Take Home Quiz Chapter 12

97 Questions  I  By Phbmuststudy
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  • 1. 
    A mnemonic is a:
    • A. 

      Memory aid.

    • B. 

      Number code.

    • C. 

      Program icon.

    • D. 

      Secret phrase.


  • 2. 
    A barcode is a:
    • A. 

      Coded instruction needed to control computer hardware.

    • B. 

      Confidential computer code that is required by the HIPAA

    • C. 

      Series of bars and spaces representing numbers or letters.

    • D. 

      Unique number given to each test request for ID purposes.


  • 3. 
    A pneumatic tube is a:
    • A. 

      Pressurized air transportation system.

    • B. 

      Temporary computer data storage unit.

    • C. 

      Tube connection between two computers.

    • D. 

      Type of collection tube for blood gases.


  • 4. 
    This is permanent computer memory that instructs the computer to carry out user-requested operations.
    • A. 

      CPU

    • B. 

      LIS

    • C. 

      RAM

    • D. 

      ROM


  • 5. 
    What is output?
    • A. 

      Coded instruction used in computer processing

    • B. 

      Information collected for analysis or computation

    • C. 

      Processed information generated by the computer

    • D. 

      Storage units for sharing information and resources


  • 6. 
    Which one of the following methods should never be used to prevent exposure to aerosols generated when the stopper is removed from a specimen tube?
    • A. 

      Covering the stopper with a 4 X 4-inch gauze while removing it

    • B. 

      Removing the stopper with the tube held behind a shield

    • C. 

      Using a specially designed safety stopper removal device

    • D. 

      Withdrawing the specimen through the stopper by syringe


  • 7. 
    Which one of the following describes proper aliquot preparation?
    • A. 

      Immediately covering aliquot tubes after transferring the specimen

    • B. 

      Labeling tubes after pipetting the sample into the aliquot tube

    • C. 

      Pouring plasma from different additive tubes into one aliquot tube

    • D. 

      Pouring samples into aliquot tubes instead of using transfer pipettes


  • 8. 
    This organization developes standards for specimen handling and processing.
    • A. 

      CDC

    • B. 

      CLIA

    • C. 

      CLSI

    • D. 

      FDA


  • 9. 
    Interlace means:
    • A. 

      Checking quality control results on instrumentation.

    • B. 

      Entering data into a laboratory information system.

    • C. 

      Interaction through the connection of computers.

    • D. 

      Standardizing all laboratory ordering and testing.


  • 10. 
    ESR determinations on specimens held at room temperature must be made within:
    • A. 

      1 hour.

    • B. 

      4 hours.

    • C. 

      12 hours.

    • D. 

      24 hours.


  • 11. 
    Which of the following is the best way to prepare routine blood specimen tubes for transportation to the lab?
    • A. 

      Place the tubes in ice slurry.

    • B. 

      Seal the tubes in plastic bags.

    • C. 

      Wipe each tube with alcohol.

    • D. 

      Wrap the tubes in the requisitions.


  • 12. 
    Which of the following specimens are least likely to require special handling?
    • A. 

      Bilirubin and serum folate

    • B. 

      Cholesterol and uric acid

    • C. 

      Gastrin and lactic acid

    • D. 

      Homocysteine and renin


  • 13. 
    This is an example of a preanalytical error made at the time of collection.
    • A. 

      Delay in transporting

    • B. 

      Failing to mix tubes

    • C. 

      Incomplete requisition

    • D. 

      Waiting to centrifuge


  • 14. 
    Transferring specimens into aliquot tubes has inherent risks.  Which of the following involves the least amount of risk?
    • A. 

      Aerosols created during transfer

    • B. 

      Aliquot tubes that are prelabeled

    • C. 

      Serum and plasma's similar color

    • D. 

      Specimens that are biohazardous


  • 15. 
    This is a source of preanalytical error that occurs before specimen collection.
    • A. 

      Dehydrated patient

    • B. 

      Misidentified patient

    • C. 

      Mislabeled ETS tube

    • D. 

      Wrong collection time


  • 16. 
    HIPAA was enacted to:
    • A. 

      Examine all patient healthcare records.

    • B. 

      Protect HCW from malpractice issues.

    • C. 

