Science Test 2

69 Questions  I  By RNSTUDENT29
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Science Quizzes & Trivia
Chapter 38

  
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  • 1. 
    When reviewing the allergy history of a patient, the nurse notes that the patient is allergic to penicillin. Based on this finding, the nurse would question an order for which class of antibiotics?
    • A. 

      Tetracyclines

    • B. 

      Sulfonamides

    • C. 

      Cephalosporins

    • D. 

      Imipenem-cilastatin


  • 2. 
    When teaching a patient who will be taking tetracycline, which of the following instructions should the nurse share?
    • A. 

      “Avoid direct sunlight and tanning beds while on this medication.”

    • B. 

      “Milk and cheese products result in increased levels of tetracycline.”

    • C. 

      “Antacids taken with the medication help to reduce gastrointestinal distress.”

    • D. 

      “Take the medication until you are feeling better.”


  • 3. 
    When reviewing the medication orders for a patient who is taking penicillin, the nurse notes that the patient is also taking the oral anticoagulant warfarin (Coumadin). What possible effect may occur as the result of an interaction between these drugs?
    • A. 

      The penicillin will cause an enhanced anticoagulant effect of the warfarin.

    • B. 

      The penicillin will cause the anticoagulant effect of the warfarin to decrease.

    • C. 

      The warfarin will reduce the antiinfective action of the penicillin.

    • D. 

      The warfarin will increase the effectiveness of the penicillin.


  • 4. 
    A patient is receiving his third intravenous dose of a penicillin drug. He calls the nurse to report that he is feeling “anxious” and is having trouble breathing. What will the nurse do first?
    • A. 

      Notify the physician.

    • B. 

      Take the patient’s vital signs.

    • C. 

      Stop the antibiotic infusion.

    • D. 

      Check for allergies.


  • 5. 
    A patient is admitted with a fever of 102.8° F (39.3 ° C), origin unknown. Assessment reveals cloudy, foul-smelling urine that is dark amber in color. Orders have just been written to obtain urine and blood cultures and to administer an antibiotic intravenously stat (now). The nurse will complete these orders in which sequence?
    • A. 

      Blood culture, ampicillin dose, urine culture

    • B. 

      Urine culture, ampicillin dose, blood culture

    • C. 

      Ampicillin dose, blood and urine cultures

    • D. 

      Blood and urine cultures, ampicillin dose


  • 6. 
    During drug therapy with a tetracycline antibiotic, a patient complains of some nausea and anorexia. The nurse’s best advice to the patient would be which of the following?
    • A. 

      “Take it with cheese and crackers or yogurt.”

    • B. 

      “Take each dose with a glass of milk.”

    • C. 

      “Take an antacid with each dose as needed.”

    • D. 

      “Drink a full glass of water with each dose.”


  • 7. 
    The nurse is reviewing the medication history of a patient who will be taking an antibiotic. During antibiotic therapy, a significant drug interaction may occur with which drug group?
    • A. 

      Opioids

    • B. 

      Oral contraceptives

    • C. 

      Antihypertensives

    • D. 

      Antihistamines


  • 8. 
    The nurse is monitoring for therapeutic results of antibiotic therapy in a patient with an infection. Which laboratory value would indicate therapeutic effectiveness of this therapy?
    • A. 

      Increased red blood cell count

    • B. 

      Increased white blood cell count

    • C. 

      Decreased white blood cell count

    • D. 

      Decreased platelet count


  • 9. 
    The nurse is reviewing the sputum culture results of a patient with pneumonia and notes that the patient has a gram-positive infection. Which type of cephalosporin is most appropriate for this infection?
    • A. 

      First generation

    • B. 

      Second generation

    • C. 

      Third generation

    • D. 

      Fourth generation


  • 10. 
    A patient has received an antibiotic to take for a week before planned oral surgery. The nurse knows that this is an example of which type of therapy?
    • A. 

      Empirical

    • B. 

      Prophylactic

    • C. 

      Definitive

    • D. 

      Resistance


  • 11. 
    A patient has a urinary tract infection. The nurse knows that which class of drugs is especially useful for such infections?
    • A. 

      Sulfonamides

    • B. 

