Lom Review Chap. 15 , Sxs Review Chap. 14

126 Questions  I  By Coofoogirl555
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Lom Review Chap. 15 , Sxs Review Chap. 14
Review week 1 mod 4

  
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  • 1. 
    Spongy, pporous bone tissue is also called
    • A. 

      Yellow bone marrow

    • B. 

      Bone fissure

    • C. 

      Compact bone

    • D. 

      Bone sinus

    • E. 

      Cancellous bone


  • 2. 
    Outward extension of the shoulder bone is the
    • A. 

      Xiphoid process

    • B. 

      Acetabulum

    • C. 

      Acromion

    • D. 

      Vertebral arch

    • E. 

      Patella


  • 3. 
    An opening or passage in bones where blood vessels and nerves enter and leave is a
    • A. 

      Fissure

    • B. 

      Sulcus

    • C. 

      Tuberosity

    • D. 

      Foramen

    • E. 

      Fossa


  • 4. 
    The projection of the temporal bone is the
    • A. 

      Malleolus

    • B. 

      Epiphysis

    • C. 

      Xiphoid process

    • D. 

      Mastoid process

    • E. 

      Tubercle


  • 5. 
    Knuckle-like process at the end of a bone is call a
    • A. 

      Fontanelle

    • B. 

      Tuberosity

    • C. 

      Trochanter

    • D. 

      Xiphoid process

    • E. 

      Condyle


  • 6. 
    Mandible, vomer, maxilla, and zygomatic are all bones of the
    • A. 

      Face

    • B. 

      Cranium

    • C. 

      Spine

    • D. 

      Pelvis

    • E. 

      Thorax


  • 7. 
    Occipital, sphenoid, frontal, temporal, and ethmoid are bones of the
    • A. 

      Face

    • B. 

      Cranium

    • C. 

      Spine

    • D. 

      Pelvis

    • E. 

      Thorax


  • 8. 
    The shaft of a long bone is call a(n)
    • A. 

      Olecranon

    • B. 

      Periosteum

    • C. 

      Osteoclast

    • D. 

      Epiphysis

    • E. 

      Diaphysis


  • 9. 
    Poor formation of bone
    • A. 

      Osteolysis

    • B. 

      Osteodystrophy

    • C. 

      Decalcification

    • D. 

      Myelopoiesis

    • E. 

      Osteoclasis


  • 10. 
    Operation performed to relieve the symptoms of a slipped disk
    • A. 

      Patellapexy

    • B. 

      Arthroscopy

    • C. 

      Osteoclasis

    • D. 

      Laminectomy

    • E. 

      Metacarpectomy


  • 11. 
    Lateral curvature of the spinal column
    • A. 

      Lordosis

    • B. 

      Scoliosis

    • C. 

      Kyphosis

    • D. 

      Spina bifida

    • E. 

      Pubic symphysis


  • 12. 
    Vitamin d deficiency leads to softening of bone, which is known as
    • A. 

      Osteomalacia

    • B. 

      Lumbago

    • C. 

      Osteogenesis imperfecta

    • D. 

      Osteoporosis

    • E. 

      Hypercalcemia


  • 13. 
    Pertaining to the upper arm bone
    • A. 

      Humeral

    • B. 

      Tibial

    • C. 

      Radial

    • D. 

      Ulnar

    • E. 

      Carpal


  • 14. 
    The shoulder bone is the
    • A. 

      Patella

    • B. 

      Sternum

    • C. 

      Scapula

    • D. 

      Clavicle

    • E. 

      Vertebra


  • 15. 
    The smaller of the two lower leg bones is the
    • A. 

      Calcaneus

    • B. 

      Tibia

    • C. 

      Fibula

    • D. 

      Tarsal bone

    • E. 

      Malleolus


  • 16. 
    Inflammation of bone and bone marrow
    • A. 

      Osteitis fibrosa cystica

    • B. 

      Multiple myeloma

    • C. 

      Osteomyelitis

    • D. 

      Osteoporosis

    • E. 

      Osteochondroma


  • 17. 
    Clubfoot
    • A. 

      Exostosis

    • B. 

      Osteogenic sarcoma

    • C. 