      Provide guidelines for sharing of PHI.

    • D. 

      Standardize patient electronic records.


  • 17. 
    Special hand-held computer systems used in laboratory medicine are capable of:
    • A. 

      Displaying what tubes to collect.

    • B. 

      Generating labels for specimens.

    • C. 

      Reading barcodes on ID bracelets.

    • D. 

      All of the above


  • 18. 
    Critical values (test values that are considered life threatening) are also called:
    • A. 

      Alarm values.

    • B. 

      At-risk values.

    • C. 

      Panic values.

    • D. 

      Unstable values.


  • 19. 
    Which of the following would be a preanalytical error related to specimen storage
    • A. 

      Exposure to light

    • B. 

      Faulty technique

    • C. 

      Inadequate fast

    • D. 

      Underfilled tube


  • 20. 
    Which of the following would be a preanalytical error related to specimen transport?
    • A. 

      Agitation-induced hemolysis

    • B. 

      Contamination caused by dust

    • C. 

      Incorrect collection tube

    • D. 

      Strenuous, recent excercise


  • 21. 
    A USB drive is:
    • A. 

      Network connection device.

    • B. 

      Secondary storage device.

    • C. 

      Terminal linking device.

    • D. 

      Word processing device.


  • 22. 
    Cellular metabolism in specimens that have not been separated from the cells will affect which of the following analytes?
    • A. 

      Amylase

    • B. 

      Calcitonin

    • C. 

      Hemoglobin

    • D. 

      Triglycerides


  • 23. 
    Glycolysis by the cells in blood specimens can falsely lower glucode vlaues at a rate of up to:
    • A. 

      50 mg/L per hour.

    • B. 

      100 mg/L per hour.

    • C. 

      200 mg/L per hour.

    • D. 

      250 mg/L per hour.


  • 24. 
    Which of the following samples are time-sensitive?
    • A. 

      Calcium collected in sodium heparin tubes

    • B. 

      ESR determinations collected in EDTA tubes

    • C. 

      PTT's that are stored at refrigerated temperature

    • D. 

      All of the above


  • 25. 
    Which of the following temperatures is acceptable for a specimen that rquires transportation and handling at room temperature?
    • A. 

      -20C

    • B. 

      8C

    • C. 

      25C

    • D. 

      37C


  • 26. 
    Some blood specimens require cooling to:
    • A. 

      Avoid hemolysis of RBC's.

    • B. 

      Prevent premature clotting.

    • C. 

      Promote serum separation.

    • D. 

      Slow metabolic processes.


  • 27. 
    Which one of the following activities is least likely to take place in central processing or triage?
    • A. 

      Accessioning or logging

    • B. 

      Analysis and reporting

    • C. 

      Evaluation for suitability

    • D. 

      Sorting by department


  • 28. 
    It is unlikely that removing the stopper from a specimen will cause:
    • A. 

      Contamination.

    • B. 

      Evaporation.

    • C. 

      Increase in pH.

    • D. 

      Loss of iCa2+.


  • 29. 
    If a specimen has inadequate identification, the specimen processor may:
    • A. 

      Add the missing information to the label.

    • B. 

      Ask the phlebotomist to get a new sample.

    • C. 

      Contact the patient for correct information.

    • D. 

      Refer the tube to the laboratory supervisor.


  • 30. 
    Use of one of the newest technologies, RFID, is emerging in healthcare.  RFID is a:
    • A. 

      Method of specimen identification.

    • B. 

      Mnemonic for a strong disinfectant.

    • C. 

      Secret code for AIDS patient serum.

    • D. 

      Test code for chemistry analyzers.


  • 31. 
    An example of a preanalytical error happening during specimen processing is:
    • A. 

      Faulty collection technique

    • B. 

      Inadequate centrifugation.

    • C. 

      Insufficient specimen.

    • D. 

      Patient stress and anxiety.


  • 32. 
    To be considered computer literate, an individual must be able to:
    • A. 

      Explain how POCT instruments are connected to LIS.

    • B. 

      Design programs for job-specific problems in your area.

    • C. 

      Perform daily QA documentation in database software.

    • D. 

      Understand the computer and the functions it performs.


  • 33. 
    This is a term for a gorup of computers linked togehter for the purpose of sharing information.
    • A. 

