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Micro Exam 3

52 Questions
DNA Quizzes & Trivia

Summer Micro Test 3 study quiz for the final.

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Among the microorganisms, various genomes can include
    • A. 

      Chromosomes

    • B. 

      Plasmids

    • C. 

      Mitochondrial DNA

    • D. 

      Chloroplast DNA

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct

  • 2. 
    Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from prokaryotic chromosomes because only eukaryotes have
    • A. 

      Histone proteins

    • B. 

      Chromosomes in a nucleus

    • C. 

      Several to many chromosomes

    • D. 

      Elongated, not circular, chromosomes

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 3. 
    The antiparralel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to
    • A. 

      Each base bonding at the 1' position of the sugar

    • B. 

      A purine always bonding to a pyrimidine

    • C. 

      One helix strand that runs from 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction

    • D. 

      An original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 4. 
    Which enzyme fills in the spaces between the Okazaki fragments with the correct nucleotide
    • A. 

      DNA ligase

    • B. 

      DNA polymerases

    • C. 

      DNA helicases

    • D. 

      DNA gyrases

    • E. 

      Primases

  • 5. 
    The enzymes that can proofread replicating DNA, detect incorrect bases, excise them, and correctly replace them are
    • A. 

      DNA ligases

    • B. 

      DNA polymerases

    • C. 

      DNA helicases

    • D. 

      DNA gyrases

    • E. 

      Primases

  • 6. 
    The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are called
    • A. 

      Ribosomal RNA

    • B. 

      Messenger RNA

    • C. 

      Transfer RNA

    • D. 

      Primer RNA

    • E. 

      Ribozymes

  • 7. 
    This molecule is transcribed from the DNA template strand and later translated
    • A. 

      Ribosomal RNA

    • B. 

      Messenger RNA

    • C. 

      Transfer RNA

    • D. 

      Primer RNA

    • E. 

      Protein

  • 8. 
    RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because only RNA
    • A. 

      Has ribose

    • B. 

      Has uracil

    • C. 

      Is typically one strand of nucleotides

    • D. 

      Does not have thymine

    • E. 

      All of the above are correct

  • 9. 
    If a codon for alanine is GCA, then the anitcodon is
    • A. 

      GCA

    • B. 

      CGT

    • C. 

      ACG

    • D. 

      CGU

    • E. 

      UGC

  • 10. 
    Which is incorrect about inducible operons
    • A. 

      They have genes turned offf by a buildup of end product

    • B. 

      They are often for catabolic pathways

    • C. 

      They are normally turned off

    • D. 

      They are turned on by the substate of the enzyme

    • E. 

      They include the lac operon

  • 11. 
    A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a
    • A. 

      Point mutation

    • B. 

      Silent mutation

    • C. 

      Back mutation

    • D. 

      Missense mutation

    • E. 

      Nonsense mutation

  • 12. 
    T/F  Conjugation is that act at which two or more eukaryotic cells come together and exchange DNA. All cells must have a unique pilus in order for the cells to bind.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 13. 
    This test is used to measure a chemicals capacity to cause mutation
    • A. 

      Amos test

    • B. 

      Griffith Test

    • C. 

      Ames Test

    • D. 

      Susceptibility test

    • E. 

      The bar-bar test

  • 14. 
    The use of an organism's biochemical processes to crate a product is
    • A. 

      Genetic engineering

    • B. 

      Biotechnology

    • C. 

      Recombinant dna

    • D. 

      Gel elctrophoreses

    • E. 

      Gene probes

  • 15. 
    The various techniquest by which scientist manipulate DNA in the lab are called
    • A. 

      Genetic engineering

    • B. 

      Biotechnology

    • C. 

      Recominant DNA

    • D. 

      Gel electrophoresis

    • E. 

      Gene probes

  • 16. 
    A technique that separates a readable pattern of DNA fragment is
    • A. 

      Genetic engineering

    • B. 

      Biotechnology

    • C. 

      Recombinant DNA

    • D. 

      Gel electrophoresis

    • E. 

      Gene probes

  • 17. 
    EcoRI and HindIII are
    • A. 

      Palindromes

    • B. 

      Reverse transcriptase

    • C. 

      Restriction endonucleases

    • D. 

      Ligases

    • E. 