      Bunion

    • D. 

      Talipes

    • E. 

      Bursitis


  • 18. 
    A splintered or crushed bone
    • A. 

      Comminuted fracture

    • B. 

      Greenstick fracture

    • C. 

      Crepitation

    • D. 

      Compression fracture

    • E. 

      Impacted fracture


  • 19. 
    Surgical repair of a joint
    • A. 

      Arthroplasty

    • B. 

      Fasciectomy

    • C. 

      Achondroplasia

    • D. 

      Tenorrhaphy

    • E. 

      Arthrosis


  • 20. 
    Condition of stiffening and immobility of a joint
    • A. 

      Hemarthrosis

    • B. 

      Fibrositis

    • C. 

      Bursitis

    • D. 

      Kyphosis

    • E. 

      Ankylosis


  • 21. 
    Chronic inflammation of bones and joints due to degenerative changes in cartilage
    • A. 

      Ankylosing spondylitis

    • B. 

      Rheumatoid arthritis

    • C. 

      Chondromalacia

    • D. 

      Osteoarthritis

    • E. 

      Systemic lupus erythematosus


  • 22. 
    Inflammation of joints caused by excessive uric acid accumulation
    • A. 

      Bunion

    • B. 

      Bursitis

    • C. 

      Gouty arthritis

    • D. 

      Sciatica

    • E. 

      Myositis


  • 23. 
    Wasting away (no development ) of muscle
    • A. 

      Myasthenia

    • B. 

      Myalgia

    • C. 

      Hypertrophy

    • D. 

      Atrophy

    • E. 

      Myositis


  • 24. 
    Act of turning the palm forward or upward
    • A. 

      Supination

    • B. 

      Pronation


  • 25. 
    Muscle connected to internal organs
    • A. 

      Skeletal

    • B. 

      Visceral


  • 26. 
    Connection of muscle to the bone that moves
    • A. 

      Origin

    • B. 

      Insertion


  • 27. 
    Connection of muscle to a stationary bone
    • A. 

      Origin

    • B. 

      Insertion


  • 28. 
    The shaft of a long bone is called the _____________

  • 29. 
    The physician who treats bones and bone diseases is a(n) ______________

  • 30. 
    A sac of fluid near a joint is a(n) ___________

  • 31. 
    Smooth cartilage that surrounds the surface of bones at joints is ________

  • 32. 
    Surgical repair of a joint is called ___________

  • 33. 
    Upper arm bone:_____________

  • 34. 
    Wrist bones:____________

  • 35. 
    Backbone:_________________

  • 36. 
    Tumor (benign) of cartilage: _________oma

  • 37. 
    Stiffened, immobile joint:_________osis

  • 38. 
    Suture of a tendon: ten_________

  • 39. 
    Inflammation of a sac of fluid near a joint: ________itis

  • 40. 
    Suture of a tendon: teno_____________

  • 41. 
    Tumor (benign) of smooth, visceral muscle: _________oma

  • 42. 
    Inflammation of the backbone with stiffness in the joints: ___________ing  __________itis

  • 43. 
    Burs/o

  • 44. 
    Calc/o

  • 45. 
    Lamin/o

  • 46. 
    Maxill/o

  • 47. 
    Metatars/o

  • 48. 
    Myel/o

  • 49. 
    Phalang/o

  • 50. 
    Ribs

  • 51. 
    Skull

  • 52. 
    Smooth muscle

  • 53. 
    Ilium

  • 54. 
    Crooked, bent (lateral curvature of spine)

  • 55. 
    Lower arm bone (thumb side)

  • 56. 
    Lower jaw bone

  • 57. 
    -algia

  • 58. 
    -asthenia

  • 59. 
    -listhesis

  • 60. 
    -porosis

  • 61. 
    A-, an-

  • 62. 
    Ab-

  • 63. 
    Dia-

  • 64. 
    Dorsi-

  • 65. 
    Epi-

  • 66. 
    Poly-

  • 67. 
    Sub-

  • 68. 
    Large process below the neck of the femur
    • A. 

      Calcaneus

    • B. 

      Occipital bone

    • C. 

      Epiphysis

    • D. 