      Carbapenems

    • C. 

      Macrolides

    • D. 

      Tetracyclines


  • 12. 
    During drug therapy for pneumonia, a female patient develops a superinfection. The nurse explains that this infection is caused by
    • A. 

      Large doses of antibiotics that kill normal flora.

    • B. 

      The infection spreading from her lungs to the new site of infection.

    • C. 

      Resistance of the pneumonia-causing bacteria to the drugs.

    • D. 

      An allergic reaction to the antibiotics.


  • 13. 
    The nurse is preparing to use an antiseptic. Which statement is correct regarding how antiseptics differ from disinfectants?
    • A. 

      Antiseptics are used to sterilize surgical equipment.

    • B. 

      Disinfectants are used as preoperative skin preparation.

    • C. 

      Antiseptics are used on living tissue to kill microorganisms.

    • D. 

      Disinfectants are used only on nonliving objects to destroy organisms.


  • 14. 
    A patient with a long-term intravenous catheter is going home. The nurse knows that if he is allergic to seafood, which antiseptic agent is contraindicated?
    • A. 

      Chlorhexidine gluconate (Hibiclens)

    • B. 

      Hydrogen peroxide

    • C. 

      Povidone-iodine (Betadine)

    • D. 

      Isopropyl alcohol


  • 15. 
    During antibiotic therapy, the nurse should monitor closely for signs and symptoms of a hypersensitivity reaction. Which of the following may be an indication of a hypersensitivity reaction? Select all that apply.
    • A. 

      Wheezing

    • B. 

      Diarrhea

    • C. 

      Shortness of breath

    • D. 

      Swelling of the tongue

    • E. 

      Itching

    • F. 

      Black, hairy tongue


  • 16. 
    When a patient is on aminoglycoside therapy, the nurse will monitor the patient for which indicators of potential toxicity?
    • A. 

      Fever

    • B. 

      White blood cell count of 7000 mm3

    • C. 

      Tinnitus and hearing loss

    • D. 

      Decreased creatinine levels


  • 17. 
    The nurse is administering a vancomycin (Vancocin) infusion. Which measure is appropriate for the nurse to implement in order to reduce complications that may occur with this drug’s administration?
    • A. 

      Monitoring blood pressure for hypertension during the infusions

    • B. 

      Infusing the drug rapidly

    • C. 

      Restricting fluids during vancomycin therapy

    • D. 

      Infusing the drug over at least 1 hour


  • 18. 
    Which of the following nursing diagnoses is appropriate for a patient who has started aminoglycoside therapy?
    • A. 

      Constipation

    • B. 

      Risk for injury (hearing loss)

    • C. 

      Disturbed body image related to gynecomastia

    • D. 

      Imbalanced nutrition, less than body requirements, related to nausea


  • 19. 
    A patient who has been hospitalized for 2 weeks has developed a pressure ulcer that contains multidrug-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which drug would the nurse expect to be chosen for his therapy?
    • A. 

      Metronidazole (Flagyl)

    • B. 

      Tobramycin (Nebcin)

    • C. 

      Vancomycin (Vancocin)

    • D. 

      Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)


  • 20. 
    A patient is receiving aminoglycoside therapy and will be receiving a beta-lactam antibiotic as well. The patient asks why two antibiotics have been ordered. What is the nurse’s best response?
    • A. 

      “The combined effect of both antibiotics is greater than each of them alone.”

    • B. 

      “The first antibiotic was not strong enough to work.”

    • C. 

      “We have not yet isolated the bacteria, so the two antibiotics are given to cover a wide range of microorganisms.”

    • D. 

      “We can give a reduced amount of each one if we give them together.”


  • 21. 
    When reviewing the medication orders for a patient who will be receiving linezolid (Zyvox) therapy, the nurse is aware that this drug may interact with which medications?
    • A. 

      Calcium channel blockers

    • B. 

      Selective serotonin-reuptake inhibitor antidepressants

    • C. 

      Phenytoin

    • D. 

      Phenobarbital


  • 22. 
    The nurse is about to give a dose of vancomycin (Vancocin), but before doing so checks the patient’s lab work and finds that the trough vancomycin level is 24 mcg/mL. What will the nurse do next?
    • A. 