      Junction

    • B. 

      Network

    • C. 

      Node unit

    • D. 

      Terminal


  • 34. 
    Data can be entered or input into a computer from:
    • A. 

      Applications.

    • B. 

      Printers.

    • C. 

      Scanners.

    • D. 

      All of the above


  • 35. 
    Computer memory bytes are:
    • A. 

      Handheld PC assistants.

    • B. 

      Individual data characters.

    • C. 

      Local area network systems.

    • D. 

      Secondary storage drives.


  • 36. 
    Which of the following is a function of a computer monitor?
    • A. 

      Instructs the computer to carry out user-requested operations

    • B. 

      Manages the processing and completion of user-required tasks

    • C. 

      Performs mathematical processes and comparisons of data

    • D. 

      Provides visible display of all the information being processed


  • 37. 
    Random access memory (RAM):
    • A. 

      Can be lost when the computer program is closed.

    • B. 

      Includes data, software, hardware, and peripherals,.

    • C. 

      Instructs the computer to carry out user operations.

    • D. 

      Is permanent memory installed by manufacturers.


  • 38. 
    Which one of the following should be excluded from a list of computer peripherals?
    • A. 

      Keyboard

    • B. 

      Modem

    • C. 

      Programs

    • D. 

      Scanner


  • 39. 
    Systems software includes:
    • A. 

      Coded instructions that control processing of data.

    • B. 

      Programs from software companies sold as a unit.

    • C. 

      The central processing unit and all hardware additions.

    • D. 

      Word processing, spreadsheet, and graphic programs.


  • 40. 
    The laboratory has a computerized laboratory information system (US).  Once an inpatient speciemn has been collected by a phlebotomist and returned to the laboritory, what occurs next?
    • A. 

      A collection list is generated.

    • B. 

      All lab test orders are retrieved.

    • C. 

      Collection labels are printed.

    • D. 

      Specimen collection is verified.


  • 41. 
    A computer terminal is a:
    • A. 

      Keyboard and computer screen workstation.

    • B. 

      Last computer in a series of matching terminals

    • C. 

      Printer where information can be displayed.

    • D. 

      Screen that visually displays data to the user.


  • 42. 
    Which of the following is a characteristic of an intranet?
    • A. 

      Accumulates lab statistics for network workload

    • B. 

      Connects computer networks within a company

    • C. 

      Connects types of lab systems and multiple vendors

    • D. 

      Links lab systems with networks outside the company


  • 43. 
    Which of the following would be described as logging on?
    • A. 

      Accessing the Internet from a computer

    • B. 

      Entering a password to access the LIS

    • C. 

      Turning the computer terminal to "on"

    • D. 

      Using menus to navigate the program


  • 44. 
    To process input data a computer user must:
    • A. 

      Logoff the web

    • B. 

      Move the cursor

    • C. 

      Press the enter key

    • D. 

      Select an icon


  • 45. 
    Computer verification of test orders is best described as a process that allows a user to:
    • A. 

      Access the system to view the patient's diagnosis.

    • B. 

      Confirm that the test was ordered by a physician.

    • C. 

      Establish that the appropriate test was ordered.

    • D. 

      Modify, delete, or accept test orders after review of data.


  • 46. 
    The "order inquiry" fuction allows the user to:
    • A. 

      Check the physician's diagnosis.

    • B. 

      Edit or delete duplicate test orders.

    • C. 

      Find errors in patient identification.

    • D. 

      Retrieve all test orders on a patient.


  • 47. 
    Which of the following is confidential nd unique to a single computer user?
    • A. 

      Entry icon

    • B. 

      ID code

    • C. 

      LIS menus

    • D. 

      Password


  • 48. 
    Typical functions an LIS can perform include:
    • A. 

      Entering lab test results.

    • B. 

      Ordering laboratory tests.

    • C. 

      Printing specimen labels.

    • D. 

      All of the above


  • 49. 
    What does the laboratory use to identify a specimen throughout the testing process?
    • A. 

      Accession number

    • B. 

      Hospital number

    • C. 

      LIS menu icon

    • D. 

      Mnemonic code


  • 50. 
    When using computer-generated specimen labels, what information must typically be added to the label after a specimen is collected?
    • A. 

