Integumentary Practice Exam Part 1 - A & P Zoo 172 For Exam 1

100 Questions  I  By Shelleyr
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Integumentary System Quizzes & Trivia
This is a part one of a practice exam for the first Exam in Zoology 172 A & P for Nursing School at Miami University. This covers integumentary system and some skeletal system.

  
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  • 1. 
    What is the largest organ in the human body?
    • A. 

      Skeleton

    • B. 

      Liver

    • C. 

      Heart

    • D. 

      Integument

    • E. 

      Large intestines


  • 2. 
    Skin has how many tissue layers?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      1


  • 3. 
    What disease is known as "the great imitator?"
    • A. 

      Hodgekin's Disease

    • B. 

      Melanoma

    • C. 

      Lyme Disease

    • D. 

      Shingles


  • 4. 
    The epidermis is made up of _____ layers.
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      3

    • E. 

      6


  • 5. 
    The deepest layer of the epidermis is the __________.
    • A. 

      Stratum granulosum

    • B. 

      Stratum spinosum

    • C. 

      Stratum basale

    • D. 

      Stratum corneum


  • 6. 
    The dermis is avascular?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 7. 
    The process whereby skin cells die and harden is called____________.
    • A. 

      Granulosum

    • B. 

      Carcenoma

    • C. 

      Keratinization

    • D. 

      Transformation


  • 8. 
    Brownish/black hair has more ______________.
    • A. 

      Melanin

    • B. 

      Eumelanin

    • C. 

      Pheomelanin


  • 9. 
    The tension resisting layer of the epidermis that is called the prickly layer is __________.
    • A. 

      Stratum corneum

    • B. 

      Stratum lucidum

    • C. 

      Stratum basale

    • D. 

      Stratum spinosum


  • 10. 
    Langerhan's cells are found in the _____________ layer of the epidermis.
    • A. 

      Stratum corneum

    • B. 

      Stratum lucidum

    • C. 

      Stratum spinosum

    • D. 

      Stratum granulosum


  • 11. 
    The specialized cells in the stratum basale  for light touch sensation are ________.
    • A. 

      Merkle cells

    • B. 

      Pacinian corpuscles

    • C. 

      Meissner's corpuscles


  • 12. 
    Stratum granulosum is the epidermal layer that provides waterproofing.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 13. 
    Which layer of the epidermis can only be found in thick skin which is only found on the palms of the hand and soles of the feet?
    • A. 

      Stratum corneum

    • B. 

      Stratum lucidum

    • C. 

      Stratum granulosum

    • D. 

      Stratum basale


  • 14. 
    The papillary layer is in the____________.
    • A. 

      Dermis

    • B. 

      Epidermis


  • 15. 
    The nerve endings found in the dermal papillae and are for light touch are the ____________.
    • A. 

      Merkle cells

    • B. 

      Pacinian corpuscles

    • C. 

      Meissner's corpuscles


  • 16. 
    The outer layer of epidermis is the __________.
    • A. 

      Stratum granulosum

    • B. 

      Stratum basale

    • C. 

      Stratum corneum

    • D. 

      Stratum spinosum


  • 17. 
    Melanoma is a type of ______________.
    • A. 

      Skin cancer

    • B. 

      Touch sensor

    • C. 

      Pigment in the skin

    • D. 

      Rock band


  • 18. 
    The subcutaneous layer is also called the ____________.
    • A. 

      Deep layer

    • B. 

      Endermis

    • C. 

      Hypodermis

    • D. 

      Reticular layer


  • 19. 
    The ___________ glands project into the hair follicles.
    • A. 

      Eccrine

    • B. 

      Apocrine

    • C. 

      Sebaceous

    • D. 

      Sudoriferous

    • E. 

      Ceruminous


  • 20. 
    Sweat glands are also called ______________ glands.
    • A. 

      Ceruminous

    • B. 

      Merocrine

    • C. 

      Sebaceous

    • D. 

      Sudoriferous


  • 21. 
    ________ glands secrete ear wax.
    • A. 

      Eccrine

    • B. 

      Apocrine

    • C. 

      Sebaceous

    • D. 

