Paramedic Quiz For Maes Students Chapter 1-5
Quizzes based on Nancy carolines paramedic book. Updated with every chapter ( slowly but surely) and quizzes from my class.
- 1.
The main goal of any continuous quality improvement is to
- A.
Promptly correct any problems once they are identified
- B.
Identify and remove paramedics who are not competent
- C.
Revamp protocols based on the current standards of care
- D.
Asses for ongoing improvement before a problem arises
Correct Answer
D. Asses for ongoing improvement before a problem arisesExplanation
Continuous quality improvement aims to assess for ongoing improvement before a problem arises. This means that instead of waiting for problems to occur, the focus is on proactively identifying areas for improvement and making necessary changes to prevent issues from arising in the first place. By regularly assessing and evaluating processes, protocols, and performance, organizations can identify potential problems and implement measures to enhance quality and efficiency. This proactive approach helps to prevent errors, improve patient outcomes, and ensure that the organization is consistently delivering high-quality care.Rate this question:
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- 2.
all of the following are examples of injury prevention EXCEPT
- A.
Demonstrating the proper use of a bicycle helmet
- B.
Instruction a person on how to wear a seatbelt properly
- C.
Informing a patient of a loose rug at the top of the stairs
- D.
Teaching rescue breathing and CPR to a group of citizens
Correct Answer
D. Teaching rescue breathing and CPR to a group of citizensExplanation
Teaching rescue breathing and CPR to a group of citizens is not an example of injury prevention because it is a response to an injury or emergency situation rather than a proactive measure to prevent injuries from occurring in the first place. The other options mentioned in the question - demonstrating the proper use of a bicycle helmet, instructing a person on how to wear a seatbelt properly, and informing a patient of a loose rug at the top of the stairs - all involve taking preventive measures to reduce the risk of injury.Rate this question:
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- 3.
a major distinction between a paramedic and an EMT-Basic is that the paramedic
- A.
Can be sued for negligence
- B.
Is help to a higher professional standard
- C.
Can function independently of a physician
- D.
Performs a variety of invasive procedures
Correct Answer
D. Performs a variety of invasive proceduresExplanation
The correct answer is that a major distinction between a paramedic and an EMT-Basic is that the paramedic performs a variety of invasive procedures. This means that paramedics are trained and authorized to perform procedures such as intubation, administering medications intravenously, and inserting chest tubes, among others. In contrast, EMT-Basics have a more limited scope of practice and are not trained to perform invasive procedures.Rate this question:
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- 4.
while you and your partner are en route to the scene of a patient in cardiac arrest, you should expect the emergency medical dispatcher EMD to
- A.
Obtain your permission to give simple medical directions to the caller
- B.
Instruct the caller on how to perform CPR until you arrive at the scene
- C.
Advise you of the patients medical history so you can be better prepared
- D.
Tell the called to place the patient in the recovery position and then reassess
Correct Answer
B. Instruct the caller on how to perform CPR until you arrive at the sceneExplanation
While en route to the scene of a patient in cardiac arrest, it is expected that the emergency medical dispatcher (EMD) will instruct the caller on how to perform CPR until the responders arrive at the scene. This is because performing CPR immediately can greatly increase the chances of survival for the patient. The EMD will guide the caller through the necessary steps of CPR, such as chest compressions and rescue breaths, until professional help arrives.Rate this question:
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- 5.
if a paramedic is self-motivated, he or she should NOT
- A.
Continuously educate him or herself
- B.
Require maximum supervision at work
- C.
Possess an internal drive for excellence
- D.
Be able to accept constructive feedback
Correct Answer
B. Require maximum supervision at workExplanation
A self-motivated paramedic would not require maximum supervision at work because they would be able to take initiative and work independently. Being self-motivated means that they are driven and have a strong internal desire to excel in their work. This implies that they would continuously educate themselves and strive for excellence. Additionally, being able to accept constructive feedback is a characteristic of someone who is self-motivated as they are open to learning and improving their skills. Therefore, the answer is that a self-motivated paramedic should not require maximum supervision at work.Rate this question:
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- 6.
as an advocate for your patient you must
- A.
Act in the patients best interest and remain respectful of his or her wishes and beliefs
- B.
Allow your personal feelings to affect the quality of care that you provide to your patients
- C.
Treat all patients the same, regardless of differences in lifestyle, culture, and personal values
- D.
Keep suspicions of abuse or neglect to yourself if the patient fears retribution from the abuser
Correct Answer
A. Act in the patients best interest and remain respectful of his or her wishes and beliefsExplanation
As an advocate for your patient, it is important to act in their best interest and respect their wishes and beliefs. This means considering their preferences and values when making decisions about their care. It also involves ensuring that their rights and autonomy are upheld. By doing so, you are promoting patient-centered care and demonstrating respect for their individuality.Rate this question:
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- 7.
being sympathetic towards a patient means that you
- A.