      Trochanter

    • E. 

      Ischium


  • 69. 
    Bones are fused across the joint space
    • A. 

      Arthrodesis

    • B. 

      Podagra

    • C. 

      Sprain

    • D. 

      Bursa

    • E. 

      Synovitis


  • 70. 
    Bloood condition found in gouty arthritis
    • A. 

      Hyperuricemia

    • B. 

      Supination

    • C. 

      Strain

    • D. 

      Pyrexia

    • E. 

      Polymyositis


  • 71. 
    Benign tumors arising from the bone surface
    • A. 

      Talipes

    • B. 

      Scoliosis

    • C. 

      Lordosis

    • D. 

      Exostoses

    • E. 

      Spondylolisthesis


  • 72. 
    Abnormal swelling of a metatarsophalangeal joint
    • A. 

      Lyme disease

    • B. 

      Rheumatoid arthritis

    • C. 

      Bunion

    • D. 

      Ganglion

    • E. 

      Systemic lupus erythematosus


  • 73. 
    Pronation
    • A. 

      Movement away from the midline

    • B. 

      Turning the palm backward

    • C. 

      Straightening out a limb

    • D. 

      Movement toward the midline


  • 74. 
    TMJ
    • A. 

      A condition affecting the wrist and caused by pressure on a nerve

    • B. 

      Type of parenteral injection

    • C. 

      The articulation between a bone on the side of the cranium and the lower jaw bone

    • D. 

      Process of recording muscle contractions

    • E. 

      Connective tissue joining bones in the anterior portion of the knee


  • 75. 
    T1-T12
    • A. 

      Medication that treats inflammatory conditions

    • B. 

      Bones in the back that are connected to ribs

    • C. 

      Chronic inflammatory joint condition marked by damage to articular cartilage and ankylosis in smaller joints of the hands and feet


  • 76. 
    Outward extension of the shoulder blade
    • A. 

      Acromion

    • B. 

      Calcium

    • C. 

      Cartilage

    • D. 

      Condyle


  • 77. 
    Minute spaces filled with blood vessels; found in complact bone
    • A. 

      Facial bones

    • B. 

      Fantanelle

    • C. 

      Fossa

    • D. 

      Haversian canals


  • 78. 
    Central hollowed-out area in the shaft of a long bone
    • A. 

      Mastoid process

    • B. 

      Medullary cavity

    • C. 

      Osteoblast

    • D. 

      Periosteum


  • 79. 
    Membrane surrounding bones
    • A. 

      Osteoclast

    • B. 

      Metaphysis

    • C. 

      Mastoid process

    • D. 

      Periosteum


  • 80. 
    Soft bone tissue found in cancellous bone; contains hematopoietic stem cells and blood cells
    • A. 

      Pubic symphysis

    • B. 

      Sella turcica

    • C. 

      Red bone marrow

    • D. 

      Sinus


  • 81. 
    Large process at the neck of the femur
    • A. 

      Styloid process

    • B. 

      Trabeculae

    • C. 

      Phosphorus

    • D. 

      Trochanter


  • 82. 
    Hollow air cavity with a bone
    • A. 

      Sinus

    • B. 

      Sella turcica

    • C. 

      Tubercle

    • D. 

      Pubic symphysis


  • 83. 
    Rounded process on bone; attachment for muscles and tendons
    • A. 

      Ribs

    • B. 

      Tuberosity

    • C. 

      Xiphoid process

    • D. 

      Vertebra


  • 84. 
    Space between bones at a freely movable joint
    • A. 

      Ligament

    • B. 

      Suture joint

    • C. 

      Synovial fluid

    • D. 

      Synovial cavity


  • 85. 
    A freely movable joint
    • A. 

      Synovial membrane

    • B. 

      Ligament

    • C. 

      Suture joint

    • D. 

      Synovial joint


  • 86. 
    Movement away from the midline of the body
    • A. 

      Fascia

    • B. 

      Abduction

    • C. 

      Adduction

    • D. 

      Plantar flexion


  • 87. 
    Turning the palm forward
    • A. 

      Flexion

    • B. 

      Pronation

    • C. 

      Supination

    • D. 