      Medical record number

    • B. 

      Patient's complete name

    • C. 

      Patient's date of birth

    • D. 

      Phlebotomist's initials


  • 51. 
    A didirectional computer interface allows:
    • A. 

      Computer RAM storage capacity to double in size.

    • B. 

      Data to upload or download between two systems.

    • C. 

      Information to go from two analyzers to LIS.

    • D. 

      Two persons to use a computer at the same time.


  • 52. 
    A computer networking system created to share resources within a facility or organiation is also called a:
    • A. 

      CPU.

    • B. 

      LAN.

    • C. 

      RAM.

    • D. 

      ROM.


  • 53. 
    In computer language, "hard copy" is:
    • A. 

      Data stored on disks or USB drives.

    • B. 

      Information displayed on the CRT.

    • C. 

      Lab results stored on the hard drive.

    • D. 

      Processed data printed on paper.


  • 54. 
    The curent trend in laboratory testing includes:
    • A. 

      Decrease barcode labeling systems.

    • B. 

      Growth in conventional lab testing.

    • C. 

      Less microchip technology.

    • D. 

      POCT expansion capabilities.


  • 55. 
    In specimen handling it is very important to appreciate that:
    • A. 

      Effects of mishandling the specimen are not always obvious

    • B. 

      Improper specimen handling can be corrected if identified.

    • C. 

      Most laboratory errors occur in the postanalytical phase.

    • D. 

      Quality of results is unaffected by collection procedure.


  • 56. 
    Proper specimen handling begins:
    • A. 

      As soon as the specimen is collected.

    • B. 

      During the specimen collection procedures.

    • C. 

      In the course of patient identification.

    • D. 

      When the physician orders the test.


  • 57. 
    You are the only phlebotomist in an outpatient drawing station.  A physican orders a test with which you are not familiar.  What is the appropriate action to take?
    • A. 

      Call the physician's office for assistance.

    • B. 

      Draw both a serum and a plasma specimen.

    • C. 

      Refer to the user manual for instructions.

    • D. 

      Send the patient to another drawing station.


  • 58. 
    The number of tube inversions required during specimen collection depends on:
    • A. 

      How difficult it is to collect the blood.

    • B. 

      Manufacturer-recommended inversions.

    • C. 

      The amount of blood in the evacuated tube.

    • D. 

      Which needle gauge is used in collection.


  • 59. 
    Inadequate mixing of an anticoagulant tube can lead to:
    • A. 

      Hemolysis of the specimen.

    • B. 

      Lipemia of the specimen.

    • C. 

      Microclots in the specimen.

    • D. 

      The sample clotting too fast.


  • 60. 
    Which tube does not require mixing?
    • A. 

      Clot activator

    • B. 

      Gel separator

    • C. 

      Liquid EDTA

    • D. 

      Plain red top


  • 61. 
    Transporting blood specimens with the stopper up has nothing to do with:
    • A. 

      Encouraging complete clot formation.

    • B. 

      Maintaining the sterility of the sample,

    • C. 

      Minimizing stopper-caused aerosols.

    • D. 

      Reducing agitation-caused hemolysis.


  • 62. 
    Clinical and Laboratory Standards Instutute (CLSI) and Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) guidelines do riot require specimen transport bags to have:
    • A. 

      A visible biohazard logo.

    • B. 

      Liquid-tight closure top.

    • C. 

      Shock-resistance features.

    • D. 

      Slip pockets for paperwork.


  • 63. 
    Which one of the following agencies has nothing to do with setting guidelines for specimens transported by courier and other air or ground mail systems?
    • A. 

      DOT

    • B. 

      FAA

    • C. 

      FDA

    • D. 

      OSHA


  • 64. 
    Which of the following specimens is unlikely to be rejected for analysis?   A specimen for:
    • A. 

      Electrolytes that is hemolyzed.

    • B. 

      Fasting glucose that is lipemic.

    • C. 

      Platelet count with microclots.

    • D. 

      Total bilirubin that is icteric.


  • 65. 
    It is unnecessary to protect this specimen from light.
    • A. 

      Ammonia

    • B. 

      Bilirubin

    • C. 

      Vitamin B12.