      Administer the vancomycin as ordered and draw a peak level.

    • B. 

      Hold the drug and administer 4 hours later.

    • C. 

      Hold the drug and notify the physician.

    • D. 

      Repeat the test to verify results.


  • 23. 
    A patient has been diagnosed with Klebsiella pneumoniae carbapenemases. The nurse expects to see orders for which drug?
    • A. 

      Dapsone

    • B. 

      Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

    • C. 

      Linezolid (Zyvox)

    • D. 

      Colistimethate sodium or colistin (Coly-Mycin)


  • 24. 
    A 79-year-old patient is receiving a quinolone as treatment for a complicated incision infection. The nurse will monitor for which adverse effect that is associated with these drugs?
    • A. 

      Neuralgia

    • B. 

      Double vision

    • C. 

      Hypotension

    • D. 

      Tendinitis and tendon rupture


  • 25. 
    The nurse who is administering aminoglycoside therapy must monitor the patient closely for signs of toxicity as manifested by which of the following? Select all that apply.
    • A. 

      Electrocardiogram changes

    • B. 

      Hearing loss

    • C. 

      Dizziness

    • D. 

      Blood dyscrasias

    • E. 

      Decreasing serum creatinine level

    • F. 

      Rising serum creatinine level


  • 26. 
    The nurse is administering intravenous vancomycin (Vancocin) to a patient who has had gastrointestinal surgery. Which nursing measures are appropriate? Select all that apply.
    • A. 

      Monitoring serum creatinine levels

    • B. 

      Restricting fluids while the patient is on this medication

    • C. 

      Warning the patient that he might feel flushed or have facial itching

    • D. 

      Instructing the patient to report dizziness or a feeling of fullness in the ears

    • E. 

      Reporting a trough drug level of 12 mcg/mL and holding the drug

    • F. 

      Reporting a trough drug level of 24 mcg/mL and holding the drug


  • 27. 
    A patient diagnosed with shingles is taking topical acyclovir and the nurse is providing instructions about adverse effects. Which are adverse effects of topical acyclovir that should be discussed with the patient?
    • A. 

      Insomnia and nervousness

    • B. 

      Temporary swelling and rash

    • C. 

      Transient burning when applied

    • D. 

      This medication has no adverse effects.


  • 28. 
    A patient who has undergone bone marrow transplantation has contracted cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis. The nurse expects which drug to be ordered for this patient?
    • A. 

      Acyclovir (Zovirax)

    • B. 

      Ganciclovir (Cytovene)

    • C. 

      Zanamivir (Relenza)

    • D. 

      Amantadine (Symmetrel)


  • 29. 
    An infant has been hospitalized with a severe lung infection caused by the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). The nurse expects which drug to be administered via the inhalation route?
    • A. 

      Acyclovir (Zovirax)

    • B. 

      Ganciclovir (Cytovene)

    • C. 

      Amantadine (Symmetrel)

    • D. 

      Ribavirin (Virazole)


  • 30. 
    A patient with AIDS has been taking zidovudine (Retrovir) therapy for almost 1 year. At this time, the physician decides to switch her medication to didanosine. The patient is very concerned about this change. What will the nurse explain to her?
    • A. 

      The didanosine is less expensive.

    • B. 

      Didanosine has been shown to improve survival rates.

    • C. 

      The zidovudine therapy is effective for only a year.

    • D. 

      The zidovudine therapy may have caused severe bone marrow suppression.


  • 31. 
    The nurse is administering intravenous acyclovir (Zovirax) to a patient with a viral infection. Which administration technique is correct?
    • A. 

      Intravenous infusions should be administered slowly, over at least 1 hour.

    • B. 

      Intravenous infusions should be administered by rapid bolus.

    • C. 

      Intravenous acyclovir should be refrigerated.

    • D. 

      Oral fluids should be restricted while a patient is taking intravenous acyclovir.


  • 32. 
    A patient is receiving cidofovir as part of the treatment for a viral infection, and the nurse is preparing to administer probenecid, which is also ordered. The nurse understands that the probenecid is given for which reason?
    • A. 