      Sudoriferous

    • E. 

      Ceruminous


  • 22. 
    ___________ glands are responsible for the odor in sweat due to bacteria metabolizing its secretions.
    • A. 

      Eccerine

    • B. 

      Apocrine

    • C. 

      Sebaceous

    • D. 

      Merocrine

    • E. 

      Ceruminous


  • 23. 
    Sebaceous glands produce an oily substance called _________.
    • A. 

      Serum

    • B. 

      Sebum

    • C. 

      Sirrus

    • D. 

      Merocrine


  • 24. 
    The smooth muscles that pull the hair follice to an erect position are the __________.
    • A. 

      Tensor facaie

    • B. 

      Arrector pili

    • C. 

      Levatator scapulum

    • D. 

      Levator labii


  • 25. 
    The hair shaft is made up of __________.
    • A. 

      Melanin

    • B. 

      Dead keratinocytes

    • C. 

      Apocrine

    • D. 

      Dead leukocytes


  • 26. 
    The hair follicle is part of the __________.
    • A. 

      Dermis

    • B. 

      Epidermis


  • 27. 
    At the base of the nail plate is a whitish, thickened, "half-moon shaped" area called the _______.
    • A. 

      Nail bed

    • B. 

      Nail root

    • C. 

      Lunula

    • D. 

      Cuticle


  • 28. 
    Heat is carried away from the body by all of these methods EXCEPT __________.
    • A. 

      Radiation

    • B. 

      Conduction

    • C. 

      Convection

    • D. 

      Dehydration

    • E. 

      Evaporation


  • 29. 
    When heat is lost through contact with a substance with a lower temperature this is called_____.
    • A. 

      Radiation

    • B. 

      Conduction

    • C. 

      Convection

    • D. 

      Dehydration

    • E. 

      Evaporation


  • 30. 
    When heat is lost by being carried away by sweat this is called_______.
    • A. 

      Radiation

    • B. 

      Conduction

    • C. 

      Convection

    • D. 

      Dehydration

    • E. 

      Evaporation


  • 31. 
    When heat is lost by dissipation from the body to the environment this is called ______.
    • A. 

      Radiation

    • B. 

      Conduction

    • C. 

      Convection

    • D. 

      Dehydration

    • E. 

      Evaporation


  • 32. 
    When heat is lost  due to heated air rising and cooler air replacing it this is called ________.
    • A. 

      Radiation

    • B. 

      Conduction

    • C. 

      Convection

    • D. 

      Dehydration

    • E. 

      Evaporation


  • 33. 
    Heat is conserved by all of the following EXCEPT _________.
    • A. 

      Contraction of the arrector pili

    • B. 

      Sweating

    • C. 

      Shivering

    • D. 

      Vasoconstriction


  • 34. 
    When the body's core temperature is over heated this is called_________.
    • A. 

      Hyperthermia

    • B. 

      Hyopthermia


  • 35. 
    Hyperthermia is a __________ loop.
    • A. 

      Positive feedback

    • B. 

      Negative feedback


  • 36. 
    The skin can appear orangish due to ___________.
    • A. 

      Jaundice

    • B. 

      Ingested carrots

    • C. 

      A bad spray tan


  • 37. 
    The skin can appear yellowish along with the sclera of the eye due to ___________.
    • A. 

      Jaundice

    • B. 

      Ingested carrots

    • C. 

      A really bad spray tan


  • 38. 
    Superficial cuts usually leave a scar.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 39. 
    As deep wounds begin to heal, they form a white, foam-like substance.  This is pus and you should wash this off to let the wound air out.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 40. 
    A second degree burn is classified as a full thickness burn.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 41. 
    A sunburn is an example of a _____ degree burn.
    • A. 

      First

    • B. 

      Second

    • C. 

      Third


  • 42. 
    Burns that may not be painful due to sensory nerves having been destroyed are found in a _______ degree burn.
    • A. 

      First

    • B. 

      Second

    • C. 

      Third


  • 43. 
    Blistering is associated with _______ degree burns.
    • A. 

      First

    • B. 

      Second

    • C. 