    • D. 

      Vitamin C


  • 66. 
    Rough handling during transport is bad for specimens, but it will not:
    • A. 

      Activate the platelets.

    • B. 

      Affect coagulation tests.

    • C. 

      Elevate WBC counts.

    • D. 

      Hemolyze specimens.


  • 67. 
    Which specimen needs to be tarnsported on ice?
    • A. 

      Ammonia

    • B. 

      Bilirubin

    • C. 

      Carotene

    • D. 

      Potassium


  • 68. 
    The best way to chill a specimen is to:
    • A. 

      Immerse it in a slurry of ice and water.

    • B. 

      Put it in a small container of ice cubes.

    • C. 

      Rubber band it to a large piece of ice.

    • D. 

      Set it in a chilled metal carrying case.


  • 69. 
    Chilling can cause erroneous results for this analyte.
    • A. 

      Ammonia

    • B. 

      Glucagon

    • C. 

      Lactic acid

    • D. 

      Potassium


  • 70. 
    How should a cryofibrinogen specimen be transported?
    • A. 

      At room temperature

    • B. 

      Immersed in ice slurry

    • C. 

      In a 37C heat block

    • D. 

      Protected from light


  • 71. 
    The most propable reason a phlebotomist would wrap a specimen in aluminum foil would be to:
    • A. 

      Cool down the specimen.

    • B. 

      Cover a contaminated tube.

    • C. 

      Maintain 37C temperature.

    • D. 

      Protect it from light.


  • 72. 
    A specimen must be transported at or near normal body temperature.  Which of the following temperatures meets this requirement?
    • A. 

      25C

    • B. 

      37C

    • C. 

      50C

    • D. 

      98C


  • 73. 
    According to CLSI, the maximum time limit for separating serum or plasma from cells is:
    • A. 

      15 minutes from the time of collection.

    • B. 

      30 minutes from the time of collection.

    • C. 

      1.0 hour from the time of the collection

    • D. 

      2.0 hours from the time of collection.


  • 74. 
    A separator gel prevents glycolysis:
    • A. 

      After the specimen has been centrifuged.

    • B. 

      As soon as the specimen is collected.

    • C. 

      In tubes used for serum samples only.

    • D. 

      When the specimen is thoroughly mixed.


  • 75. 
    A glucose specimen collected in sodium fluoride tube is generally stable at room temperatures for:
    • A. 

      6 hours.

    • B. 

      12 hours.

    • C. 

      24 hours.

    • D. 

      48 hours.


  • 76. 
    Which specimen has priority over all other specimens during processing and testing
    • A. 

      ASAP

    • B. 

      Fasting

    • C. 

      STAT

    • D. 

      Timed


  • 77. 
    Which of the following specimens does not need to be centrifuged?
    • A. 

      BUN in a red/gray SST

    • B. 

      CBC in a lavender tube

    • C. 

      Potassium in a green tube

    • D. 

      PTT in a light blue tube


  • 78. 
    Which of the following is not a valid reason for why blood slides made from EDTA specimens must be prepared within 1 hour of specimen collection?  To:
    • A. 

      Ensure they are made before clots appear.

    • B. 

      Minimize RBC distortion on the smear.

    • C. 

      Preserve the integrity of the blood cells.

    • D. 

      Prevent artifact formation from additive.


  • 79. 
    Processing specimens requires various types of PPE, but this type is unnecessary:
    • A. 

      Covers for footwear

    • B. 

      Disposable gloves

    • C. 

      Fluid-resistant apron

    • D. 

      Protective goggles


  • 80. 
    This specimen would most likely be accepted for testing despite this problem.
    • A. 

      Expired evacuated tube

    • B. 

      Incomplete identification

    • C. 

      Not initialed by the collector

    • D. 

      Quantity is not sufficient


  • 81. 
    Which of the following actions will compromise the quality of the specimen?
    • A. 

      Drawing a BUN in an amber serum tube

    • B. 

      Mixing an SST by inverting it five times

    • C. 

      Only partially filling a liquid EDTA tube

    • D. 

      Transporting a cryofibrinogen at 37C


  • 82. 
    Results for this test should be normal despite a delay in processing longer than 2 hours.
    • A. 