      It has a synergistic effect when given with cidofovir, thus making the antiviral medication more effective.

    • B. 

      The probenecid also prevents the replication of the virus.

    • C. 

      Concurrent drug therapy with probenecid reduces the nephrotoxicity of the cidofovir.

    • D. 

      The probenecid reduces the adverse gastrointestinal effects of the cidofovir.


  • 33. 
    A patient is taking a combination of antiviral drugs as treatment for early stages of HIV infection. While discussing the drug therapy, he asks the nurse if the drugs will kill the virus. When answering him, the nurse keeps in mind the fact that antiviral drugs
    • A. 

      Are given for palliative reasons only.

    • B. 

      Will be effective as long as he is not exposed to the virus again.

    • C. 

      Can be given in large enough doses to eradicate the virus without harming the body’s healthy cells.

    • D. 

      May also kill healthy cells while killing viruses.


  • 34. 
    A young adult calls the clinic to ask for a prescription for “that new flu drug.” He says he has had the flu for almost 4 days and just heard about a drug that can reduce the symptoms. Based on knowledge of antiviral therapy for influenza, what is the nurse’s best response to his request?
    • A. 

      “Now that you’ve had the flu, you will need a booster vaccination, not the antiviral drug.”

    • B. 

      “We need to do a blood test to verify that you actually have the flu.”

    • C. 

      “Ideally, drug therapy should be started within 2 days of symptom onset, not 4 days

    • D. 

      “We’ll get you a prescription. As long as you start treatment within the next 24 hours, the drug should be effective.”


  • 35. 
    A patient diagnosed with genital herpes is taking topical acyclovir. What teaching is important for this patient? Select all that apply.
    • A. 

      “Be sure to wash your hands thoroughly before and after applying this medicine.”

    • B. 

      “Apply this ointment until the lesion stops hurting.”

    • C. 

      “Sterile gloves are required when applying this ointment.”

    • D. 

      “Use a clean glove when applying this ointment.”

    • E. 

      “If your partner develops these lesions, then he can also use the medication.”

    • F. 

      “You need to avoid touching the area around your eyes.”

    • G. 

      “You will have to practice abstinence when these lesions are active.”

    • H. 

      “Ask your health care provider about getting Pap smears done every 6 months because of an increased risk for cervical cancer.”


  • 36. 
    A patient is in the HIV clinic for a follow-up appointment. He has been on antiretroviral therapy for HIV for more than 3 years. The nurse will assess for which potential adverse effects of long-term antiretroviral therapy? Select all that apply.
    • A. 

      Lipodystrophy

    • B. 

      Liver damage

    • C. 

      Kaposi’s sarcoma

    • D. 

      Osteoporosis

    • E. 

      Type 2 diabetes


  • 37. 
    The nurse is discussing adverse effects of antitubercular drugs. Which potential adverse effect should the patient report to his or her prescriber?
    • A. 

      Gastrointestinal upset

    • B. 

      Headache and nervousness

    • C. 

      Reddish-orange urine and stool

    • D. 

      Numbness and tingling of extremities


  • 38. 
    A patient who has been taking isoniazid (INH) has a new prescription for pyridoxine. She is wondering why she needs this medication. The nurse explains that pyridoxine is given concurrently with the isoniazid to prevent
    • A. 

      Hair loss.

    • B. 

      Renal failure.

    • C. 

      Peripheral neuropathy.

    • D. 

      Heart failure.


  • 39. 
    When assessing patients who are to receive antitubercular therapy, the nurse should assess for which potential contraindication?
    • A. 

      Glaucoma

    • B. 

      Anemia

    • C. 

      Heart failure

    • D. 

      Hepatic impairment


  • 40. 
    When monitoring patients on antitubercular drug therapy, the nurse knows that which drug may cause a decrease in visual acuity?
    • A. 

      Rifampin

    • B. 

      Isoniazid

    • C. 

      Ethambutol

    • D. 

      Streptomycin


  • 41. 
    A patient has been taking antitubercular therapy for 3 months. The nurse notes a therapeutic response to these drugs with which assessment findings?
    • A. 

      The chronic cough is gone.

