Phlebotomy Test - 100
In this quiz, we’ll be turning our attention to the medical process known as “phlebotomy”, which is when an incision is made in a vein using a needle. Do you know why this is done? Let’s find out!
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which of the following infectious disease services is not offered through regional public health services agencies?
- A.
Education
- B.
Monitoring
- C.
Screening
- D.
Treatment
Correct Answer
D. TreatmentExplanation
Regional public health services agencies typically focus on preventive measures such as education, monitoring, and screening to control the spread of infectious diseases. However, the provision of treatment is usually not within their scope. Treatment of infectious diseases is usually provided by healthcare facilities such as hospitals, clinics, and specialized treatment centers. Regional public health services agencies primarily play a role in prevention, surveillance, and coordination of public health efforts.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which one of the following should not be and example of a barrier to effective communication with a patient. the patient
- A.
Does not speak english
- B.
Is a very young child
- C.
Is emotionally upset
- D.
Is mature male HCW
Correct Answer
D. Is mature male HCWExplanation
The mature male healthcare worker (HCW) should not be considered an example of a barrier to effective communication with a patient. This is because the gender, age, or professional background of the HCW does not necessarily hinder communication. Effective communication can still be achieved regardless of these factors. On the other hand, language barriers, young age, and emotional distress can all potentially impede communication between a patient and healthcare provider.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following is an example of negative kinesics?
- A.
Eye contact
- B.
Frowning
- C.
Good grooming
- D.
Smiling
Correct Answer
B. FrowningExplanation
Frowning is an example of negative kinesics because it is a facial expression that typically indicates displeasure, worry, or confusion. It is often associated with negative emotions and can convey a lack of approval or disagreement. Unlike the other options, such as eye contact, good grooming, and smiling, which can have positive connotations, frowning is a clear example of negative body language.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Promoting food public relations is a part of the phlebotomist's role for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
- A.
A phlebotomist is a representative of the laboratory
- B.
Good public relations promotes harmonious relationships
- C.
Patients equate experiences with overall caliber of care received
- D.
Skilled public relations can cover up inexperience and insecurity
Correct Answer
D. Skilled public relations can cover up inexperience and insecurityExplanation
Promoting food public relations is a part of the phlebotomist's role for all of the given reasons except for the fact that skilled public relations can cover up inexperience and insecurity. This means that promoting food public relations does not serve the purpose of hiding or compensating for any lack of experience or insecurity that a phlebotomist may have. Instead, promoting good public relations helps to establish a positive image for the phlebotomist, as they are representatives of the laboratory, and it also contributes to maintaining harmonious relationships with patients, as their experiences with the phlebotomist can impact their perception of the overall quality of care they receive.Rate this question:
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- 5.
All of the following are reasons for phlebotomist to participate in continuing education programs EXCEPT
- A.
Eliminate annual evaluations
- B.
Learn new skills and techniques
- C.
Renew licensure or certification
- D.
Stay up to date in latest procedures
Correct Answer
A. Eliminate annual evaluationsExplanation
Phlebotomists participate in continuing education programs to learn new skills and techniques, renew licensure or certification, and stay up to date in the latest procedures. However, eliminating annual evaluations is not a reason for them to participate in these programs. Evaluations are typically conducted to assess job performance and provide feedback for improvement, which is separate from the purpose of continuing education programs.Rate this question:
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- 6.
An indibidual who has little resistance to an infectious microbe is referred to as a susceptible
- A.
Agent
- B.
Host
- C.
Pathway
- D.
Reservoir
Correct Answer
B. HostExplanation
An individual who has little resistance to an infectious microbe is referred to as a host. The host is the organism that provides an environment for the infectious microbe to live and reproduce. In this context, the individual is susceptible to the microbe because their immune system is not able to effectively defend against it. The term "host" is commonly used in the field of epidemiology to describe the organism that can be infected by a pathogen.Rate this question:
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- 7.
MSDS information includes
- A.
General and emergency information
- B.
Highly technical chemical formulas
- C.
Information on competitor products
- D.
