Review Quiz Mibc Week 4 Mod 3

162 Questions  I  By Coofoogirl555
Review Quiz MIBC Week 4 Mod 3
Review quiz for module 3 week 4

  
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1.  Patient-staff encounters in a medical facility leave lasting impressions. these "encounters" begin when
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.  Most services offered by a healthcare facility are not tangible, meaning they cannot be seen or felt; therefore, patients look for surrogates, which include
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.  It is human nature for patients to want to like their physicians. for these reasons, physicians should
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.  Over the next 30 years, the number of americans over age ________ will double.
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.  Websites can help individuals find
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.  With few exceptions, the release of information contained in a patients health record to a third party is
A.
B.
C.
D.
7.  An assignment of benefits is an arrangement by patients to allow
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.  In a healthcare office, the form patients fill out providing name, address, employer and health insurance information is called a
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.  A chronological record of all patient transactions, including previous balances, charges, payments, and current balances is a
A.
B.
C.
D.
10.  A useful method of accounting for small practices that captures information at the time the transaction takes place is called a/an
A.
B.
C.
D.
11.  When using patient billing software, accuracy is crucial. additionally, in case of poer fluctuation or failure, it is also crucial
A.
B.
C.
D.
12.  Healthcare offices send out statements periodically; this process is typically called a
A.
B.
C.
D.
13.  Patients who have either inadequate insurance or no insurance at all are referred to as
A.
B.
C.
D.
14.  If a patient has no insurance listed, the health insurance professional should
A.
B.
C.
D.
15.  The federal truth in lending act (1968), regulation z allows for an installment payment plan of more than ____ payments.
A.
B.
C.
D.
16.  Which of the following is not one of the five categories of problem debtors
A.
B.
C.
D.
17.  The fair debt collection practices act addresses
A.
B.
C.
D.
18.  An organization that obtains or arranges for payment of money owed to a third party is a
A.
B.
C.
D.
19.  Before a small claims lawsuit can proceed, the court expects the ______ to have explored all other avenues of settlement
A.
B.
C.
D.
20.  The defendant is the party
A.
B.
C.
D.
21.  The business of protecting, through legal means, a person or property against loss or harm is referred to as
A.
B.
C.
D.
22.  Health insurance narrows down undesirable events to
A.
B.
C.
D.
23.  securitas is the latin term for
A.
B.
C.
D.
24.  The "birth" of health insurance in this country occurred in
A.
B.
C.
D.
25.  The federal healthcare program for the elderly and certain qualifying others is
A.
B.
C.
D.
26.  The combined federal and state healthcare program for indigent and low income individuals is
A.
B.
C.
D.
27.  A relatively new concept of healthcare structure that emerged in the late twentieth century is
A.
B.
C.
D.
28.  Factors listed in the text that drive healthcare issues include all of the following except
A.
B.
C.
D.
29.  Many employed individuals obtain healthcare coverage through a/an
A.
B.
C.
D.
30.  The following groups that are typically without insurance include all except those who are
A.
B.
C.
D.
31.  The situation whereby patients pay a certain portion of healthcare costs (e.g., deductible and copayment) is called
A.
B.
C.
D.
32.  Actuaries use statistics to predict anticipated healthcare costs, which establish
A.
B.
C.
D.
33.  Fee-for-service healcare plans are also referred to as
A.
B.
C.
D.
34.  Understanding what you read is called
A.
B.
C.
D.
35.  Sending and receiving information through mutually understood methods is
A.
B.
C.
D.
36.  When you stick with a task until it is completed, you are
A.
B.
C.
D.
37.  When you have honest, ethical, and moral principles, you are said to have
A.
B.
C.
D.
38.  If you are not influenced by personal feelings, biases, or prejudice, you have
A.
B.
C.
D.
39.  To write down important lecture facts in ones own words is called
A.
B.
C.
D.
40.  Organizing daily responsibilities according to their importance is called
A.
B.
C.
D.
41.  College entry-level skills necessary for success as a health insurance professional include all of the following except
A.
B.
C.
D.
42.  Success in getting the most out of ones education and optimizing career potential facilitates
A.
B.
C.
D.
43.  In order to develop effective study skills, it is suggested that students generate a ________________ schedule.
A.