Reassure the patient of your competence
- B.
Know exactly how the patient feels
- C.
Acknowledge the patients feelings
- D.
Feel a sense of sorrow for the patient
Correct Answer
C. Acknowledge the patients feelingsExplanation
Being sympathetic towards a patient means acknowledging their feelings. This involves understanding and validating their emotions, showing empathy, and providing support. It is about recognizing and respecting their experiences and demonstrating a willingness to listen and understand their perspective. By acknowledging the patient's feelings, healthcare professionals can create a compassionate and caring environment, which can positively impact the patient's well-being and overall healthcare experience.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The main benefit to online medical control is that it
- A.
Affords the paramedic better protection against a lawsuit
- B.
Provides an immediate and specific patient care resource
- C.
Allows the physician and paramedic to develop a rapport
- D.
Facilitates a faster transport to the emergency department
Correct Answer
B. Provides an immediate and specific patient care resourceExplanation
Online medical control provides an immediate and specific patient care resource. This means that paramedics can quickly access medical expertise and guidance from physicians through online platforms. This resource allows paramedics to receive real-time advice on how to best care for the patient, ensuring that they can provide appropriate and timely treatment. This immediate access to medical knowledge can greatly improve patient outcomes and help paramedics make informed decisions in emergency situations.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The primary focus of a CQI program should be on
- A.
Modifying protocols as needed
- B.
Improving patient care delivery
- C.
Identifying incompetent medics
- D.
Reviewing all patient care reports
Correct Answer
B. Improving patient care deliveryExplanation
A CQI program, or Continuous Quality Improvement program, aims to improve the quality of patient care. This involves identifying areas for improvement and implementing strategies to enhance patient care delivery. By focusing on improving patient care delivery, the CQI program ensures that healthcare providers are consistently providing high-quality care to patients. This can lead to better outcomes, increased patient satisfaction, and overall improvement in the healthcare system.Rate this question:
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- 10.
when the paramedic is caring for a patient, it is MOST important to
- A.
Always transport to the closest medical facility
- B.
Start an IV line in case medications are needed
- C.
Remembering to to use basic life support interventions
- D.
Formulate a field impression as soon as possible
Correct Answer
C. Remembering to to use basic life support interventionsExplanation
In the given scenario, the most important action for the paramedic to take when caring for a patient is to remember to use basic life support interventions. This means that the paramedic should prioritize providing essential life-saving measures such as maintaining an open airway, ensuring adequate breathing, and initiating chest compressions if needed. These interventions are crucial in stabilizing the patient's condition and increasing their chances of survival before reaching a medical facility. While transporting to the closest medical facility is important, it is secondary to providing immediate basic life support interventions. Starting an IV line and formulating a field impression may be necessary but are not the most important actions in this situation.Rate this question:
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- 11.
which of the following dimensions of wellbeing is LEAST essential to a healthy life.
- A.
Mental
- B.
Physical
- C.
Financial
- D.
Emotional
Correct Answer
C. FinancialExplanation
Financial wellbeing is considered the least essential dimension to a healthy life because although it can contribute to a person's overall quality of life and provide access to resources and opportunities, it is not directly linked to physical and mental health. While financial stability can alleviate stress and provide security, it does not guarantee happiness or fulfillment. Mental, physical, and emotional wellbeing, on the other hand, are closely interconnected and crucial for maintaining a healthy and balanced life.Rate this question:
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- 12.
immediately following exposure to a patients blood or body fluids the paramedic should
- A.
Be evaluated by a physician
- B.
Thoroughly document the exposure
- C.
Obtain the proper immunization boosters
- D.
Wash the affected area with soap and water
Correct Answer
D. Wash the affected area with soap and waterExplanation
After being exposed to a patient's blood or body fluids, it is important for the paramedic to wash the affected area with soap and water. This is because washing the area immediately helps to reduce the risk of infection or transmission of any potential pathogens that may be present in the blood or body fluids. It is a crucial step in preventing the spread of diseases and maintaining personal hygiene.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Ignoring ones circadian rhythms may result in all of the following EXCEPT
- A.
Decreased physical coordination
- B.
Enhanced social functioning
- C.
Persistent difficulty with sleep
- D.