Product manufacturing conditions
Correct Answer
A. General and emergency informationExplanation
MSDS stands for Material Safety Data Sheet, which is a document that provides important information about hazardous substances or chemicals. It includes general information about the product, such as its name, manufacturer, and intended use. Additionally, it provides emergency information, such as first aid measures and procedures to follow in case of accidental exposure or spillage. The MSDS does not typically include highly technical chemical formulas or information on competitor products or product manufacturing conditions.Rate this question:
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- 8.
A person who has recovered from a particular virus and has developed antibodies against that virus is said to be
- A.
A carrier
- B.
Immune
- C.
Infectious
- D.
Susceptible
Correct Answer
B. ImmuneExplanation
A person who has recovered from a particular virus and has developed antibodies against that virus is said to be immune. This means that their body has built up a defense mechanism to fight off the virus, making them less likely to become infected again. Being immune provides protection against the virus and reduces the risk of spreading it to others.Rate this question:
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- 9.
All pathogens are
- A.
Communicable microorganisms
- B.
Microbes that can cause disease
- C.
Microorganisms that live in soil
- D.
Normal flora found on the skin
Correct Answer
B. Microbes that can cause diseaseExplanation
The correct answer is "microbes that can cause disease." Pathogens are microorganisms that are capable of causing diseases in their hosts. They can be bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites. These microorganisms have the ability to invade and multiply within the host's body, leading to the development of various illnesses and infections. It is important to note that not all microbes are pathogens, as there are many beneficial microorganisms that live in and on our bodies without causing harm.Rate this question:
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- 10.
These are the initials of the two organizations responsible for the latest guideline for isolation precautions in hospitals
- A.
CDC and HICPAC
- B.
CLSI and OSHA
- C.
HICPAC and NIOSH
- D.
NIOSH and OSHA
Correct Answer
A. CDC and HICPACExplanation
The initials CDC and HICPAC stand for the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the Healthcare Infection Control Practices Advisory Committee (HICPAC). These two organizations are responsible for providing guidelines and recommendations for isolation precautions in hospitals. The CDC is a federal agency that aims to protect public health and safety, while HICPAC is a committee that provides evidence-based guidance on infection control practices. Together, they collaborate to develop and update guidelines to prevent the spread of infections in healthcare settings.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The primary purpose of wearing gloves during phlebotomy procedures is to protect the
- A.
Patient from contamination by the phlebotomist
- B.
Phlebotomist from exposure to the patients blood
- C.
Specimen from contamination by the phlebotomist
- D.
Venipuncture site from contamination by the hands
Correct Answer
B. Phlebotomist from exposure to the patients bloodExplanation
The correct answer is "phlebotomist from exposure to the patients blood." Wearing gloves during phlebotomy procedures is essential to protect the phlebotomist from potential exposure to the patient's blood. This is crucial to prevent the transmission of any infectious diseases or contaminants that may be present in the patient's blood. Gloves act as a barrier between the phlebotomist's hands and the patient's blood, reducing the risk of cross-contamination and ensuring the safety of both the phlebotomist and the patient.Rate this question:
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- 12.
This equipment is required when collecting a specimen from a patient in airborne isolation
- A.
Eye protection
- B.
Full face shield
- C.
Mask and goggles
- D.
N95 respirator
Correct Answer
D. N95 respiratorExplanation
The N95 respirator is required when collecting a specimen from a patient in airborne isolation because it provides a high level of filtration and protection against airborne particles. It is designed to filter out at least 95% of airborne particles, including small respiratory droplets that may contain infectious agents. This helps to prevent the healthcare worker from inhaling any potential pathogens and reduces the risk of transmission. Other options like eye protection, full face shield, and mask and goggles may provide some level of protection but may not offer the same level of filtration and fit as the N95 respirator.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which of the following is an example of a work practice control that reduces risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens?
- A.
Ordering self sheathing needles
- B.
Reading the exposure control plan
- C.
Receiving an HBV vaccination
- D.
Wearing gloves to draw blood
Correct Answer
D. Wearing gloves to draw bloodExplanation
Wearing gloves to draw blood is an example of a work practice control that reduces the risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens. Gloves act as a barrier between the healthcare worker's hands and the patient's blood, preventing direct contact and potential transmission of pathogens. By following this practice, the healthcare worker minimizes the chances of infection and promotes a safer working environment.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following statements complies with electrical safety guidelines
- A.