      DNA polymerases

  • 18. 
    Sequences to DNA that are identical when read from the 5' to 3' direction on one strand and the 3' to 5' direction on the other strand are
    • A. 

      Palindrones

    • B. 

      Reverse transcriptases

    • C. 

      Restriction endonucleases

    • D. 

      Ligases

    • E. 

      DNA polymerases

  • 19. 
    Analysis of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis involves
    • A. 

      Larger fragments move slowly and remain closer to the wells

    • B. 

      DNA has an overall negative charge and moves to the positive pole

    • C. 

      DNA fragments are stained to see them

    • D. 

      An electric current through the gel causes DNA fragments to migrate

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 20. 
    The Western Blot technique detects
    • A. 

      DNA

    • B. 

      RNA

    • C. 

      Proteins

    • D. 

      Recombinant DNA

    • E. 

      Specific gentic marker sequence on genes

  • 21. 
    Ethidium bromide and malachite green do what to DNA
    • A. 

      Are known carcinogens because they cause theymine dimmers

    • B. 

      Are known carcinogens because they intercalate with DNA

    • C. 

      Are known carcinogens because they inhibit repair enzyme

    • D. 

      Are just mutagens

  • 22. 
    DNA polymerases used in PCR
    • A. 

      Use an RNA template to make complementary DNA

    • B. 

      Must remain active at very cold temperatures

    • C. 

      Include Taq polymerase

    • D. 

      Are labeled with fluorescent dyes

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 23. 
    The Southern Blot technique detects
    • A. 

      DNA

    • B. 

      RNA

    • C. 

      Proteins

    • D. 

      Recombinant DNA

    • E. 

      Specific genetic marker sequence on genes

  • 24. 
    The polymersase chain reaction (PCR) has been used in all of the following fields except
    • A. 

      Forensics

    • B. 

      Evolutionary studies

    • C. 

      Gene mapping

    • D. 

      Medicine

    • E. 

      None of the choices, it is usefull in all of these fields

  • 25. 
    T/F  Reverse transcriptase is used to make cDNA from an RNA template
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 26. 
    T/F Vectors often contain a gene conferring drug resistance to their cloning host, in order to detect cells harboring the plasmid
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 27. 
    The rate of migration of macromolecules in gel electrophoresis depends on what characteristics
    • A. 

      Concentration of agarose gel

    • B. 

      The voltage

    • C. 

      Size of DNA fragment

    • D. 

      Only a and b

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 28. 
    T/F  Southern blots may be used to probe for specific gene sequences. Thus this is an alternative tool to use to ensure a host cell picked up the donor plasmid
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 29. 
    T/F  It is important that an ideal vector have a point of replication and have relatively large genomes
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 30. 
    Physical agents for controlling microbial growth include all of the following except
    • A. 

      Ultraviolet radiation

    • B. 

      Boiling water

    • C. 

      HEPA filters

    • D. 

      Pasteurization

    • E. 

      Hydrogen peroxide

  • 31. 
    Which of the following microbial froms have the highest resistance to physical and chemical controls
    • A. 

      Naked viruses

    • B. 

      Porozoan cyst

    • C. 

      Fugal spores

    • D. 

      Bacterial endospores

    • E. 

      Yeast

  • 32. 
    The use of a physical or chemical process to destroy vegetative pathogens on fomites is
    • A. 

      Disinfection

    • B. 

      Sterilization

    • C. 

      Antisepsis

    • D. 

      Sanitization

    • E. 

      Degermation

  • 33. 
    The use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegatative pathogens is
    • A. 

      Disinfection

    • B. 

      Sterilization

    • C. 

      Antisepsis

    • D. 

      Sanitization

    • E. 

      Degermation

  • 34. 
    Sterilization is achieved by
    • A. 

      Flash pasteurization

    • B. 

      Hot water

    • C. 

      Boiling water

    • D. 

      Steam autoclave

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 35. 
    Dry heat
    • A. 

      Is less efficient than moist heat

    • B. 

      Cannot sterilize

    • C. 

      Includes tyndalliztion

    • D. 

      Is used in devices called autoclaves

    • E. 

      Will sterilize at 121 degrees celcius for 15 minutes

  • 36. 
    The minimum sterilizing conditions in a steam autoclave are
    • A. 

      121 C at 15 psi for 15 minutes

    • B. 

      63 C for 30 minutes

    • C. 

