section".
48.
When completing the inbound side of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, what do you enter into the Location block for Air Mobility Command Mission Capable (AMC MICAP) shipments?
Correct Answer
D. The location of the aircraft for which the AMC MICAP is destined
Explanation
When completing the inbound side of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, you enter the location of the aircraft for which the AMC MICAP is destined into the Location block for AMC MICAP shipments. This helps ensure that the shipment is properly directed to the correct aircraft and destination.
49.
When completing the inbound side of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, in the Explosives block for cargo/mail data off-load you enter the total
Correct Answer
A. Weight of explosives off-loaded at your station
Explanation
When completing the inbound side of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, in the Explosives block for cargo/mail data off-load, you enter the weight of explosives that have been off-loaded at your station. This means that you record the total weight of the explosives that have been unloaded from the aircraft at your station.
50.
When completing the outbound side of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, you enter in the Loadmaster Scheduled Show block the loadmaster/boom operator scheduled show time
Correct Answer
D. And the initials of the command post and ATOC representatives passing/receiving the information
only
Explanation
The correct answer is "and the initials of the command post and ATOC representatives passing/receiving the information only." This means that when completing the outbound side of the AMC Form 77, you should enter the initials of both the command post representative who is passing the information and the ATOC representative who is receiving the information. This ensures that there is a record of who is responsible for transmitting and receiving the scheduled show time of the loadmaster/boom operator.