Electrical equipment should be unplugged while being serviced
- B.
Extension cords should be used to conveniently place equipment
- C.
It is safe to use an electrical cord if it is only slightly frayed
- D.
Use electrical equipment carefully if it is starting to malfuntion
Correct Answer
A. Electrical equipment should be unplugged while being servicedExplanation
The correct answer is "electrical equipment should be unplugged while being serviced." This statement complies with electrical safety guidelines because it emphasizes the importance of unplugging equipment before performing any maintenance or repairs. This precaution ensures that there is no risk of electric shock or other accidents while working on the equipment. By unplugging the equipment, it eliminates the possibility of accidental activation or contact with live electrical components, promoting a safer working environment.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The right to know law primarily deals with a electrical safety issues
- A.
Electrical safety issues
- B.
Exposure to pathogens
- C.
Hazard communication
- D.
Labeling of specimens
Correct Answer
C. Hazard communicationExplanation
The right to know law primarily deals with hazard communication. This means that the law focuses on ensuring that individuals are informed about the potential hazards associated with certain substances or materials. It requires employers to provide information about the hazardous chemicals present in the workplace, including labels, safety data sheets, and employee training. This helps to protect workers and allows them to take appropriate safety measures to prevent accidents or health risks.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Blood vessels of the skin are found only in the
- A.
Corium and subcutaneous
- B.
Dermis and germinativum
- C.
Epidermis and adipose layer
- D.
Germinativum and corneum
Correct Answer
A. Corium and subcutaneousExplanation
The blood vessels of the skin are found in the corium and subcutaneous layers. The corium, also known as the dermis, is the middle layer of the skin and contains a network of blood vessels that supply oxygen and nutrients to the skin cells. The subcutaneous layer, also called the hypodermis, is the deepest layer of the skin and contains larger blood vessels that help regulate body temperature. Together, these layers provide the necessary blood supply to the skin for its proper functioning.Rate this question:
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- 17.
The ability of oxygen to combine with this substance in the red blood cells increases the amount of oxygen that can be carried in the blood by up to 70 times
- A.
Carbon dioxide
- B.
Glucose
- C.
Hemoglobin
- D.
Potassium
Correct Answer
C. HemoglobinExplanation
Hemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells that is responsible for carrying oxygen throughout the body. It has a unique structure that allows it to bind with oxygen molecules, forming a reversible complex. This ability of hemoglobin to combine with oxygen greatly enhances the amount of oxygen that can be transported in the blood. In fact, hemoglobin can increase the carrying capacity of oxygen by up to 70 times. This ensures that oxygen is efficiently delivered to the body's tissues and organs, supporting their proper functioning.Rate this question:
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- 18.
A persons pulse is created by a wave of pressure caused by
- A.
Atrial contraction
- B.
Atrial relaxation
- C.
Ventricular contraction
- D.
Ventricular relaxation
Correct Answer
C. Ventricular contractionExplanation
The correct answer is ventricular contraction. The pulse is created when the heart's ventricles contract, forcing blood into the arteries and creating a wave of pressure. This wave of pressure can be felt as a pulse in various parts of the body, such as the wrist or neck. Atrial contraction and relaxation also play a role in the heartbeat, but the main force behind the pulse is the ventricular contraction.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The tunica adventitia is the
- A.
External layer of a blood vessel
- B.
Inside lining of a blood vessel
- C.
Internal layer of a blood vessel
- D.
Middle layer of a blood vessel
Correct Answer
A. External layer of a blood vesselExplanation
The tunica adventitia refers to the external layer of a blood vessel. This layer is composed of connective tissue and provides support and protection to the blood vessel. It helps to anchor the vessel to surrounding tissues and organs. The tunica adventitia is thicker in larger blood vessels, such as arteries, compared to smaller vessels like capillaries.Rate this question:
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- 20.
All of the following are antecubital veins except
- A.
Accessory cephlic
- B.
Median basilic
- C.
Median basilic
- D.