B.
C.
D.
44.  The nationally recognized job title for individuals who specialize in medical insurance claims submission is
A.
B.
C.
D.
45.  One method of enhancing ones career as a health insurance professional is to acquire
A.
B.
C.
D.
46.  Those who work in healthcare say the most important reward is
A.
B.
C.
D.
47.  Career opportunities for health insurance professional include
A.
B.
C.
D.
48.  A shabby reception room at a healthcare office can suggest shabby care to a new patient
A.
B.
49.  Individuals today believe that their time is equally as valuable as the physicians
A.
B.
50.  To avoid negative reactions, some practices schedule new patients during their slowest times
A.
B.
51.  Walls in medical facilities that allow voices to carry to the next room is a HIPAA violation
A.
B.
52.  If medical professionals want patients to reveal personal information, they must make the patient feel their information will remain private and confidential
A.
B.
53.  Patients normally have a good idea of what their medical care and treatment should cost before they make an appointment
A.
B.
54.  When a new patient telephones for an appointment, giving the individual (over the phone) a range of what the initial fee will be is prohibited
A.
B.
55.  Over the next 30 years, the number of americans over 65 is expected to drop by 20%
A.
B.
56.  Individuals have found that the internet offers access to alot of relevant, quality healthcare information
A.
B.
57.  Experts suggest that todays patients should be considered "clients" rather than "patients"
A.
B.
58.  HIPAA is a federal law designed to protect the privacy of individuals health information
A.
B.
59.  Essentially, a HIPAA-covered entity can use or disclose protected health information for any purpose
A.
B.
60.  A patient cannot correct or amend their own medical record; it must be donw by the sttending physician
A.
B.
61.  Billing policies and practices can differ from one healthcare practice to another
A.
B.
62.  An assignment of benefits is an arrangement whereby a patient requests that their healthcare payment be made by another family member
A.
B.
63.  The healthcare facility staff should encourage patients to ask questions about their bills or payment/insurance process
A.
B.
64.  A disbursement journal is the most basic of journals and is a chronologic listing of transactions
A.
B.
65.  Most healthcare practices are computerized to some extent
A.
B.
66.  Computerized patient accounting typically begins with inputting demographic patient data
A.
B.
67.  Billing cycles for most medical practices are generally only performed once or twice a year
A.
B.
68.  Self-pay patients are referred to as "deadbeats" in most medical facilities
A.
B.
69.  The fair credit billing act tells the business entity what to do if a customer claims they made a mistake in their billing
A.
B.
70.  Collecting overdue accounts by phone is prohibited by law
A.
B.
71.  In order to utilize the small claims process, the pratice must retain an attorney
A.
B.
72.  Most collection agencies require at least 50% of the money they collect
A.
B.
73.  Healthcare providers and companies that sell insurance have determined it is less costly to prevent serious illnesses than to treat them after they emerge
A.
B.
74.  Justin ford kimball introduced a health plan in dallas in 1929 that evolved into what today is known as medicare
A.
B.
75.  Usually, there are no deductibles to be met or claim forms to be completed with HMOs
A.
B.
76.  An option for people who are unable to acquire healthcare coverage through their employers is purchasing a healthcare policy through private insurace carriers
A.
B.
77.  Under HIPAA, employees who quit their jobs or are laid off can extend their group healthcare coverage for up to 36 months
A.
B.
78.  One of the factors that drives up healthcare costs is the fact that americans are living longer than ever before
A.
B.
79.  Media coverage is instrumental in keeping healthcare costs down
A.
B.
80.  People need health insurance in order to protect themselves from possible financial ruin
A.
B.
81.  Medicare provides healthcare coverage for qualifying low-income individuals
A.
B.
82.  The two basic types of health insurance plans are indemnity and managed care
A.
B.
83.  The ability to effectively perform ones job without direct supervision is called autonomy
A.
B.
84.  Professional ethics are moral principles that are associated with a specific vocation
A.
B.
85.  Advancement opportunities as a health insurance professional are relatively limited
A.
B.
86.  Health insurance professionals who are also certified coders can expect higher wages
A.
B.
87.  The basic goal of health insurance professional is to ensure that providers and patients get paid correctly in a timely manner
A.
