Chapter 12 Microbiology

76 Questions  I  By Andreazza
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Microbiology Quizzes & Trivia

  
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  • 1. 
    As prokaryotes normally only have one set of genes, they are called __________.  

  • 2. 
    The __________ is the collection of characteristics of an organism that an investigator observes.  

  • 3. 
    The __________ describes the specific set of genes an organism possesses.  

  • 4. 
    Which of the following individuals or groups of individuals demonstrated that the transforming principle was DNA?  
    • A. 

      Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty

    • B. 

      Griffith

    • C. 

      Hershey and Chase

    • D. 

      Watson and Crick


  • 5. 
    The principle of transformation was first demonstrated by which of the following individuals or groups of individuals?  
    • A. 

      Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty

    • B. 

      Griffith

    • C. 

      Hershey and Chase

    • D. 

      Watson and Crick


  • 6. 
    Hershey and Chase demonstrated that when the bacteriophage T2 infected its host cell, the __________ is injected into the host but the __________ remained outside.   (answer, answer)  

  • 7. 
    DNA functions as a storage molecule, holding genetic information for the lifetime of a cellular organism and allowing that information to be duplicated and passed on to its progeny.  
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 8. 
    The genetic information in DNA is divided into units called  
    • A. 

      Proteins

    • B. 

      Genes

    • C. 

      Genotype

    • D. 

      Phenotype


  • 9. 
    The two strands of a DNA molecule are __________; that is, they are oriented in opposite directions.  

  • 10. 
    The B form of the DNA double helix contains a wider major groove and a narrower minor groove because the two polynucleotide strands are not positioned directly opposite one another in the helical cylinder.  
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 11. 
    The basic differences between RNA and DNA reside in their sugar and pyrimidine bases; RNA has ribose and uracil whereas DNA has deoxyribose and thymine.  
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 12. 
    Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?  
    • A. 

      Adenine

    • B. 

      Cytosine

    • C. 

      Thymine

    • D. 

      Uracil


  • 13. 
    Which of the following is not a complementary base pair usually found in DNA molecules?  
    • A. 

      Adenine-thymine

    • B. 

      Guanine-cytosine

    • C. 

      Adenine-uracil

    • D. 

      All of the choices


  • 14. 
    Which of the following is true about the structure of DNA?  
    • A. 

      Purine and pyrimidine bases are attached to the 1'-carbon of the deoxyribose sugars.

    • B. 

      Purine and pyrimidine bases are joined by phosphodiester bonds.

    • C. 

      Adjacent bases are stacked on top of each other, one base pair every 0.34 nm. 


    • D. 

      All of the choices


  • 15. 
    Which of the following nitrogenous bases is usually found in RNA but not in DNA?  
    • A. 

      Adenine

    • B. 

      Thymine

    • C. 

      Uracil

    • D. 

      Guanine


  • 16. 
    DNA replication is a complex process, and as a result the frequency of error is quite high.  
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 17. 
    Because of its larger size, the replication rate of eukaryotic genomes is significantly faster than the replication rate of prokaryotic genomes.  
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 18. 
    Bacterial chromosomes, unlike eukaryotic chromosomes, often consist of a single replicon.  
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 19. 
    When a DNA molecule is replicated, the daughter molecules contain one strand of parental DNA and one strand of newly synthesized DNA; this is called __________ replication.  
    • A. 

      Hemiconservative

    • B. 

      Conservative

    • C. 

      Semiconservative

    • D. 

      Dispersive


  • 20. 
    The chromosomes of most bacteria are comprised of  
    • A. 

      Double-stranded circular molecules

    • B. 

      Double-stranded linear molecules

    • C. 

      Single-stranded circular molecules

    • D. 

      Single-stranded linear molecules


  • 21. 
    The Y-shaped part of the DNA molecule where the actual replication process occurs is called the replication __________.  
    • A. 

      Tongue

    • B. 

      Fork

    • C. 

      Junction

    • D. 

      Splice


  • 22. 
    Each chromosome has one or more __________ site(s) where replication begins.  
    • A. 

      Promoter

    • B. 

      Replicon

    • C. 

      Origin

    • D. 

      Bifurcate


  • 23. 
    During replication the 2 strands of the DNA molecule are unwound from one another by enzymes called  
    • A. 

      Ligases

    • B. 

      Unwindases

    • C. 

      Helicases

    • D. 

      Primases


  • 24. 
    Over twisting or under twisting of helical DNA generates  
    • A. 

      Hypertwists

    • B. 

      Hypotwists

    • C. 

      Hypercoils

    • D. 