Subclavian
Correct Answer
D. SubclavianExplanation
The subclavian vein is not located in the antecubital region of the arm, which is the area in front of the elbow. The other three options, accessory cephalic, median basilic, and median basilic, are all veins that can be found in the antecubital region. Therefore, the subclavian vein is the correct answer as it does not belong to the group of antecubital veins.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which of the following are normally the most numerous of the formed elements
- A.
Platelets
- B.
Red blood cells
- C.
Reticulocytes
- D.
White blood cells
Correct Answer
B. Red blood cellsExplanation
Red blood cells, also known as erythrocytes, are normally the most numerous of the formed elements in the blood. They are responsible for carrying oxygen to the body's tissues and removing carbon dioxide. Red blood cells have a unique biconcave shape which allows for a larger surface area for gas exchange. They are produced in the bone marrow and have a lifespan of about 120 days before being broken down and recycled by the body.Rate this question:
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- 22.
This ion is essential to the coagulation process
- A.
Calcium
- B.
Chloride
- C.
Potassium
- D.
Sodium
Correct Answer
A. CalciumExplanation
Calcium is essential to the coagulation process because it plays a key role in the activation of several blood clotting factors. It is required for the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin, which is necessary for the formation of a stable blood clot. Calcium also helps in the activation of factor XIII, which strengthens the clot and prevents bleeding. Without sufficient calcium, the coagulation process would be impaired, leading to difficulties in clot formation and increased risk of bleeding.Rate this question:
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- 23.
A major cause of respiratory distress in infants and young children is
- A.
Airway blockage associated with emphysema
- B.
Dyspnea as a consequence of cystic fibrosis
- C.
Infection with myobacterium tuberculosis
- D.
Respiratory syncytial birus (RSV)infection
Correct Answer
D. Respiratory syncytial birus (RSV)infectionExplanation
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infection is a major cause of respiratory distress in infants and young children. RSV is a common virus that affects the respiratory tract, causing symptoms such as coughing, wheezing, and difficulty breathing. It is highly contagious and spreads easily through respiratory droplets. RSV can lead to bronchiolitis, inflammation of the small airways in the lungs, which can result in airway blockage and respiratory distress. This is why RSV infection is considered a significant cause of respiratory distress in infants and young children.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which of the following are abbreviations for cardiac enzyme test?
- A.
ALP,ALT
- B.
BUN,PT
- C.
CK,LDH
- D.
GTT, ESR
Correct Answer
C. CK,LDHExplanation
CK and LDH are abbreviations for cardiac enzyme tests. These tests measure the levels of specific enzymes in the blood that are released when there is damage to the heart muscle. CK, or creatine kinase, is an enzyme found in the heart, brain, and skeletal muscles. LDH, or lactate dehydrogenase, is an enzyme found in many tissues, including the heart. Elevated levels of these enzymes can indicate a heart attack or other heart-related conditions. Therefore, CK and LDH are commonly used abbreviations for cardiac enzyme tests.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What word is used to describe the breakdown of red blood cells
- A.
Erythema
- B.
Erythrocytosis
- C.
Hemolysis
- D.
Hemostasis
Correct Answer
C. HemolysisExplanation
Hemolysis is the correct answer because it refers to the breakdown of red blood cells. It occurs when red blood cells rupture and release their contents into the surrounding plasma. This can happen due to various factors such as infections, autoimmune disorders, or certain medications. Hemolysis can lead to the release of hemoglobin, which can cause jaundice and other symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which of the following word parts are prefixes
- A.
Al,lysis,pnea
- B.
Gastr,lip,onc
- C.
Ices,ina,nges
- D.
Iso,neo,tachy
Correct Answer
D. Iso,neo,tachyExplanation
The word parts "iso," "neo," and "tachy" are prefixes. A prefix is a word part that is added to the beginning of a word to modify its meaning. In this case, "iso-" means equal, "neo-" means new, and "tachy-" means fast. These word parts are added to other words to create new words with different meanings. For example, "isothermal" means having equal temperature, "neonatal" means relating to newborn babies, and "tachycardia" means a fast heart rate.Rate this question:
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- 27.
A patient who is NPO
- A.
Cannot have any food or drink
- B.
Cannot have anything but water
- C.
Is in critical,but stable condition
- D.