Impairment of higher thought function
Correct Answer
B. Enhanced social functioningExplanation
Ignoring one's circadian rhythms can have several negative effects on physical and mental well-being. It can lead to decreased physical coordination, as the body may not be functioning optimally during times when it should be resting or sleeping. It can also result in persistent difficulty with sleep, as the body's natural sleep-wake cycle is disrupted. Additionally, ignoring circadian rhythms can impair higher thought function, as sleep deprivation can negatively impact cognitive abilities such as memory, attention, and decision-making. However, it is unlikely to enhance social functioning, as disrupted sleep patterns can lead to irritability, mood swings, and decreased social interaction.Rate this question:
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- 14.
the BEST way for a paramedic to sustain energy is to
- A.
Limit water intake to less than 16 ounces per day
- B.
Ear a large meal at the beginning of his/her shift
- C.
Carry numerous small snacks that can be eaten slowly
- D.
Drink fewer than 4 caffeinated beverages before work.
Correct Answer
C. Carry numerous small snacks that can be eaten slowlyExplanation
Carrying numerous small snacks that can be eaten slowly is the best way for a paramedic to sustain energy. This allows for a steady intake of nutrients and calories throughout the shift, preventing energy crashes. Limiting water intake to less than 16 ounces per day can lead to dehydration and fatigue. Eating a large meal at the beginning of the shift can cause drowsiness and discomfort. Drinking fewer than 4 caffeinated beverages before work can lead to caffeine crashes and dehydration.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The key to remaining happy in your career as a paramedic is to
- A.
Continually garner addictional medical knowledge, even when you are at home and not on duty
- B.
Remain dedicated as a paramedic and explain the uniqueness of your job to your friends and family
- C.
Make a deliberate effort to create a healthy balance between your life and work and your life away from work
- D.
Place as much energy into EMS as possible so less energy will be required to deal with the stress involved with it.
Correct Answer
C. Make a deliberate effort to create a healthy balance between your life and work and your life away from workExplanation
To remain happy in a paramedic career, it is important to create a healthy balance between work and personal life. By making a deliberate effort to prioritize self-care and maintain a healthy work-life balance, paramedics can prevent burnout and maintain overall well-being. This involves setting boundaries, managing stress, and engaging in activities outside of work that bring joy and fulfillment. By doing so, paramedics can sustain their passion for their job while also taking care of their own physical and mental health.Rate this question:
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- 16.
A return to an earlier age level of behavior or emotional adjustment during a crisis situation is called
- A.
Projection
- B.
Regression
- C.
Digression
- D.
Redirection
Correct Answer
B. RegressionExplanation
Regression refers to a psychological defense mechanism where an individual reverts to an earlier stage of development or behavior in order to cope with a crisis or stressful situation. This can involve adopting behaviors or emotional responses that were characteristic of an earlier age or stage of development. It is a way for individuals to temporarily escape the demands and stressors of their current situation by retreating to a more familiar and comfortable state.Rate this question:
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- 17.
A formal critical incident stress debriefing:
- A.
Typically takes about 1 hour and is usually conducted with the workplace with the EMS providers supervisor and medical director present.
- B.
Is designed to accelerate the normal recovery process and to help EMS personnel realize that their reaction to a stressful even are normal.
- C.
Is usually a brief defusing session that is typically conducted at the scene of a major incident and facilitates the normal process of grieving
- D.
Is a one-on-one session in which a psychitrist or psychologist meets with each person who was directly involved in an incident that causes stress.
Correct Answer
B. Is designed to accelerate the normal recovery process and to help EMS personnel realize that their reaction to a stressful even are normal.Explanation
A formal critical incident stress debriefing is designed to accelerate the normal recovery process and help EMS personnel understand that their reaction to a stressful event is normal. This type of debriefing typically takes about 1 hour and is conducted in the workplace with the presence of the EMS provider's supervisor and medical director. It aims to provide support and guidance to the individuals involved in order to facilitate their recovery from the incident.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The statement " if i can just live long enough to see my sons wedding, i can die in peace" is indicative of the __________ stage of the grieving process.
- A.
Anger
- B.
Denial
- C.
Depression
- D.
Bargaining
Correct Answer
D. BargainingExplanation
The statement suggests that the person is trying to negotiate or make a deal with fate or a higher power. They are hoping that if they can live long enough to witness their son's wedding, it will bring them a sense of peace before they pass away. This aligns with the bargaining stage of the grieving process, where individuals attempt to find ways to make the situation more manageable or acceptable.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Regardless of a paramedics circadian rhythms, he or she should
- A.
Not overlook the need for rest
- B.
Vary his or her sleep schedule
- C.
Only consume minimal caffeine
- D.