      Third


  • 44. 
    According to the rule of nines, someone with a burn with blisters over the entire anterior torso and down the anterior right lower extremity would have.
    • A. 

      Third degree burns of 18% of body.

    • B. 

      Second degree burns over 18% of body.

    • C. 

      Second degree burns over 27% of body.

    • D. 

      Third degree burns over 27% of body.


  • 45. 
    An example of a long bone is the __________.
    • A. 

      Femur

    • B. 

      Illium

    • C. 

      Spine

    • D. 

      Talus


  • 46. 
    The bones of the skull are considered___________.
    • A. 

      Sesamoid bones

    • B. 

      Long bones

    • C. 

      Irregular bones

    • D. 

      Flat bones

    • E. 

      Short bones


  • 47. 
    The bones of the wrists and ankles are considered _________.
    • A. 

      Sesamoid bones

    • B. 

      Long bones

    • C. 

      Irregular bones

    • D. 

      Flat bones

    • E. 

      Short bones


  • 48. 
    The vertebrae are considered ___________.
    • A. 

      Sesamoid bones

    • B. 

      Long bones

    • C. 

      Irregular bones

    • D. 

      Flat bones

    • E. 

      Short bones


  • 49. 
    The patella is considered a/an _________.
    • A. 

      Sesamoid bone

    • B. 

      Long bone

    • C. 

      Irregular bone

    • D. 

      Flat bone

    • E. 

      Short bone


  • 50. 
    The humerus is considered a ___________.
    • A. 

      Sesamoid bone

    • B. 

      Long bone

    • C. 

      Irregular bone

    • D. 

      Flat bone

    • E. 

      Short bone


  • 51. 
    The expanded portion at either end of a long bone is called the _________.
    • A. 

      Periosteum

    • B. 

      Epiphysis

    • C. 

      Diaphysis

    • D. 

      Osteon


  • 52. 
    The articulating surface of a long bone is coated with a layer of hyaline cartilage, called articular cartilage.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 53. 
    The shaft of the long bone is also called the ________.
    • A. 

      Periosteum

    • B. 

      Epiphysis

    • C. 

      Diaphysis

    • D. 

      Osteon


  • 54. 
    The _________ is the hollow chamber within the diaphysis of a long bone.
    • A. 

      Medullary cavity

    • B. 

      Trabeculae

    • C. 

      Osteon

    • D. 

      Epiphysis


  • 55. 
    Spongy bone is found within the ___________.
    • A. 

      Medullary cavity

    • B. 

      Endosteum

    • C. 

      Epiphysis

    • D. 

      Diaphysis


  • 56. 
    The osteon is also called the _________.
    • A. 

      Medullary cavity

    • B. 

      Haversian system

    • C. 

      Langerhan's cell

    • D. 

      Volkmann's canal


  • 57. 
    The __________ encases the entire bone except for the articular cartilage.
    • A. 

      Endosteum

    • B. 

      Periosteum

    • C. 

      Epiosteum

    • D. 

      Beginosteum


  • 58. 
    The _________ contains bone-forming cells that line the inside of bones.
    • A. 

      Endosteum

    • B. 

      Periosteum

    • C. 

      Osteon

    • D. 

      Osteocyte


  • 59. 
    Trabeculae are found in cancellous bone which is also called _________.
    • A. 

      Compact bone

    • B. 

      Spongy bone

    • C. 

      Short bone

    • D. 

      Irregular bone


  • 60. 
    Canals that travel in a transverse direction and connect one central canal to another are called perforating, or _____________ canals.
    • A. 

      Haversian

    • B. 

      Trabeculae

    • C. 

      Volkmann's

    • D. 

      Erie


  • 61. 
    The structural unit of compact bone is the _________, or Haversian system.
    • A. 

      Endosteum

    • B. 

      Osteon

    • C. 

      Osteocyte

    • D. 

      Epiphysis


  • 62. 
    Osteocytes are located in ___________.
    • A. 

      Osteoblasts

    • B. 

      Epiphyseal plates

    • C. 

      Lacunae

    • D. 

      Lunula


  • 63. 
    The flat bones of the skull and ribs are ___________.
    • A. 

      Intramembranous bones

    • B. 