Is recovering from minor surgery
Correct Answer
A. Cannot have any food or drinkExplanation
The correct answer is "cannot have any food or drink." When a patient is NPO, it means that they are not allowed to have anything to eat or drink. This could be due to various reasons such as before a surgical procedure or certain medical tests where it is important for the patient's stomach to be empty. It is crucial for healthcare providers to follow these instructions to ensure the patient's safety and accurate test results.Rate this question:
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- 28.
There is a sign above the patients bed that reads no blood pressure or venipuncture, right arm, the patient has an IV in the left forearm. you have a request to collect a complete blood count on the patient, how should you proceed
- A.
Ask the patients nurse to collect the specimen from the IV
- B.
ASK THE PATIENTS NURSE WHAT TO DO WHEN THE SIGN IS POSTED
- C.
Collect a CBC from the right arm without using tourniquet
- D.
Collect the specimen from the left hand by finger puncture
Correct Answer
D. Collect the specimen from the left hand by finger punctureExplanation
The correct answer is to collect the specimen from the left hand by finger puncture because the sign above the patient's bed indicates that no blood pressure or venipuncture should be done on the right arm. Since the patient already has an IV in the left forearm, collecting the specimen from the left hand by finger puncture would be the appropriate method to obtain a complete blood count without violating the instructions on the sign.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which of the following are all anticoagulants that remove calcium from the specimen by forming insoluble calcium salts, and therefore prevent coagulation
- A.
EDTA,lithium heparin,citrate
- B.
NaF, sodium heparin,EDTA
- C.
Oxalate, SPS,sodium heparin
- D.
Sodium citrate,EDTA, oxalate
Correct Answer
D. Sodium citrate,EDTA, oxalateExplanation
Sodium citrate, EDTA, and oxalate are all anticoagulants that remove calcium from the specimen by forming insoluble calcium salts. This prevents coagulation by inhibiting the clotting factors that rely on calcium for their function. Sodium citrate is commonly used for coagulation tests, EDTA is used for hematology tests, and oxalate is used for blood glucose testing.Rate this question:
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- 30.
All of the following tube stopper colors indicate the presence (or absence) and type of additive in the tube except
- A.
Green
- B.
Lavender
- C.
Light blue
- D.
Royal blue
Correct Answer
D. Royal blueExplanation
The question is asking for the tube stopper color that does not indicate the presence or absence and type of additive in the tube. The colors green, lavender, and light blue are commonly used in medical laboratories to indicate specific additives, such as heparin, EDTA, or sodium citrate respectively. However, royal blue is not typically used as a tube stopper color to indicate any specific additive. Therefore, royal blue is the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What is the purpose of an antiglyolytic agent
- A.
Enhance the clotting process
- B.
Inhibit electrolyte breakdown
- C.
Preserve glucose
- D.
Prevent clotting
Correct Answer
C. Preserve glucoseExplanation
The purpose of an antiglycolytic agent is to preserve glucose. Antiglycolytic agents are substances that inhibit the breakdown of glucose in a sample, usually blood or urine, by preventing the action of enzymes that break down glucose. This preservation of glucose is important in certain laboratory tests where accurate measurement of glucose levels is required. By preserving glucose, antiglycolytic agents help ensure that the glucose levels in the sample remain stable and can be accurately measured.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which one of the following tubes is filled first when multiple tubes are filled from a syringe
- A.
Blood culture (sps) tube
- B.
Complete blood count tube
- C.
Nonadditive discard tube
- D.
STAT potassium tube
Correct Answer
A. Blood culture (sps) tubeExplanation
The blood culture (sps) tube is filled first when multiple tubes are filled from a syringe because it is used to collect a sample for culturing bacteria and fungi. This tube contains a liquid called sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS), which acts as an anticoagulant and preservative for the sample. By filling the blood culture tube first, it ensures that the sample is collected in a sterile manner and that the SPS is properly mixed with the blood to prevent clotting and preserve the integrity of the sample for culturing purposes.Rate this question:
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- 33.
The pupose of a tourniquet in the venipuncture procedure is to
- A.
Block the flow of arterial blood into the area
- B.
Enlarge veins so they are easier to find and enter
- C.
Obstruct blood flow to concentrate the analyte
- D.