Eat at different times of the day
Correct Answer
A. Not overlook the need for restExplanation
Paramedics work in high-stress and demanding environments, often dealing with life-threatening situations. Rest is crucial for their physical and mental well-being, as it helps them maintain alertness, focus, and decision-making abilities. Regardless of their circadian rhythms, which may be disrupted due to irregular work schedules, it is important for paramedics to prioritize rest to prevent fatigue and burnout. By not overlooking the need for rest, paramedics can ensure that they are in the best condition to provide effective and safe care to their patients.Rate this question:
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- 20.
To protect your back when lifting, you should
- A.
Spread your legs approximately 6 inches apart whenever you lift
- B.
Maintain a slight curvature of your back whenever you lift a patient
- C.
Use the powerful muscles of your lower back to help support weight
- D.
Keep your back in a straight, upright position and lift without twisting
Correct Answer
D. Keep your back in a straight, upright position and lift without twistingExplanation
To protect your back when lifting, it is important to keep your back in a straight, upright position and lift without twisting. This helps to maintain proper alignment of the spine and reduces the risk of straining or injuring the back muscles. Twisting while lifting can put excessive strain on the spine and increase the chances of a back injury. By keeping the back straight and upright, the load is evenly distributed and the powerful muscles of the lower back can effectively support the weight. This technique helps to minimize the risk of back pain or injury while lifting.Rate this question:
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- 21.
When focusing on childhood injury prevention, the highest priorities are assigned to those injuries that are
- A.
Rare, nonfatal and difficult to prevent.
- B.
Common, severe, and readily preventable
- C.
Common,nonfatal, and difficult to prevent
- D.
Uncommon, serious and easily preventable
Correct Answer
B. Common, severe, and readily preventableExplanation
The highest priorities in childhood injury prevention are assigned to injuries that are common, severe, and readily preventable. This means that the focus is on preventing injuries that occur frequently, have serious consequences, and can be easily prevented. By targeting these types of injuries, efforts can be more effective in reducing the overall burden of childhood injuries.Rate this question:
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- 22.
An effective injury prevention program should focus on all of the following data except
- A.
Common injury locations
- B.
Current EMS call volumes
- C.
Typical injury mechanisms
- D.
The mean age of the patient
Correct Answer
B. Current EMS call volumesExplanation
An effective injury prevention program should focus on common injury locations, typical injury mechanisms, and the mean age of the patient. However, it should not necessarily focus on current EMS call volumes. While call volumes can provide some insight into the frequency of injuries, they do not necessarily provide information on the specific locations, mechanisms, or demographics that are important for designing a targeted prevention program. Therefore, current EMS call volumes may not be as relevant or informative for developing an effective injury prevention strategy.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The leading cause of death in the united states is
- A.
Stroke
- B.
Cancer
- C.
Heart disease
- D.
Unintentional injury
Correct Answer
C. Heart diseaseExplanation
Heart disease is the leading cause of death in the United States because it encompasses a variety of conditions that affect the heart, such as coronary artery disease, heart attacks, and heart failure. These conditions can be caused by factors like high blood pressure, high cholesterol, smoking, obesity, and a sedentary lifestyle. Heart disease is a major public health concern and accounts for a significant number of deaths each year. It is important to raise awareness about prevention measures and early detection to reduce the impact of heart disease on individuals and society.Rate this question:
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- 24.
All of the following are economic incentives used to help prevent injury,EXCEPT
- A.
Increasing taxes to install guardrails
- B.
Decreased insurance rates for safe drivers
- C.
Offering free bike helmets to encourage use
- D.
A lawsuit threat against product manufacturers
Correct Answer
A. Increasing taxes to install guardrailsExplanation
Increasing taxes to install guardrails is not an economic incentive used to help prevent injury. Economic incentives typically involve offering rewards or benefits to encourage certain behaviors. In this case, increasing taxes would be a form of punishment or deterrent rather than an incentive. The other options listed, such as decreased insurance rates, offering free bike helmets, and lawsuit threats, all provide incentives or rewards to promote safety and prevent injury.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Airbags installed in an automobiles are more likely to reduce injuries than educating people to wear their seatbelts because.
- A.
Failure to wear a seatbelt is not punishable by law
- B.
Airbags are more effective than seatbelts during a crash
- C.
Airbags do not require conscious effort on a persons part
- D.
Automobile manufacturers are required to install airbags
Correct Answer
C. Airbags do not require conscious effort on a persons partExplanation
Airbags do not require conscious effort on a person's part, unlike wearing seatbelts which rely on individuals actively remembering and choosing to buckle up. This means that even if someone forgets or neglects to wear their seatbelt, they can still benefit from the protection provided by airbags in the event of a crash. This makes airbags more likely to reduce injuries compared to relying solely on educating people to wear their seatbelts.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Proximate cause is MOST likely defined as
- A.