      Supercoils


  • 25. 
    Prokaryotic DNA replication occurs at a rate of  
    • A. 

      750–1,000 base pairs per second

    • B. 

      750–1,000 base pairs per minute

    • C. 

      50–100 base pairs per second.

    • D. 

      50–100 base pairs per minute.


  • 26. 
    The coding sequence in the DNA of __________ is normally continuous; that is, it is not interrupted by noncoding sequences.  
    • A. 

      Prokaryotes

    • B. 

      Plants

    • C. 

      Mammals

    • D. 

      Most insects


  • 27. 
    Which of the following is not considered the final product of the expression of a gene?  
    • A. 

      A polypeptide chain

    • B. 

      An mRNA molecule

    • C. 

      A tRNA molecule

    • D. 

      An rRNA molecule


  • 28. 
    The transcribed, but not translated, sequence that is immediately upstream of the region and encodes the functional product is called the __________ region.  
    • A. 

      Leader

    • B. 

      Promoter

    • C. 

      Coding

    • D. 

      Trailer


  • 29. 
    The region at which the RNA polymerase binds is the __________ region.  
    • A. 

      Leader

    • B. 

      Promoter

    • C. 

      Coding

    • D. 

      Trailer


  • 30. 
    The transcribed and translated region of a gene is the __________ region.  
    • A. 

      Leader

    • B. 

      Promoter

    • C. 

      Coding

    • D. 

      Trailer


  • 31. 
    Which of the following is in the coding region of a gene?  
    • A. 

      Promoter

    • B. 

      Leader

    • C. 

      Trailer

    • D. 

      None of the choices


  • 32. 
    The unexpressed regions of split genes are called  
    • A. 

      Exons

    • B. 

      Endons

    • C. 

      Introns

    • D. 

      Codons


  • 33. 
    A bacterial __________ is the nontranscribed region of the DNA to which RNA polymerase binds in order to initiate transcription.  
    • A. 

      Operon

    • B. 

      Operator

    • C. 

      Promoter

    • D. 

      Initiatior


  • 34. 
    A section of DNA that codes for a protein or other functional product is called a(n)  
    • A. 

      Codon

    • B. 

      Gene

    • C. 

      Replicon

    • D. 

      Anticodon


  • 35. 
    The strand of DNA for a particular gene that is copied by the RNA polymerase to form mRNA is called the __________ strand.  
    • A. 

      Leading

    • B. 

      Template

    • C. 

      Transcription

    • D. 

      Copy


  • 36. 
    Split or interrupted genes have been found in eukaryotes but not in prokaryotes.  
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 37. 
    The genetic code is usually translated in a nonoverlapping fashion.  
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 38. 
    A consensus sequence in the untranslated leader sequence of a prokaryotic mRNA which serves as a ribosome binding site is called the _____ - _____ sequence.  

  • 39. 
    mRNA molecules have a nontranslated sequence called the __________ , which is located downstream of the termination codon.  

  • 40. 
    On mRNA molecules, a nontranslated sequence called the ___________ usually precedes the initiation codon.  

  • 41. 
    Splicing of eukaryotic heteronuclear RNA is catalyzed by ______________.  

  • 42. 
     Messenger RNA molecules that direct the synthesis of more than one polypeptide are said to be __________.  

  • 43. 
    In eukaryotes a so-called cap consisting of __________ is attached to the 5' end of the molecule during posttranscriptional modification of hnRNA to produce functional mRNA.  

  • 44. 
    Eukaryotic mRNAs are modified by addition of a poly(A) sequences at the 3' end and 7-methyl guanosine at the 5' end.  
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 45. 
    The noncoding sequences located between the start codon and the stop codon in interrupted genes are called introns.  
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 46. 
    The protein coding sequences in interrupted genes are called exons.  
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 47. 
    Posttranscriptional modifications that yield eukaryotic mRNAs include which of the following?  
    • A. 

      splicing to remove introns

    • B. 

      5' poly (A) tracts 


    • C. 

      3' caps

    • D. 

      All of the choices


  • 48. 
    RNA polymerase III of eukaryotes is responsible for transcribing  
    • A. 

      RRNA

    • B. 

      MRNA

    • C. 

      TRNA

    • D. 

      All of the above


  • 49. 
    RNA polymerase II of eukaryotes is responsible for transcribing  
    • A. 

      RRNA

    • B. 

      MRNA

    • C. 

      TRNA

    • D. 

      All of the above


  • 50. 
    The Pribnow box of E. coli  
    • A. 

      Is centered approximately 35 bp upstream of the start site of transcription

    • B. 