Redirect more blood flow to the venipuncture site
Correct Answer
B. Enlarge veins so they are easier to find and enterExplanation
A tourniquet is used in the venipuncture procedure to enlarge veins so they are easier to find and enter. By applying pressure to the area above the intended puncture site, the tourniquet constricts the veins, causing them to become more prominent and easier to access. This helps the healthcare professional locate a suitable vein for blood collection or intravenous therapy.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which type of test is most affected by tissue thromboplastin contamination
- A.
Chemistry
- B.
Coagulation
- C.
Microbiology
- D.
Serology
Correct Answer
B. CoagulationExplanation
Coagulation tests are most affected by tissue thromboplastin contamination. Tissue thromboplastin is a substance released from damaged tissues that initiates the clotting process. If there is contamination of the sample with tissue thromboplastin, it can falsely activate the clotting process and lead to incorrect results in coagulation tests. This can affect the measurement of clotting factors, such as prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), which are important in assessing blood clotting function. Therefore, coagulation tests are particularly sensitive to tissue thromboplastin contamination.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which of the following test would be most affected by carryover of K 2 EDTA
- A.
Blood urea nitrogen
- B.
Glucose
- C.
Potassium
- D.
Sodium
Correct Answer
C. PotassiumExplanation
The test that would be most affected by carryover of K2 EDTA is potassium. K2 EDTA is an anticoagulant commonly used in blood collection tubes. It works by binding to calcium ions, preventing blood clotting. However, K2 EDTA can also bind to other ions, such as potassium. If there is carryover of K2 EDTA into the test sample, it can falsely lower the measured potassium levels. This is because the K2 EDTA will bind to the potassium ions in the sample, preventing them from being detected accurately by the test. Therefore, the potassium test would be most affected by carryover of K2 EDTA.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Symptoms of needle phobia include all of the following except
- A.
Arrhythmia
- B.
Fainting
- C.
Lightheadedness
- D.
Muscle cramps
Correct Answer
D. Muscle crampsExplanation
Needle phobia is an extreme fear or anxiety related to needles or injections. The symptoms typically experienced by individuals with needle phobia include arrhythmia (abnormal heart rhythm), fainting, and lightheadedness. Muscle cramps, however, are not typically associated with needle phobia. Therefore, the correct answer is "muscle cramps."Rate this question:
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- 37.
Steps taken to unmistakably connect a specimen and the accompanying paperwork to specific individual are called
- A.
Accessioning the specimen
- B.
Barcoding specimen labels
- C.
Collection verification
- D.
Patient identification
Correct Answer
A. Accessioning the specimenExplanation
Accessioning the specimen refers to the process of assigning a unique identifier or accession number to a specimen and its accompanying paperwork. This helps in ensuring that the specimen can be easily identified and tracked throughout the testing or research process. Barcoding specimen labels can be a part of this accessioning process, as it provides a quick and efficient way to link the specimen to its relevant information. Collection verification involves confirming the accuracy and completeness of the specimen and its associated documentation. Patient identification is a separate step that involves verifying the identity of the individual from whom the specimen was collected.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Laboratory results can be negaitvely affected if the phlebotomist
- A.
Awakens a sleeping patient and raises the head of the patients bed
- B.
Collects a specimen in dim lighting conditions in the patients room
- C.
Draws a specimen from an unconscious patient without assistance
- D.
Statles a patient who is asleep while preparing to collect a specimen
Correct Answer
D. Statles a patient who is asleep while preparing to collect a specimenExplanation
If the phlebotomist startles a sleeping patient while preparing to collect a specimen, it can negatively affect the laboratory results. This is because sudden movements or surprises can cause the patient to have a stress response, leading to an increase in certain hormones and chemicals in the body. These changes can potentially alter the composition of the blood or other bodily fluids being collected, which may in turn affect the accuracy of the laboratory results.Rate this question:
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- 39.
If the touniquet is too tight all of the following happens except
- A.
Arterial flow below it may be stopped
- B.
Blood below it may hemoconcentrate
- C.
The pressure can causse the arm to ache
- D.