    • B. 

      There are two consecutive negative purified protein derivative (PPD) results over 2 months.

    • C. 

      There is increased tolerance to the medication therapy and there are fewer reports of adverse effects.

    • D. 

      There is a decrease in symptoms of tuberculosis along with improved chest x-rays and sputum cultures.


  • 42. 
    The nurse is counseling a woman who will be starting rifampin. The patient is on oral contraceptives. Which statement is true regarding rifampin therapy for this patient?
    • A. 

      Women have a high risk for thrombophlebitis while on this drug.

    • B. 

      A higher dose of rifampin will be necessary because of the contraceptive.

    • C. 

      Oral contraceptives are less effective while the patient is taking rifampin.

    • D. 

      The incidence of adverse effects is greater if the two drugs are taken together.


  • 43. 
    The nurse is reviewing the medication record of a patient who is taking isoniazid (INH). Which drug or drug class has a significant drug interaction with isoniazid?
    • A. 

      Pyridoxine

    • B. 

      Penicillin

    • C. 

      Antacids

    • D. 

      Benzodiazepines


  • 44. 
    A patient who has started drug therapy for tuberculosis wants to know how long he will be on the medications. What is the nurse’s best response?
    • A. 

      “Drug therapy will last until the symptoms have stopped.”

    • B. 

      “Drug therapy will continue until the tuberculosis develops resistance.”

    • C. 

      “You should expect to take these drugs for as long as 24 months.”

    • D. 

      “You will be on antituberculosis drug therapy for the rest of your life.”


  • 45. 
    The nurse is preparing to administer morning medications to a patient who has been newly diagnosed with tuberculosis. The patient asks, “Why do I have to take so many different drugs?” Which answer by the nurse is correct?
    • A. 

      “It is hoped that at least one of these drugs will work to fight the tuberculosis.”

    • B. 

      “Taking multiple drugs reduces the chance that the tuberculosis will become drug resistant.”

    • C. 

      “Using several drugs has a faster effect than single-drug therapy.”

    • D. 

      “Using multiple drugs enhances the effect of each drug.”


  • 46. 
    Important points the nurse should emphasize when teaching a patient who will be taking antitubercular therapy include which of the following? Select all that apply.
    • A. 

      “Take medications until the symptoms disappear.”

    • B. 

      “Take medications at the same time every day.”

    • C. 

      “You will be considered contagious during most of the illness and must take precautions to avoid spreading the disease.”

    • D. 

      “Stop taking the medications if you have severe adverse effects.”

    • E. 

      “Alcoholic beverages should be avoided while on this therapy.”

    • F. 

      “If you notice reddish-brown or reddish-orange urine, stop taking the drug and contact your doctor right away.”

    • G. 

      “If you experience a burning or tingling in your fingers or toes, report it to your physician immediately.”

    • H. 

      “Oral contraceptives may not work while you are taking these drugs, so you will have to use another form of birth control.”


  • 47. 
    During an intravenous (IV) infusion of amphotericin B, a patient develops tingling and numbness in his toes and fingers. What will the nurse do?
    • A. 

      Discontinue the infusion immediately.

    • B. 

      Reduce the infusion rate gradually until the adverse effects subside.

    • C. 

      Administer the medication by rapid IV infusion to reduce the potential adverse effects.

    • D. 

      Nothing; these are expected side effects of this medication.


  • 48. 
    When reviewing the history of a patient who will be taking an antifungal drug, the nurse knows that which of the following conditions is a contraindication to these drugs?
    • A. 

      Diabetes mellitus

    • B. 

      Renal failure

    • C. 

      Hyperthyroidism

    • D. 

      Meningitis


  • 49. 
    If a patient is taking an antifungal drug with an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for which possible interaction?
    • A. 

      Reduced action of oral anticoagulants, resulting in decreased prothrombin time-international normalized ratio (PT-INR)

    • B. 

      Increased action of oral anticoagulants, resulting in increased PT-INR

    • C. 

      Increased change in renal impairment caused by the antifungal drug

    • D. 