A link between the paramedics improper action and the patients injury
- B.
An action on the part of the paramedic that improved the patients conditions
- C.
A direct relationship between the mechanism of injury and the patients injury
- D.
An act of ordinary or gross negligence that resulted in further harm to the patient.
Correct Answer
A. A link between the paramedics improper action and the patients injuryExplanation
Proximate cause is most likely defined as a link between the paramedic's improper action and the patient's injury. This means that there is a direct connection or relationship between the action taken by the paramedic and the harm or injury suffered by the patient. It suggests that the paramedic's improper action was a significant factor in causing the patient's injury.Rate this question:
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- 27.
In a medical liability suit involving a paramedic, the plantiff
- A.
Must prove that the paramedic broke an established law
- B.
Is the paramedic and is generally represented by a lawyer
- C.
Usually seeks compensation for the jury he or she sustained
- D.
Must convince 6 or 12 jurors to agree with his or her position
Correct Answer
C. Usually seeks compensation for the jury he or she sustainedExplanation
In a medical liability suit involving a paramedic, the plaintiff usually seeks compensation for the injury he or she sustained. This is because in a medical liability suit, the plaintiff is typically the injured party who is seeking financial compensation for the harm they suffered as a result of the paramedic's actions or negligence. The plaintiff's main goal is to convince a jury of 6 or 12 individuals to agree with their position and award them the compensation they are seeking.Rate this question:
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- 28.
You respond to a skilled nursing facility for a patient who is not breathing. When you arrive, you assess the patient, A 78 y/o male, and confirm apnea. However, the patient has a rapid carotid pulse. The charge nurse advises you that, according to the patients family, the patient is not to be resuscitated. You should
- A.
Not attempt any form of resuscitation and ask the charge nurse to notify the patients family immediately.
- B.
Remain at the scene, begin artificial ventilations, but discontinue if the family arrives and presents a valid DNR order.
- C.
Contact medical control and request authorization to provide palliative care only and transport the patient to the hospital.
- D.
Maintain the patients airway, begin artificial ventilations, and transport the patient to the closet appropriate medical facility.
Correct Answer
D. Maintain the patients airway, begin artificial ventilations, and transport the patient to the closet appropriate medical facility.Explanation
The correct answer is to maintain the patient's airway, begin artificial ventilations, and transport the patient to the closest appropriate medical facility. Despite the patient having a valid DNR order, the charge nurse has not presented the order, so it cannot be assumed that resuscitation is prohibited. It is important to provide initial life-saving measures, such as maintaining the airway and providing ventilations, until further clarification is obtained. Transporting the patient to the closest appropriate medical facility ensures that the patient receives the necessary care and evaluation by healthcare professionals.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Generally, the paramedic is not at liberty to disregard a physicians order unless
- A.
The physician is not the paramedics medical director
- B.
The physician is not a licensed emergency physician
- C.
It is documented why the order was not carried out
- D.
Carrying out the order will cause harm to the patient
Correct Answer
D. Carrying out the order will cause harm to the patientExplanation
The paramedic is not at liberty to disregard a physician's order unless carrying out the order will cause harm to the patient. This means that even if the physician is not the paramedic's medical director or a licensed emergency physician, the paramedic still has to follow their orders unless it will negatively impact the patient's well-being. The safety and well-being of the patient are the top priorities for the paramedic, and they must make decisions based on what is best for the patient's health.Rate this question:
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- 30.
A patient who rolls up his or her sleeve so that you can take his or her blood pressure has given you ______ consent.
- A.
Implied
- B.
Informed
- C.
Rational
- D.
Expressed
Correct Answer
D. ExpressedExplanation
When a patient rolls up their sleeve to allow their blood pressure to be taken, they are actively participating and demonstrating their willingness for the procedure. This action can be interpreted as expressed consent, as they are explicitly showing their agreement and giving permission for the healthcare provider to proceed with the blood pressure measurement. Implied consent would be if the patient did not object or resist the procedure, but did not actively indicate their agreement. Informed consent would involve the patient being provided with detailed information about the procedure and potential risks before giving their consent. Rational consent refers to the patient making an informed decision based on their understanding of the situation and their best interests.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Ethics is MOST accurately defined as
- A.
The philosophy of right and wrong, or moral duties, and of ideal professional behavior.
- B.
The professional behavior that a person's peers as well as the general public expect.
- C.
Behavior that is consistent with the law and an attitude that society in general expects.
- D.
A code of conduct that can be defined by society, religion, or a person, affecting character, conduct, and conscience.