Venous flow increases as veins expand
Correct Answer
D. Venous flow increases as veins expandExplanation
When a tourniquet is too tight, it can cause several effects. Arterial flow below it may be stopped, meaning that blood cannot flow properly to the tissues. Blood below it may hemoconcentrate, which means that the concentration of blood cells and other components increases due to decreased fluid volume. The pressure can cause the arm to ache due to restricted blood flow and compression of nerves. However, venous flow does not increase as veins expand when the tourniquet is too tight. In fact, the constriction caused by the tourniquet can impede venous flow as well.Rate this question:
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- 40.
All of the following will help you avoid inadvertently puncturing an artery during venipuncture except
- A.
Avoid drawing the basilic vein in the antecubital area
- B.
Do not select a site that is near where you feel a pulse
- C.
Do not select a vein that overlies or is close to an artery
- D.
Stay away from the cephlic vein when the arm is thin
Correct Answer
D. Stay away from the cephlic vein when the arm is thinExplanation
The cephlic vein is commonly used for venipuncture when the arm is thin. This is because it is usually more visible and easier to access in thin individuals. Therefore, staying away from the cephlic vein when the arm is thin would not help avoid inadvertently puncturing an artery during venipuncture.Rate this question:
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- 41.
You must collect a light blue top for a special coagulation test from a patient who has a n IV in the left wrist area and dermatitis all over the right arm and hand the veins on the right arm and hand are not readily visible. what is the best way to proceed
- A.
Apply a tourniquet on the right arm over a towel and do the draw
- B.
Ask the patients nurse to collect the specimen form the IV line
- C.
Collect from the left antecubital area without using a tourniquet
- D.
Collect the specimen by capillary puncture from the left hand
Correct Answer
A. Apply a tourniquet on the right arm over a towel and do the drawExplanation
The best way to proceed is to apply a tourniquet on the right arm over a towel and do the draw. This is because the patient has dermatitis all over the right arm and hand, making the veins not readily visible. By applying a tourniquet, it helps to constrict the blood vessels and make the veins more visible and accessible for the collection of the light blue top specimen. Using a towel underneath the tourniquet can provide additional comfort and protection for the patient's skin.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What is the best thing to do if the vein can be felt but not seen even with the tourniquet on
- A.
Inser the needle where you think it is and probe until you find it
- B.
Keep the tourniquet on while cleaning the site and during the draw
- C.
Look for visual clues on the skin to remind you where the vein is
- D.
Mark the spot usiing a felt tip pen and clean it off when finished
Correct Answer
C. Look for visual clues on the skin to remind you where the vein isExplanation
The best thing to do if the vein can be felt but not seen even with the tourniquet on is to look for visual clues on the skin to remind you where the vein is. This means observing any visible signs such as a faint discoloration or a slight bulge that may indicate the location of the vein. By relying on visual clues, it can help guide the healthcare professional to accurately insert the needle and avoid unnecessary probing or potential complications.Rate this question:
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- 43.
When is the best time to release the tourniquet during venipuncture
- A.
After the last tube has been filled completely
- B.
After the needle is withdrawn and covered
- C.
As soon as blood begins to flow into the tube
- D.
As soon as the needle penetraes the skin
Correct Answer
C. As soon as blood begins to flow into the tubeExplanation
The best time to release the tourniquet during venipuncture is as soon as blood begins to flow into the tube. Releasing the tourniquet at this point ensures that the blood flow is not interrupted and allows for a smooth collection of the required amount of blood. Releasing the tourniquet after the last tube has been filled completely or after the needle is withdrawn and covered may cause blood to clot or disrupt the collection process. Releasing the tourniquet as soon as the needle penetrates the skin is also not ideal as it may lead to excessive bleeding and difficulty in locating the vein.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Proper technique for collecting specimen tubes when using the evacuated tube method includes all of the following except
- A.
Collect sterle specimens before all other specimens
- B.
Draw a clear tube before special coagulation test
- C.
Fill each tube until the normal vacuum is exhausted
- D.
Position the arm so tubes fill from stopper end first
Correct Answer
D. Position the arm so tubes fill from stopper end firstExplanation
The proper technique for collecting specimen tubes when using the evacuated tube method includes collecting sterile specimens before all other specimens, drawing a clear tube before special coagulation tests, and filling each tube until the normal vacuum is exhausted. However, positioning the arm so that tubes fill from the stopper end first is not part of the proper technique. This may lead to incorrect specimen collection and potential contamination.Rate this question:
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- 45.