      Decreased effectiveness of the antifungal drug


  • 50. 
    The nurse is preparing an infusion of amphotericin B for a patient who has a severe fungal infection. Which intervention is appropriate regarding the potential adverse effects of amphotericin B?
    • A. 

      Discontinuing the infusion immediately if fever, chills, or nausea occur

    • B. 

      Gradually increasing the infusion rate until adverse effects occur

    • C. 

      If fever, chills, or nausea occur during the infusion, administering medications to treat the symptoms

    • D. 

      Before beginning the infusion, administering an antipyretic and an antiemetic drug


  • 51. 
    The nurse is administering one of the lipid formulations of amphotericin B. When giving this drug, it is important to remember that
    • A. 

      The lipid formulations may be given in an oral form.

    • B. 

      The doses are much lower than the doses of the older drugs.

    • C. 

      The lipid formulations are associated with fewer adverse effects than the older drugs.

    • D. 

      There is no difference in cost between the new and older forms.


  • 52. 
    The nurse is reviewing instructions for vaginal antifungal drugs with a patient. Which is an appropriate instruction regarding these drugs?
    • A. 

      “The medication can be stopped when your symptoms are relieved.”

    • B. 

      “Discontinue this medication if menstruation begins.”

    • C. 

      “Daily douching is part of the treatment for vaginal fungal infections.”

    • D. 

      “Abstain from sexual intercourse until the treatment has been completed and the infection has resolved.”


  • 53. 
    A patient is infected by invasive aspergillosis, and his medical record reveals that he has not been able to tolerate several antifungal drugs. The nurse anticipates an order for which medication to treat this infection?
    • A. 

      Fluconazole (Diflucan)

    • B. 

      Micafungin (Mycamine)

    • C. 

      Caspofungin (Cancidas)

    • D. 

      Nystatin (Mycostatin)


  • 54. 
    A patient with a severe fungal infection has orders for voriconazole (Vfend). The nurse is reviewing the patient’s medical record and would be concerned with what assessment finding?
    • A. 

      Decreased breath sounds in the lower lobes

    • B. 

      History of cardiac dysrhythmias

    • C. 

      History of diabetes type II

    • D. 

      Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L


  • 55. 
    During therapy with amphotericin B, the nurse would monitor for known adverse effects that would be reflected by which lab result?
    • A. 

      Serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L

    • B. 

      Serum potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L

    • C. 

      White blood count of 6500 mm3

    • D. 

      Platelet count of 300,000 per microliter


  • 56. 
    A patient has received a prescription for a 2-week course of antifungal suppositories for a vaginal yeast infection. She asks the nurse if there is an alternative to this medication, saying, “I don’t want to do this for 2 weeks!” The nurse recognizes that a possible alternative prescription in this situation would be
    • A. 

      A single dose of a vaginal antifungal cream.

    • B. 

      A one-time infusion of amphotericin B.

    • C. 

      A single dose of a fluconazole (Diflucan) oral tablet.

    • D. 

      Less effective than the suppositories.


  • 57. 
    A patient is taking nystatin (Mycostatin) lozenges because of an oral candidiasis infection resulting from inhaled corticosteroid therapy for asthma. Which instruction by the nurse is appropriate?
    • A. 

      “Chew the lozenges until they are completely dissolved.”

    • B. 

      “Let the lozenge dissolve slowly and completely in your mouth without chewing it.”

    • C. 

      “Rinse your mouth with water before taking the inhaler.”

    • D. 

      “Rinse your mouth with mouthwash after taking the inhaler.”


  • 58. 
    When administering amphotericin B, which of the following actions by the nurse are appropriate? Select all that apply.
    • A. 

      Administering the medication by rapid IV infusion

    • B. 

      Discontinuing the drug immediately if the patient develops tingling and numbness in the extremities

    • C. 

      If adverse effects occur, reducing the IV rate gradually until they subside

    • D. 

      Using an infusion pump for IV therapy

    • E. 

      Monitoring the IV site for signs of phlebitis and infiltration

    • F. 

      Ordering premedication for fever and nausea

    • G. 

      Knowing that the intravenous solution for amphotericin B will be cloudy

    • H. 