      Dorsiflexion


  • 88. 
    The codes for wound exploration can be used to explore any type of wound
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 89. 
    You cannot use the codes for wound exploration (20100-20103) if the wound does not need to be enlarged
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 90. 
    Using codes from the wound exploration category requires the coder to assess the extent of the procedure
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 91. 
    A percutaneous biopsy is obtained through an excision in the skin
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 92. 
    An orthopedic surgeon cannot report the service of ultrasonic guidance because this is a radiologic procedure, and only a radiologist can report services represented in the radiology section
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 93. 
    Codes for arthrodesis include the bone graft and instrumentation; therefore these cannot be coded separately
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 94. 
    22585 is an add-on code
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 95. 
    Which term describes a reduction
    • A. 

      Rotation

    • B. 

      Traction

    • C. 

      Manipulation

    • D. 

      Stabilization


  • 96. 
    Which treatment of a fracture requires the fracture to be exposed to view or opened at a remote site for nailing across the fracture
    • A. 

      Percutaneous

    • B. 

      Open

    • C. 

      Mixed

    • D. 

      Closed


  • 97. 
     which of the following terms describes traction by use of strapping, elastic wraps, or tape
    • A. 

      Skeletal

    • B. 

      Closed

    • C. 

      Skin

    • D. 

      Multiple method


  • 98. 
    Wound exploration codes have the following service(s) bundled into the codes
    • A. 

      Exploration and repair

    • B. 

      Exploration, including enlargement; removal of foreign body(ies), repair

    • C. 

      Exploration, including enlargement, reapir; necessary grafting

    • D. 

      Exploration, including enlargement; debridement, removal of foreign body(ies), minor vessel ligation, repair


  • 99. 
    The application of a cranial halo is a form of
    • A. 

      Insertional device

    • B. 

      Implantation fixation

    • C. 

      External fixation

    • D. 

      Internal fixation


  • 100. 
    This type of graft is often taken from the lower thigh area
    • A. 

      Bone

    • B. 

      Tissue

    • C. 

      Fascia lata

    • D. 

      Paratenon


  • 101. 
    Insertion of a device into the muscle to measure the pressure within the muscle is monitoring of
    • A. 

      Interstitial fluid pressure

    • B. 

      Electrical flow

    • C. 

      Microvascular pressure

    • D. 

      Stimulation pressure


  • 102. 
    Fast becoming the treatment of choice for many orthopedic surgical procedures is what type of procedure
    • A. 

      Closed

    • B. 

      Ultrasonic/laser

    • C. 

      Endoscopy/arthroscopy

    • D. 

      Electrical stimulation


  • 103. 
    Which of the following is not a fracture treatment
    • A. 

      Replantation

    • B. 

      Open

    • C. 

      Closed

    • D. 

      Percutaneous


  • 104. 
    Which of the following flaps describes a bone graft that is taken along with the skin and tissue that overlies the bone
    • A. 

      Myocutaneous

    • B. 

      Free osteocutaneous

    • C. 

      Dermis/epidermis

    • D. 

      Free


  • 105. 
    Fracture codes are codes based on
    • A. 

      Fracture type

    • B. 

      Treatment type

    • C. 

      Diagnosis

    • D. 

      Patient age


  • 106. 
    The restoration of a fracture or dislocation to its normal anatomic alignment by the application of manually applied force is known as
    • A. 

      External fixation

    • B. 

      Manipulation

    • C. 

      Skeletal fixation

    • D. 

      Skeletal traction


  • 107. 
    A hip replacement is coded based on the
    • A. 

      Amount of time the surgery takes

    • B. 

      Difficulty of the surgery

    • C. 

      Medical reason for the surgery

    • D. 

      Number of surgeons needed to perform the surgery


  • 108. 
    Open treatment of a fracture is when the
    • A. 

      Bone is protruding through the skin

    • B. 

      Physician reduces the fracture

    • C. 

      Fracture is surgically opened and viualized or opened remotely

    • D. 

      Physician uses an arthroscope


  • 109. 
    Where is the bimalleolar bone located
    • A. 

      Wrist

    • B. 

      Shoulder

    • C. 