      160 C for 2 hours

    • D. 

      71.6 C for 15 seconds

    • E. 

      100 C for 30 minutes

  • 37. 
    Iodophors include
    • A. 

      Chloromines

    • B. 

      Betadine

    • C. 

      Tincture of idodine

    • D. 

      Alcohols

    • E. 

      Chlorhexidine

  • 38. 
    The sterilizing gas used in a special chamber that typically sterilizes soft plastics is
    • A. 

      Ethylend oxide

    • B. 

      Iodophor

    • C. 

      Glutaraldehyde

    • D. 

      Formaldehyde

    • E. 

      Chlorine dioxide

  • 39. 
    All of the following are methods of disinfection or sterilization except
    • A. 

      Gamma radiation

    • B. 

      Dry oven

    • C. 

      Lyophilization

    • D. 

      Triclosan

    • E. 

      Ethanold

  • 40. 
    Subastances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy other microorganisms are called
    • A. 

      Antibiotics

    • B. 

      Narrow-spectrum drugs

    • C. 

      Semisynthetic drugs

    • D. 

      Synthetic drugs

    • E. 

      Broad spectrum drugs

  • 41. 
    Antimicrobics effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed
    • A. 

      Antibiotics

    • B. 

      Narrow spectrum drugs

    • C. 

      Semisynthetic drugs

    • D. 

      Synthetic drugs

    • E. 

      Broad spectrum drugs

  • 42. 
    Important characteristics of antimicrobic drugs include
    • A. 

      Readily delivered to the site of infection

    • B. 

      High toxicity against microbial cells

    • C. 

      Do not casue serious side effects in humans

    • D. 

      Remains active in body tissues and fluids

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 43. 
    Penicillins and cephalosporins
    • A. 

      Interfere with elongation of pertidoglycan

    • B. 

      Are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis

    • C. 

      Attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protien synthesis

    • D. 

      Damage cell membranes

    • E. 

      Block peptidase that cross-link glycan molecules

  • 44. 
    Aminoglycosides
    • A. 

      Interfere with elongation of pertidoglycan

    • B. 

      Are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis

    • C. 

      Attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protien synthesis

    • D. 

      Damage cell membranes

    • E. 

      Block peptidase that cross-link glycan molecules

  • 45. 
    Sulfonamides
    • A. 

      Interfere with elongation of pertidoglycan

    • B. 

      Are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis

    • C. 

      Attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protien synthesis

    • D. 

      Damage cell membranes

    • E. 

      Block peptidase that cross-link glycan molecules

  • 46. 
    Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all have
    • A. 

      A beta-lactam ring

    • B. 

      Resistance to the action of penicillinase

    • C. 

      Semisynthetic structure

    • D. 

      Expanded specturm of activity

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 47. 
    Gram negative rods are often treated with
    • A. 

      Penicillin G

    • B. 

      Vancomycin

    • C. 

      Aminoglycosides

    • D. 

      Synercid

    • E. 

      Isoniasid

  • 48. 
    This drug is used to treat cases of tuberculosis
    • A. 

      Penicillin G

    • B. 

      Vancomycin

    • C. 

      Aminoglycosides

    • D. 

      Synercid

    • E. 

      Isoniasid

  • 49. 
    Antimicrobics that are macrolides
    • A. 

      Disrupt cell membrane function

    • B. 

      Include tetracyclines

    • C. 

      Include azithromycin, clarithromycin, and erythromycin

    • D. 

      Are very narrow spectrum

    • E. 

      Are hepatoxic

  • 50. 
    An antiviral that is a guanine analog would have an antiviral mode of action that
    • A. 

      Blocks penetration

    • B. 

      Blocks DNA replication

    • C. 

      Inhibits peptidogycan cross linking

    • D. 

      Blocks maturation

    • E. 

      Bonds to ergosterol in cell wall

  • 51. 
    Antivirals that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat
    • A. 

      Influenza A virus

    • B. 

      HIV

    • C. 

      Herpes zozter virus

    • D. 

      Respiratory syncytial virus

    • E. 

      Hapatitis C virus

  • 52. 
    Acyclovir is used to treat
    • A. 

      Influenza A virus

    • B. 

      HIV

    • C. 

      Shingles,. chicken pox, herpes

    • D. 

      Respiratory syncytial virus

    • E. 

      Hapatitis C virus