      Endochondral bones


  • 64. 
    Most of the bones in the body, except for skull and rib bones, are ____________.
    • A. 

      Intramembranous bones.

    • B. 

      Endochondral bones.


  • 65. 
    Most bones start out as cartilage and convert into bone in a process known as endochondral ossification.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 66. 
    The layer of the epiphyseal plate that is closest to the end of the bone is composed of __________.
    • A. 

      Resting cells (chondrocytes).

    • B. 

      Chondrocytes undergoing mitosis.

    • C. 

      Dead cells and calcified matrix.

    • D. 

      Cells that are enlarging and becoming calcified.


  • 67. 
    The layer in the epiphyseal plate where the bone actually lengthens is the ______ layer.
    • A. 

      First

    • B. 

      Second

    • C. 

      Third

    • D. 

      Fourth


  • 68. 
    ___________ invade the fourth layer of the epiphyseal plate and secrete an acid that dissolves the inorganic component of the calcified matrix to make way for bone tissue.
    • A. 

      Osteoclasts

    • B. 

      Osteoblasts

    • C. 

      Osteocytes


  • 69. 
    In compact bone, the _________ deposit matrix and form osteons.
    • A. 

      Osteoblasts

    • B. 

      Osteoclasts

    • C. 

      Osteocytes


  • 70. 
    The "primary ossification center" is at the center of the __________.
    • A. 

      Osteon

    • B. 

      Diaphysis

    • C. 

      Epiphysis

    • D. 

      Osteocyte


  • 71. 
    An increase in the width, or diameter of bones is called __________.
    • A. 

      Oppositional growth

    • B. 

      Matrix growth

    • C. 

      Appositional growth

    • D. 

      Interstitial growth


  • 72. 
    An increase in the length of bones is called __________.
    • A. 

      Oppositional growth

    • B. 

      Matrix growth

    • C. 

      Appositional growth

    • D. 

      Interstitial growth


  • 73. 
    ___________ deposit bone matrix.
    • A. 

      Osteoblasts

    • B. 

      Osteoclasts

    • C. 

      Osteocytes


  • 74. 
    _________ break down calcified matrix.
    • A. 

      Osteoblasts

    • B. 

      Osteoclasts

    • C. 

      Osteocytes


  • 75. 
    __________ lower blood calcium levels.
    • A. 

      Osteoblasts

    • B. 

      Osteoclasts

    • C. 

      Osteocytes


  • 76. 
    _________ are stimulated by GH which stimulates the release of thyroxine.
    • A. 

      Osteoblasts

    • B. 

      Osteoclasts

    • C. 

      Osteocytes


  • 77. 
    ___________ are stimulated by parathyroid hormone (PTH).
    • A. 

      Osteoblasts

    • B. 

      Osteoclasts

    • C. 

      Osteocytes


  • 78. 
    Vitamin _____ and GH (growth hormone) are required for collagen formation for the bone matrix framework.
    • A. 

      D

    • B. 

      K

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      B


  • 79. 
    In childhood, Vitamin D deficiency can result in __________.
    • A. 

      Osteomalacia

    • B. 

      Rickets

    • C. 

      Acromegaly

    • D. 

      Fractures


  • 80. 
    Too much GH after epiphyseal plate ossification can result in ________.
    • A. 

      Osteomalacia

    • B. 

      Rickets

    • C. 

      Acromegaly

    • D. 

      Fractures


  • 81. 
    When the bone is fractured on one side, while the other side bends (an incomplete fracture) this is called a __________fracture.
    • A. 

      Greenstick

    • B. 

      Fissured

    • C. 

      Comminuted

    • D. 

      Transverse

    • E. 

      Compression


  • 82. 
    When the bone is fractured by a twisting motion it is called a _______ fracture.
    • A. 

      Greenstick

    • B. 

      Spiral

    • C. 

      Oblique

    • D. 

      Avulsion

    • E. 

      Compound


  • 83. 
    A fracture in which the bone is actually crushed into itself is called a _________ fracture.
    • A. 

      Transverse

    • B. 

      Seat belt

    • C. 

      Avulsion

    • D. 

      Compression

    • E. 