It is imporant to fill anticoagulant tubes to the proper lvel to ensure that
- A.
The specimen yields enough serum for the required tests
- B.
There is a proper ratio of blood to anticoagulant additive
- C.
There is an adequate amount of blood to perform the test
- D.
Issue fluid contamination of the specimen is minimized
Correct Answer
B. There is a proper ratio of blood to anticoagulant additiveExplanation
Filling anticoagulant tubes to the proper level ensures that there is a proper ratio of blood to anticoagulant additive. This is important because the anticoagulant additive prevents the blood from clotting and allows for accurate testing. If the ratio is not correct, it can affect the validity of the test results. Therefore, it is essential to fill the tubes to the proper level to ensure the correct ratio and accurate testing.Rate this question:
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- 46.
You have just made two unsuccessfull attempts to collect a fasting blood specimen from an outpatient. the patient rotates his arm, and you notice a large vein that you had not seen before, how do you proceed
- A.
Ask another phlebotomist to collect the fasting specimen
- B.
Ask the patient to come back later so that you can try again
- C.
Call the supervisor for permission to make a third attemp
- D.
Make a third attempt on the newly discovered large vein
Correct Answer
A. Ask another phlebotomist to collect the fasting specimenExplanation
Since the previous attempts to collect a fasting blood specimen have been unsuccessful, it would be appropriate to seek assistance from another phlebotomist who may have more experience or skill in finding and accessing veins. This would increase the chances of successfully collecting the specimen without causing further discomfort or inconvenience to the patient.Rate this question:
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- 47.
When drawing blood from an older child the most important consideration is
- A.
Assuring the child that it wont be painful
- B.
Explaining all of the test being collected
- C.
Explaining the importance of holding still
- D.
Offering the child a reward for not crying
Correct Answer
C. Explaining the importance of holding stillExplanation
When drawing blood from an older child, explaining the importance of holding still is the most important consideration. This is because holding still ensures that the procedure can be performed safely and accurately. It helps to prevent any accidental injuries or complications during the blood draw. Additionally, it allows the healthcare professional to locate the vein easily and quickly, reducing any discomfort or pain for the child. By emphasizing the importance of holding still, the child is more likely to cooperate and remain calm throughout the procedure, making it easier for both the child and the healthcare professional.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Feather is a term used to describe the appearance of
- A.
A newborn screening blood spot
- B.
Blood in a thick malaria smear
- C.
Lipemia in a bilirubin specimen
- D.
The thinnest area of a blood film
Correct Answer
D. The thinnest area of a blood filmExplanation
The term "feather" is used to describe the thinnest area of a blood film. When preparing a blood film for microscopic examination, a drop of blood is spread thinly and evenly across a glass slide. The feathered edge refers to the tapered, thin area of the blood film where the cells are more spread out and easier to visualize under the microscope. This area is important for identifying and analyzing blood cells and their characteristics.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Capillary specimens contain of all of the following except
- A.
Arerial blood
- B.
Serous fluids
- C.
Tissue fluids
- D.
Venous blood
Correct Answer
B. Serous fluidsExplanation
Capillary specimens are collected from capillaries, which are the smallest blood vessels in the body. These specimens are primarily used for measuring glucose levels. Arterial blood, tissue fluids, and venous blood can all be collected from capillaries. However, serous fluids are not typically collected from capillaries. Serous fluids refer to the clear, watery fluids that are found in body cavities, such as the pleural and peritoneal cavities. Therefore, serous fluids are not included in capillary specimens.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Reference values for this test are higher for capillary specimens
- A.
Calcium
- B.
Glucose
- C.
Phosphorous
- D.
Total protein
Correct Answer
B. GlucoseExplanation
The reference values for the test are higher for capillary specimens. This means that when measuring the levels of calcium, phosphorous, total protein, and glucose in capillary blood samples, the expected or normal values for glucose are higher compared to the other substances. This could be due to various factors such as differences in sample collection, handling, or the physiological characteristics of capillary blood.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Nov 02, 2012Quiz Created by
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