Correct Answer
A. The philosophy of right and wrong, or moral duties, and of ideal professional behavior.Explanation
Ethics is the study of what is morally right and wrong, as well as the principles and values that guide ideal professional behavior. It goes beyond simply following the law or meeting societal expectations. Ethics involves considering moral duties and making decisions based on principles that promote fairness, honesty, and integrity. It is a philosophical inquiry into the nature of morality and how it applies to various aspects of life, including professional conduct.Rate this question:
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- 32.
A do not resuscitate (DNR) order is MOST accurately defined as a:
- A.
Written order designed to tell health care providers when resuscitation is or is not appropriate.
- B.
Legal document that is executed by the patient while he or she still has decision-making capacity.
- C.
Written or oral directive that stipulates the care that a patient should receive at the end of his or her life
- D.
Legal document signed by at least two physicians that prohibits resuscitative efforts in terminally ill patients.
Correct Answer
A. Written order designed to tell health care providers when resuscitation is or is not appropriate.Explanation
A do not resuscitate (DNR) order is a written order that provides instructions to healthcare providers regarding whether or not resuscitation efforts should be performed on a patient. It is a directive that informs healthcare providers about the patient's wishes regarding resuscitation in the event of cardiac or respiratory arrest. This order is designed to ensure that the patient's preferences are respected and followed by healthcare providers.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Resuscitation efforts would most likely NOT be initiated on a patient with;
- A.
Blunt trauma arrest
- B.
Witnessed cardiac arrest
- C.
An extensive cardiac history
- D.
Hypothermic cardiac arrest
Correct Answer
A. Blunt trauma arrestExplanation
Resuscitation efforts would most likely NOT be initiated on a patient with blunt trauma arrest because in this case, the patient's cardiac arrest is a result of severe trauma to the body, such as a car accident or a fall. The primary focus would be on addressing the underlying trauma and stabilizing the patient's condition before attempting resuscitation. In some cases, resuscitation efforts may be futile due to the extent of the trauma and the poor prognosis.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The first rule of medical practice is to
- A.
Do no harm
- B.
Provide medical care
- C.
Maintain a sympathetic attitude
- D.
Recognize critically ill patients
Correct Answer
A. Do no harmExplanation
The first rule of medical practice is to "do no harm" because it emphasizes the importance of prioritizing the well-being and safety of patients. This principle guides healthcare professionals to avoid actions or interventions that may cause harm or worsen the patient's condition. It highlights the ethical responsibility of healthcare providers to prioritize patient safety and ensure that their actions and decisions are in the best interest of the patient's health and well-being.Rate this question:
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- 35.
A solution of water with 0.9% sodium chloride is
- A.
Hypnotic until it is introduced into the body
- B.
Capable of carrying oxygen when it is infused
- C.
Of minimal value in expanding the vascular space
- D.
Also called normal saline and is an isotonic solution
Correct Answer
D. Also called normal saline and is an isotonic solutionExplanation
A solution of water with 0.9% sodium chloride is commonly known as normal saline and is considered an isotonic solution. This means that it has the same concentration of dissolved particles as the body's cells and fluids, making it compatible with the body's tissues. Normal saline is often used in medical settings for various purposes, such as rehydrating patients, flushing wounds, or administering medications. It is not hypnotic, does not carry oxygen, and has value in expanding the vascular space.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The most important point to remember about IV therapy is to
- A.
Locate the largest vein
- B.
Wear two pairs of gloves
- C.
Keep the IV equipment sterile
- D.
Prepare all supplies ahead of time
Correct Answer
C. Keep the IV equipment sterileExplanation
The most important point to remember about IV therapy is to keep the IV equipment sterile. This is crucial to prevent infections and complications that can arise from contaminated equipment. Sterility ensures that no harmful bacteria or microorganisms are introduced into the patient's bloodstream, reducing the risk of infection. By maintaining a sterile environment, healthcare professionals can provide safe and effective IV therapy to patients.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which of the following questions does the paramedic generally NOT ask himself or herself when determining the most appropriate IV solution to use on a patient?
- A.
Is the patients condition critical?
- B.
Will the patient need medications?
- C.
Has the patient had IV therapy before?
- D.
Will the patient need fluid replacement?
Correct Answer
C. Has the patient had IV therapy before?Explanation
The paramedic generally does not ask himself or herself if the patient has had IV therapy before when determining the most appropriate IV solution to use on a patient. This is because the patient's previous experience with IV therapy does not affect the decision-making process for choosing the appropriate IV solution. The paramedic needs to consider the patient's condition, whether the patient will need medications, and if the patient will need fluid replacement in order to determine the most appropriate IV solution.Rate this question:
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- 38.