      Knee

    • D. 

      Ankle


  • 110. 
    Which of the following is not a treatment method for a dislocation
    • A. 

      External fixation

    • B. 

      Applying gentle traction

    • C. 

      Rotating limb while applying pressure

    • D. 

      Attaching a weight to the patient


  • 111. 
    What is the difference between the code for a soft tissue abscess in the musculoskeletal subsection and the codes for abscess in the integumentary subsection
    • A. 

      The code in the musculoskeletal subsection is used only when the abscess is in the bone

    • B. 

      The code in the musculoskeletal subsection is associated with deep tissue possibly to the bone

    • C. 

      The code in the musculoskeletal subsection does not require debridement of the abscess

    • D. 

      The code in the integumentary subsection may include the bone


  • 112. 
    Athrocentesis is
    • A. 

      An injection into the joint

    • B. 

      An aspiration of fluid from the joint

    • C. 

      A puncture of a joint cavity

    • D. 

      All of the above


  • 113. 
    The acronym ORIF stands for
    • A. 

      Open reduction of internal fracture

    • B. 

      Open reduction with internal fixation

    • C. 

      Open release with internal fixation

    • D. 

      Open reduction with imaging fluoroscopy


  • 114. 
    ________ is the attachment of a spinal fixation device at each end of the area being repaired and at least one other attachment in the area being repaired
    • A. 

      Arthrodesis

    • B. 

      Segmental instrumentation

    • C. 

      Nonsegmental instrumentation

    • D. 

      External fixation


  • 115. 
    Electrical or ultrasound stimulation is used to
    • A. 

      Promote healing

    • B. 

      Remove dead tissue

    • C. 

      Reduce joint swelling

    • D. 

      Reduce joint pain


  • 116. 
    Surgical and fracture repair codes in the musculoskeletal subsection
    • A. 

      Include the application and removal of all casts, splints, and strapping

    • B. 

      Include the application and removal of the initial casts, splints, or strapping applied by the treating physician

    • C. 

      Include the application and removal applied by and urgent care/emergency room physician when the urgent care/emergency room physician is not providing the fracture care

    • D. 

      Do not include casts, splints, or strapping, therefore allowing the physician to charge separately for these services


  • 117. 
    A bunionectomy is a hallux ______ correction
    • A. 

      Malleus

    • B. 

      Varus

    • C. 

      Rigidus

    • D. 

      Valgus


  • 118. 
    Arthroscopy is a desirable treatment choice by physicians and patients because the
    • A. 

      Incisions are smaller

    • B. 

      Risk of infection is decreased

    • C. 

      Recovery time is quicker

    • D. 

      All of the above


  • 119. 
    A ___________ arthroscopy is always included in a surgical arthroscopy
    • A. 

      Biopsy

    • B. 

      Separate procedure

    • C. 

      Diagnostic

    • D. 

      Debridement


  • 120. 
    The following is not a type of bunionectomy
    • A. 

      Keller

    • B. 

      Mitchell

    • C. 

      Silver

    • D. 

      Mumford


  • 121. 
    A physician applies a cranial halo on a patient with a C-1 fracture. after the fracture is healed, the same physician removes the halo. what is the code for the removal of the halo
    • A. 

      20660

    • B. 

      20661

    • C. 

      20664

    • D. 

      99024


  • 122. 
    A patient presents to the orthopedic office complaining of pain in the wrist. upon examination, the physician determines that the patient has ganglion cyst. the physician injects the ganglion cyst with xylocaine to reduce the pain. what is the correct code
    • A. 

      20600

    • B. 

      20605

    • C. 

      20610

    • D. 

      20612


  • 123. 
    Bone grafts are always coded in conjunction with a surgical procedure. what is the appropriate modifier to apply to the bone graft code
    • A. 

      No modifier

    • B. 

      -51

    • C. 

      -59

    • D. 

      -22


  • 124. 
    ______________ is the application of pulling force to hold a bone in correct alignment

  • 125. 
    Arthrocentesis is aspiration of a joint, and the codes used to report the service are in the range of _________-__________

  • 126. 
    ___________ is the use of a needle and a syringe to withdraw fluid

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