B.
88.  There are as many different insurance claim forms as there are insurance companies
A.
B.
89.  Certification is the culmination of a process of formal recognition of the competence possessed by an individual in a specific area
A.
B.
90.  One can typically expect to perform various duties when one becomes a health insurance professional
A.
B.
91.  The nationally recognized title for a health insurance professional is "insurance biller/coder."
A.
B.
92.  Computers have dramatically changed the face of health insurance
A.
B.
93.  Health insurance professionals are currently in high demand in the united states
A.
B.
94.  One of HIPAAs goals is to reduce the number of forms and methods of completing insurance claims
A.
B.
95.  Modifiers may affect
A.
B.
C.
D.
96.  Modifiers are used to indicate what type of information
A.
B.
C.
D.
97.  Modifier -57 decision for surger, is used on what type of service
A.
B.
C.
D.
98.  Modifier -79 unrelated procedure or service by the same physician during the postoperative period, is used on what type of service
A.
B.
C.
D.
99.  Modifier -51 multiple procedure, is used on what type of services
A.
B.
C.
D.
100.  Modifier -80, assistant surgeon, is used when
A.
B.
C.
D.
101.  Modifier -32 is used to indicate a service is mandated. which of the following is and example of when a service is "mandated"
A.
B.
C.
D.
102.  Modifier -25 significant, separately identifiable e/m service by the same physician on the same day of the procedure or other service, is used to report an e/m service that was
A.
B.
C.
D.
103.  Modifier -59, distinct procedure service, is used to indicate that
A.
B.
C.
D.
104.  Modifier -58, staged or realted procedure or service by the same physician during the postoperative period, is used to indicate
A.
B.
C.
D.
105.  Modifier -52, reduced services, is used to indicate
A.
B.
C.
D.
106.  The modifier "-AA" is an example of what type of modifier
A.
B.
C.
D.
107.  The multiple modifier is indicated with which modifier
A.
B.
C.
D.
108.  The modifier that indicates only the professional component of the service was provided is
A.
B.
C.
D.
109.  The modifier that indicates multiple procedures is
A.
B.
C.
D.
110.  _____________ lists some HCPCS modifiers in the CPT book
A.
B.
C.
D.
111.  What modifier would you use if you were coding only for the professional component of a diagnostic procedure
A.
B.
C.
D.
112.  Mr. coslett has multiple related surgeries performed during the same operative session. Which modifier would you use?
A.
B.
C.
D.
113.  What modifier would you use if you were coding only the technical component of a diagnostic procedure
A.
B.
C.
D.
114.  Modifier ___________ is used to indicate that services of an outside laboratory were used
A.
B.
C.
D.
115.   mr. jones is admitted to the hospital by the orthopedic surgeon for severe hip pain. the ortho surgeon provides an initial hospital visit during which it is determined that mr. jones has a fractured hip that will require surgical intervention. Mr. Johes is taken later that day to the OR where Dr. Ortho performs the surgical procedure to repair Mr. Jones' hip. Which modifier would you use for the hospital visit
A.
B.
C.
D.
116.  Mrs. roberts falls at work. she claims that she is alright, but her employers workers compensation policy requires that she see a physician to confirm she was not injured when she fell. the physician files a claim to the workers compensation carrier. which modifier would you use when reporting the physicians service to the patient
A.
B.
C.
D.
117.  Mrs. smith presented to her physicians office for an office visit for an upper respiratory infection. the physician examines the patient and prescribes antibiotics. the physician notices the patient has a suspicious looking mole. the physician examined the mole and determined that it should be removed. the mole was removed during the same office visit. the physician bills both an e/m code and a procedure code. which modifier would you use on the e/m code?
A.
B.
C.
D.
118.  There are various types of anesthesia and these include general, regional, local, or moderate sedation
A.
B.
119.  Local anesthesia is a type of anesthesia that provides a decreased level of consciousness
A.
B.
120.  Only one CPT procedure code may be represented by one anethesia code
A.
B.
121.  Anesthesia services include postoperative visits to the patient by the anesthesiologist
A.
B.
122.  Qualifying anesthesia circumstances are adjunct codes and are used when the administration of the anesthesia is more difficult
A.
B.