A microdrip administration set
- A.
Allows 10 or 15 drops per mililiter
- B.
Delivers 1 mililiter for every 60 drops.
- C.
Should be used when patients need fluid replacement
- D.
Does not contain a needlelike orifice in its drip chamber
Correct Answer
B. Delivers 1 mililiter for every 60 drops.Explanation
The correct answer is "delivers 1 milliliter for every 60 drops." This means that for every 60 drops that fall from the microdrip administration set, 1 milliliter of fluid is delivered. This information is important for healthcare professionals who need to accurately measure and administer fluids to patients.Rate this question:
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- 39.
When preparing an IV administration set, you should perform all of the following EXCEPT.
- A.
Invert the bag if the drip chamber contains too much fluid
- B.
Run IV fluid through the administration set to flush air out
- C.
Fill the drip chamber of the administration set half-way with IV fluid
- D.
Cleanse the piercing spike before inserting it into the IV bag
Correct Answer
D. Cleanse the piercing spike before inserting it into the IV bagExplanation
When preparing an IV administration set, it is important to perform all of the mentioned steps except for cleansing the piercing spike before inserting it into the IV bag. Cleansing the piercing spike is not necessary as it is already sterile and does not need to be cleaned. The other steps mentioned are important for ensuring the proper functioning and safety of the IV administration set. Inverting the bag if the drip chamber contains too much fluid helps to remove any excess air. Running IV fluid through the administration set helps to flush out any air bubbles. Filling the drip chamber halfway with IV fluid ensures that there is enough fluid for proper flow.Rate this question:
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- 40.
When selecting a vein for cannulation, you should avoid areas of the vein that;
- A.
Are straight
- B.
Pass over joints
- C.
Are firm and springy
- D.
Appear to be straight
Correct Answer
B. Pass over jointsExplanation
When selecting a vein for cannulation, it is important to avoid areas of the vein that pass over joints. This is because the movement of the joint can cause the vein to be compressed or occluded, making it difficult to insert the cannula and potentially causing discomfort or complications for the patient. Therefore, it is best to choose a vein that does not pass over a joint to ensure successful cannulation and minimize the risk of complications.Rate this question:
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- 41.
When initiating an IV line in the upper extremity of a stable patient, you should
- A.
Always use the antecubital vein
- B.
Look at the anterior forearm first
- C.
Start proximally and work distally
- D.
Start distally and work proximally
Correct Answer
D. Start distally and work proximallyExplanation
When initiating an IV line in the upper extremity of a stable patient, it is recommended to start distally and work proximally. This means that the healthcare provider should begin by looking for suitable veins in the hand or wrist area and then gradually move towards the upper arm if necessary. Starting distally allows for easier access to veins and reduces the risk of complications such as infiltration or nerve injury. Additionally, it allows for better control and visualization of the needle insertion site.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Through which of the following over-the-needle catheters can you infuse the greatest amount of fluid over the shortest period of time
- A.
16 gauge, 1 1/4
- B.
14 gauge, 1 1/4
- C.
18 gauge, 2 1/4
- D.
14 gauge, 2 1/4
Correct Answer
B. 14 gauge, 1 1/4Explanation
The 14 gauge, 1 1/4 over-the-needle catheter can infuse the greatest amount of fluid over the shortest period of time. This is because the gauge size refers to the diameter of the catheter, and a larger gauge size allows for a greater flow rate of fluid. Additionally, the length of the catheter does not affect the flow rate, so the 1 1/4 length is sufficient for the desired infusion.Rate this question:
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- 43.
If an adult patient is in hypovolemic shock, you should attempt to insert a/an ___gauge over-the-needle catheter into the____ vein.
- A.
14, antecubital vein
- B.
16, metacarpal vein
- C.
14, metacarpal vein
- D.
18, external jugular vein
Correct Answer
A. 14, antecubital veinExplanation
In hypovolemic shock, the patient has lost a significant amount of blood or fluids, resulting in decreased blood volume. To help restore the blood volume, a larger gauge catheter is needed to ensure rapid fluid administration. The antecubital vein, located in the bend of the elbow, is a commonly used site for venous access in adults. It is a large and easily accessible vein, making it suitable for inserting a 14-gauge over-the-needle catheter. This allows for efficient fluid resuscitation to stabilize the patient's condition.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Regardless of the technique you use to start an IV, you should always
- A.
Apply a tight constricting band proximal to the selected vein for approximately 5 minutes
- B.
Use an over-the-needle catheter that features an automatic needle retraction system for added safety
- C.
Obtain blood samples for emergency department staff by attaching a syringe to the hub of the IV catheter
- D.