      Oblique


  • 84. 
    A fracture in which a ligament pulls the part of the bone to which it is attached away from the main bone mass is called a ___________ fracture.
    • A. 

      Compression

    • B. 

      Transverse

    • C. 

      Avulsion

    • D. 

      Greenstick

    • E. 

      Spiral


  • 85. 
    When the bone is fractured ACROSS its longitudinal axis (a complete fracture) it is called a _________ fracture.
    • A. 

      Transverse

    • B. 

      Oblique

    • C. 

      Spiral

    • D. 

      Compression

    • E. 

      Compound


  • 86. 
    All of these are steps in bone repair EXCEPT __________.
    • A. 

      Formation of a hematoma at the break site

    • B. 

      A bandaid is formed at the break site

    • C. 

      Fibrocartilage and spongy bone form at the break site

    • D. 

      Bony callus replaces fibrocartilage

    • E. 

      Osteoclasts remove excess bony tissue


  • 87. 
    Bones function to do many things.  Which thing does bone NOT do.
    • A. 

      Give the body shape

    • B. 

      Provide mineral storage

    • C. 

      Perform hematopoiesis

    • D. 

      Make Vitamin K

    • E. 

      Act as levers to provide movement


  • 88. 
    Blood cell formation is called ___________.
    • A. 

      Hemodialysis

    • B. 

      Hematopoiesis

    • C. 

      Hemolytic reaction

    • D. 

      Hematocrit


  • 89. 
    Thrombocytes are ___________.
    • A. 

      Red blood cells

    • B. 

      White blood cells

    • C. 

      Platelets

    • D. 

      Organic salts

    • E. 

      Inorganic salts


  • 90. 
    Inorganic salts stored in the bone matrix are a form of calcium phosphate called __________.
    • A. 

      Hydroxycut

    • B. 

      Hydroxyapatite

    • C. 

      Hydroxyide

    • D. 

      Hydroxium


  • 91. 
    65 to 70% of bone is made up of ____________.
    • A. 

      Inorganic salts

    • B. 

      Organic components

    • C. 

      Collagen fibers

    • D. 

      Osteoclasts


  • 92. 
    Organic components of bone include all of the following EXCEPT ____________.
    • A. 

      Osteoid

    • B. 

      Cellular components

    • C. 

      Collagen fibers

    • D. 

      Hydroxyapatite

    • E. 

      Glycoproteins


  • 93. 
    The axial skeleton contains all of the following EXCEPT ___________.
    • A. 

      Skull

    • B. 

      Hyoid bone

    • C. 

      Vertebral column

    • D. 

      Pectoral girdle

    • E. 

      Thoracic cage


  • 94. 
    The appendicular skeleton contains all of the following EXCEPT ____________.
    • A. 

      Pectoral girdle

    • B. 

      Upper limbs

    • C. 

      Hyoid bone

    • D. 

      Pelvic girdle

    • E. 

      Lower limbs


  • 95. 
    The occipital bone is part of the _________ bones.
    • A. 

      Skull

    • B. 

      Facial

    • C. 

      Vertebral


  • 96. 
    The femur can be found in the _________ skeleton.
    • A. 

      Axial

    • B. 

      Appendicular


  • 97. 
    The suture that joins the temporal bones to the parietal bones is called the __________.
    • A. 

      Lambdoid suture

    • B. 

      Sagittal suture

    • C. 

      Coronal suture

    • D. 

      Squamous suture


  • 98. 
    The suture that joins the occipital bone to the parietal bones is called the ___________.
    • A. 

      Lambdoid suture

    • B. 

      Sagittal suture

    • C. 

      Coronal suture

    • D. 

      Squamous suture


  • 99. 
    The suture that joins the frontal bone to the parietal bones is called the __________.
    • A. 

      Lambdoid suture

    • B. 

      Sagittal suture

    • C. 

      Coronal suture

    • D. 

      Squamous suture


  • 100. 
    The suture that separates the parietal bones is called the ____________.
    • A. 

      Lambdoid suture

    • B. 

      Sagittal suture

    • C. 

      Coronal suture

    • D. 

      Squamous suture


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