123.  When time is calculated for anesthesia services, the time begins when
A.
B.
C.
D.
124.  What type of nurse can administer anesthesia under the direction of an anesthesiologist
A.
B.
C.
D.
125.  Concurrent modifiers are used to describe
A.
B.
C.
D.
126.  99100 is an example of a
A.
B.
C.
D.
127.  In the anesthesia section of the CPT manual, the codes are usually divided first by which of the following
A.
B.
C.
D.
128.  What is the type of sedation that allows a procedure to be performed without pain to the patient, but the patient is not completely asleep
A.
B.
C.
D.
129.  The society that published the Relative Value Guide for anesthesia services is the
A.
B.
C.
D.
130.  The anesthesia formula is
A.
B.
C.
D.
131.  Which codes begin with the number 99 and are used to indicate anesthesia services provided during situations that make the administration of the anesthesia more difficult
A.
B.
C.
D.
132.  The anesthesia status modifier that indicates the patients condition at the time anesthesia was administered is
A.
B.
C.
D.
133.  The modifier "-AA" is and example of what type of modifier
A.
B.
C.
D.
134.  __________ of the CPT manual lists some HCPCS modifiers
A.
B.
C.
D.
135.  Physical status modifier P3 indicates a patient with __________ systemic disease
136.  Codes for qualifying circumstances are located in both the anesthesia guidelines and the ____________ section of the CPT manual
137.  The NSAID of choice for a postoperative patient who does not yet have returned bowel sounds would be which of the following
A.
B.
C.
D.
138.  A patient who is taking warfain (coumadin) might safely be prescribed which of the following NSAIDs
A.
B.
C.
D.
139.  COX-2 inhibitors such as celecoxib (celebrex) differ from other NSAIDs in which of the following ways
A.
B.
C.
D.
140.  Prostaglandins are produced in which of the following body tissues
A.
B.
C.
D.
141.  The oldest and most common NSAID is which of the following
A.
B.
C.
D.
142.  Prostaglandin E2 may be used for which of the following effects
A.
B.
C.
D.
143.  Prostaglandin E1 is used in infants for which of the following reasons
A.
B.
C.
D.
144.  The most commonly prescrived medications for the relief of mild pain are members of which category
A.
B.
C.
D.
145.  Used in combination with analgesics, medications such as tricyclic antidepressants, benzodiazepines, antiepilecptic durgs, and local anesthetics may be used for what purpose
A.
B.
C.
D.
146.  Many patients who have depression also have which of the following conditions
A.
B.
C.
D.
147.  Nonmalignant chronic pain may be which types of phenomena
A.
B.
C.
D.
148.  Current practices in pain management tend toward which of the following
A.
B.
C.
D.
149.  Which of the following would be a good treatment option for mild chronic pain
A.
B.
C.
D.
150.  Which of the following can be given either parenterally or orally
A.
B.
C.
D.
151.  The amount of oral codeine equal to 10 mg of morphine IM is
A.
B.
C.
D.
152.  One possible result of undertreating pain might be which of the following
A.
B.
C.
D.
153.  How might capsaicin (zostrix) be used in the relief of pain
A.
B.
C.
D.
154.  Which of the following classes of antidepressants is useful in pain management
A.
B.
C.
D.
155.  Which of the following might be effectively used in combination with other treatments to reduce edema in tumor and nervous tissue and bring about pain relief
A.
B.
C.
D.
156.  Tolerance to a drug occurs when which of the following happens
A.
B.
C.
D.
157.  Which of the following statesments best described withdrawal from a narcotic
A.
B.
C.
D.
158.  A diabetic patient who is taking oral hypoglycemic agents is started on metronidazole (flagyl) for an infection. the nurse will include which of the follwoing in instructions regarding the prescription
A.
B.
C.
D.
159.  Of the 25,000 accidental deaths of adolescents yearly, what percentage is alcohol-related
A.
B.
C.
D.
160.  Which of the following are signs of possible drug involvement among adolescents
A.
B.
C.
D.
161.  Medical use of marijuana is thought to have some indication in which of the following
A.
B.
C.
D.
162.  A patient taking disulfiram (antabuse) for maintenance of sobriety is unlikely to have a reaction to which of the following
A.
B.
C.
D.
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