Keep the beveled side of the catheter up during insertion and maintain adequate traction on the vein during cannulation
Correct Answer
D. Keep the beveled side of the catheter up during insertion and maintain adequate traction on the vein during cannulationExplanation
When starting an IV, it is important to keep the beveled side of the catheter up during insertion. This allows for easier entry into the vein and reduces the risk of damaging the vein or causing discomfort to the patient. Additionally, maintaining adequate traction on the vein during cannulation helps to stabilize the vein and prevent it from rolling or moving during the procedure. This ensures a successful insertion and reduces the risk of complications such as infiltration or extravasation.Rate this question:
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- 45.
After observing a flash of blood in the IV catheter's flash chamber, you should
- A.
Remove the proximal constricting band and then slide the catheter off the needle and into the vein
- B.
Carefully raise the angle of the catheter to approximately 45 degrees and thread the catheter off the needle
- C.
Apply pressure to the vein just proximal to the end of the indwelling catheter and remove the needle
- D.
Immediately drop the angle of the catheter to about 15 degrees and advance the catheter a few more centimeters
Correct Answer
D. Immediately drop the angle of the catheter to about 15 degrees and advance the catheter a few more centimeters -
- 46.
After attaching the prepared IV line to the hub of the IV catheter and removing the constricting band, you should
- A.
Set the IV flow rate to keep the vein open KVO
- B.
Open the IV line and observe for swelling or infiltration
- C.
Apply a sterile gauze pad directly over the venipuncture site
- D.
Secure the catheter and tubing in place with a commercial device
Correct Answer
B. Open the IV line and observe for swelling or infiltrationExplanation
After attaching the prepared IV line to the hub of the IV catheter and removing the constricting band, opening the IV line and observing for swelling or infiltration is the correct next step. This is important to ensure that the IV fluid is flowing properly and there are no complications such as swelling or infiltration of the medication into the surrounding tissues. By observing for these signs, any issues can be identified and addressed promptly to prevent further complications.Rate this question:
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- 47.
When changing an IV bag, it is important to;
- A.
Ensure that fluid remains in the drip chamber
- B.
Attach a new fluid administration set to the bag
- C.
Ensure that the tubing is completely depleted of fluid
- D.
Allow the bag to become completely depleted of fluid
Correct Answer
A. Ensure that fluid remains in the drip chamberExplanation
When changing an IV bag, it is important to ensure that fluid remains in the drip chamber because the drip chamber acts as a visual indicator of the flow rate of the fluid. If the drip chamber becomes empty, it may indicate that the flow rate is too fast or that the fluid is not flowing properly. By ensuring that fluid remains in the drip chamber, healthcare professionals can monitor the flow rate and ensure that the patient is receiving the correct amount of fluid.Rate this question:
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- 48.
If you discover that an IV is not flowing sufficiently, you should
- A.
Check the height of the IV bag
- B.
Reapply the constricting band
- C.
Discontinue the IV infusion
- D.
Pull back on the IV catheter
Correct Answer
A. Check the height of the IV bagExplanation
To ensure that an IV is flowing sufficiently, it is important to check the height of the IV bag. The height of the IV bag affects the rate of flow, as gravity plays a role in the infusion process. If the bag is too low, the flow may be too slow, while if it is too high, the flow may be too fast. By checking the height of the IV bag, healthcare professionals can adjust it accordingly to ensure the proper flow rate for the patient.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Edema at the IV catheter site and continued IV flow after occlusion of the vein above the insertion site are signs of
- A.
Phlebitis
- B.
Infection
- C.
Infiltration
- D.
Thrombophlebitis
Correct Answer
C. InfiltrationExplanation
Infiltration refers to the leakage of IV fluid into the surrounding tissue instead of flowing into the vein. Edema at the IV catheter site and continued IV flow after occlusion of the vein above the insertion site are both signs of infiltration. This occurs when the IV catheter punctures the vein wall or is dislodged, allowing the fluid to escape into the tissue. Infiltration can cause pain, swelling, and coolness at the site, and if left untreated, it can lead to tissue damage.Rate this question:
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- 50.
If an adult patient does NOT require fluid replacement, a/an ___or___ gauge over-the-needle catheter is usually an appropriate size to use.
- A.
14,16
- B.
16,18
- C.
18,20
- D.
22,24
Correct Answer
C. 18,20Explanation
If an adult patient does not require fluid replacement, a 18 or 20 gauge over-the-needle catheter is usually an appropriate size to use. This means that the diameter of the catheter should be either 18 or 20 gauge. These sizes are commonly used for adult patients who do not need fluid replacement.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Feb 20, 2011Quiz Created by
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