      Knowing that muscle twitching may indicate hypokalemia


  • 59. 
    A patient has a roundworm infestation and will be taking mebendazole. What adverse effects should the nurse include in a teaching plan for this patient?
    • A. 

      Vertigo

    • B. 

      Seizures

    • C. 

      Diarrhea

    • D. 

      Insomnia


  • 60. 
    A patient has an infestation with flukes. The nurse anticipates the use of which drug to treat this infestation?
    • A. 

      Praziquantel (Biltricide)

    • B. 

      Pyrantel (Antiminth)

    • C. 

      Mebendazole (Vermox)

    • D. 

      Ivermectin (Stromectol)


  • 61. 
    A patient who is being treated for malaria has started therapy with quinine and tetracycline. He asks the nurse why he is on an antibiotic when malaria is caused by a parasite. What should the nurse tell the patient?
    • A. 

      “The tetracycline prevents reinfection by the malarial parasite.”

    • B. 

      “The antibiotic is combined with quinine to reduce the adverse effects of the quinine.”

    • C. 

      “An antibacterial drug prevents the occurrence of superinfection during antimalarial therapy.”

    • D. 

      “The two drugs are more effective against malaria when given together.”


  • 62. 
    A woman is traveling to a country where she will be at high risk for malarial infection. What will the nurse teach her regarding prophylactic therapy?
    • A. 

      The medication is better absorbed and has fewer adverse effects if taken on an empty stomach.

    • B. 

      This drug should be started 3 weeks before exposure but can be discontinued once she leaves the area.

    • C. 

      This drug is taken only when she observes mosquito bites, because it can have toxic effects if taken unnecessarily.

    • D. 

      This drug is usually started 1 to 2 weeks before traveling to endemic areas and is continued for 4 weeks after leaving the area.


  • 63. 
    A patient with late-stage HIV infection also has Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. The nurse anticipates treatment with which medication for this pneumonia?
    • A. 

      Iodoquinol (Yodoxin)

    • B. 

      Atovaquone (Mepron)

    • C. 

      Praziquantel (Biltricide)

    • D. 

      Metronidazole (Flagyl)


  • 64. 
    A patient with an intestinal infection that is positive for the Giardia lamblia organism will be taking an antiprotozoal drug. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this patient?
    • A. 

      The urine may become dilute and pale during therapy.

    • B. 

      Taking the medications with food reduces gastrointestinal upset.

    • C. 

      The medications should be taken on an empty stomach.

    • D. 

      The drugs may be discontinued once the diarrhea subsides.


  • 65. 
    The nurse is reviewing anthelmintic drug therapy with a patient and instructs the patient to look for and report which potential adverse reactions?
    • A. 

      Drowsiness

    • B. 

      Insomnia

    • C. 

      Visual disturbances

    • D. 

      Constipation


  • 66. 
    A patient is being evaluated for a possible helmintic infection. The nurse knows that which of the following statements about anthelmintic therapy is true?
    • A. 

      They may cause severe drowsiness.

    • B. 

      Anthelmintics are very specific in their actions.

    • C. 

      Anthelmintics are effective against broad classes of infestations.

    • D. 

      They are used to treat protozoal infections such as intestinal amebiasis.


  • 67. 
    A patient is experiencing the exoerythrocytic phase of malaria. The nurse expects which drug to be used for this patient?
    • A. 

      Quinine

    • B. 

      Chloroquine (Aralen)

    • C. 

      Mefloquine (Lariam)

    • D. 

      Primaquine


  • 68. 
    A patient is receiving hydroxychloroquine therapy but tells the nurse that she has never traveled out of her state. The nurse knows that a possible reason for this drug therapy is which condition?
    • A. 

      Lyme disease

    • B. 

      Toxoplasmosis

    • C. 

      Rheumatoid arthritis

    • D. 

      Intestinal tapeworms


  • 69. 
    Hydroxychloroquine is prescribed as part of malaria prophylaxis for a patient who will be traveling. The nurse will discuss which potential adverse effects with the patient? Select all that apply.
    • A. 

      Diarrhea

    • B. 

      Constipation

    • C. 

      Drowsiness

    • D. 

      Dizziness

    • E. 

      Anxiety

    • F. 

      Anorexia


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