      Carbon dioxide

    • B. 

      Fasting glucose

    • C. 

      Ionized calcium

    • D. 

      Pregnancy test


  • 83. 
    An aliquot is a:
    • A. 

      Filter for separating serum from cells.

    • B. 

      Portion of a specimen being tested.

    • C. 

      Specimen being prepared for testing.

    • D. 

      Tube used to balance the centrifuge.


  • 84. 
    Which specimen will be automatically rejected if the tube is not filled until the normal vacuum is exhausted?
    • A. 

      Complete blood count

    • B. 

      Plasma electrolytes

    • C. 

      Postprandial glucose

    • D. 

      Prothrombin time


  • 85. 
    Which of  the following tests is unaffected by hemolysis?
    • A. 

      Amylase

    • B. 

      Hemoglobin

    • C. 

      Magnesium

    • D. 

      Potassium


  • 86. 
    Tests performed on plasma samples are:
    • A. 

      Collected in red-/gray-top tubes.

    • B. 

      Drawn in anticoagulant tubes.

    • C. 

      Hemotology or serology tests.

    • D. 

      Obtained from clotted blood.


  • 87. 
    Chemistry tests are often collected in heparin tubes to:
    • A. 

      Ensure adequate coagulation.

    • B. 

      Maximize diagnosis potential.

    • C. 

      Minimize the effects of hemolysis.

    • D. 

      Reduce the turnaround time.


  • 88. 
    It is important to note the type of heparin in a collection tube because:
    • A. 

      A few types of heparin do not require tube inversions.

    • B. 

      Not all types of heparin prevent complete coagulation.

    • C. 

      Some types of heparin can affect results of certain tests.

    • D. 

      Some types of heparin make centrifugation unnecessary.


  • 89. 
    To avoid airborne infection while processing specimens:
    • A. 

      Apply the brake when stopping the centrifuge.

    • B. 

      Cover tube stoppers with gauze to remove them.

    • C. 

      "pop" tube stoppers when opening serum tubes.

    • D. 

      Pour specimens directly into labeled aliquot tubes.


  • 90. 
    When a non-additive specimen is spun in a centrifuge, the substance that comes to the top is:
    • A. 

      Huffy coat.

    • B. 

      Plasma.

    • C. 

      Red cells.

    • D. 

      Serum.


  • 91. 
    If a serum specimen is not completely clotted before it is centrifuged, the:
    • A. 

      Huffy coat may not form properly.

    • B. 

      Red blood cells in it may hemolyze.

    • C. 

      Separator gel may come to the top.

    • D. 

      Serum may have a fibrin clot in it.


  • 92. 
    Which of the following collection circumstances is least likely to result in delayed clotting of a serum specimen?
    • A. 

      Collection was difficult, hemolyzing red cells

    • B. 

      Patient has an elevated white blood cell count

    • C. 

      Patient is taking an anticoagulant medication

    • D. 

      Specimen is chilled soon after being collected


  • 93. 
    Which of the following tests would be most affected if contaminated with a drop of perspiration?
    • A. 

      BUN

    • B. 

      Lactate

    • C. 

      Lytes

    • D. 

      SGOT


  • 94. 
    Stoppers should be left on tubes awaiting centrifugation to prevent:
    • A. 

      Analyte

    • B. 

      Contamination.

    • C. 

      Decrease in pH.

    • D. 

      All of the above


  • 95. 
    Minimum precentrifugation time for specimens drawn in serum separator tubes is:
    • A. 

      10 minutes.

    • B. 

      15 minutes.

    • C. 

      20 minutes.

    • D. 

      30 minutes.


  • 96. 
    Repeated centrifugation of a specimen can:
    • A. 

      Alter the test results.

    • B. 

      Deteriorate analytes.

    • C. 

      Result in hemolysis

    • D. 

      All of the above


  • 97. 
    Which statement describes proper centrifuge operation?
    • A. 

      Balance specimens by placing tubes of equal volume and size opposite one another.

    • B. 

      Centifuge serum specimens before they start to form clots on the sides of the tubes.

    • C. 

      Never centrifuge serum specimens and plasma specimens in the same centrifuge.

    • D. 

      Remove the stoppers from evacuated tubes before placing them in the centrifuge.


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