      Is centered between 7 and 13 bp upstream of the start codon

    • C. 

      is centered approximately 10 bp upstream of the start site of transcription

    • D. 

      is located at the site of addition of poly (A) in eukaryotic mRNAs


  • 51. 
    The process by which the base sequence of all or a portion of a DNA molecule is used to direct the synthesis of an RNA molecule is called  
    • A. 

      Replication

    • B. 

      Transcription

    • C. 

      Reverse transcription

    • D. 

      Translation


  • 52. 
    When RNA polymerase catalyzes the addition of a nucleotide to a growing mRNA chain, a byproduct of this reaction is  
    • A. 

      Phosphate

    • B. 

      Pyrophosphate

    • C. 

      Orthophosphate

    • D. 

      Water


  • 53. 
    The expressed regions of split genes are called  
    • A. 

      Exons

    • B. 

      Endons

    • C. 

      Introns

    • D. 

      Codons


  • 54. 
     In eukaryotes a series of __________ residues are added to the 3' end of an RNA molecule as part of the posttranscriptional processing used to produce functional mRNA.  
    • A. 

      Adenine

    • B. 

      Guanine

    • C. 

      Cytosine

    • D. 

      Uracil


  • 55. 
    Key sequences exist within promoters, which vary somewhat among various promoters but are sufficiently constant that they can be represented by a sequence of bases most often found at each position. These representations are called __________ sequences.  
    • A. 

      Convergence

    • B. 

      Idealized

    • C. 

      Consensus

    • D. 

      Common


  • 56. 
    The genetic code is said to be __________ because more than one codon will specify a particular amino acid.  
    • A. 

      Ambiguous

    • B. 

      Degenerate

    • C. 

      Multiplicative

    • D. 

      Repetitious


  • 57. 
    Which of the following is not a termination codon?  
    • A. 

      AUG

    • B. 

      UAA

    • C. 

      UAG

    • D. 

      UGA


  • 58. 
    Which of the following is the initiator codon?  
    • A. 

      AUG

    • B. 

      UAA

    • C. 

      UAG

    • D. 

      UGA


  • 59. 
    The genetic code is translated in groups of __________ bases  
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Three

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Five


  • 60. 
    ________ molecules deliver amino acids to ribosomes during translation.  
    • A. 

      Messenger RNA (mRNA)

    • B. 

      Transfer RNA (tRNA)

    • C. 

      Ribosomal (rRNA)

    • D. 

      Heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA)


  • 61. 
    How many different termination codons are used in translation?  
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four


  • 62. 
    The process by which the base sequence of an RNA molecule is used to direct the synthesis of a protein is called  
    • A. 

      Replication

    • B. 

      Transcription

    • C. 

      Reverse transcription

    • D. 

      Translation


  • 63. 
    The stop codons are translated codons; that is, they specify amino acids to be inserted into the last position of a growing polypeptide chain.  
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 64. 
    The portion of the tRNA molecule that binds to the codon on the mRNA is called the  
    • A. 

      C-codon

    • B. 

      Anticodon

    • C. 

      Complimentary codon

    • D. 

      Paracodon


  • 65. 
    What is the minimum number of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase enzymes needed to attach amino acids to all the various tRNA molecules?  
    • A. 

      20

    • B. 

      61

    • C. 

      64

    • D. 

      As many as there are different tRNAs


  • 66. 
    In __________ ribosomes can attach to the mRNA and begin translation even though transcription has not been completed.  
    • A. 

      Prokaryotes

    • B. 

      Eukaryotes

    • C. 

      Fungi

    • D. 

      Protozoa and some plants


  • 67. 
    Ribosomes consist of __________ separate subunits that come together as part of the initiation process and dissociate immediately after termination.  
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Three

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Five


  • 68. 
    The __________ reaction sequentially links adjacent amino acids into the growing polypeptide chain.  
    • A. 

      Dipeptidation

    • B. 

      Transpeptidation

    • C. 

      Peptidation

    • D. 

      Propeptidation


  • 69. 
    A complex consisting of a single mRNA molecule with several ribosomes is called a  
    • A. 

      Polysome

    • B. 

      Multisome

    • C. 

      Maxisome

    • D. 

      None of the choices


  • 70. 
    In order to add a single amino acid to a growing polypeptide chain, a grand total of __________ molecules or ATP or GTP are utilized.  
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Three

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Six


  • 71. 
    All prokaryotes initiate the synthesis of proteins with formylmethionine.  
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 72. 
     Initiation of translation in eukaryotes is similar to that in prokaryotes except that more initiation factors are required in eukaryotes.  
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 73. 
    Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases catalyze covalent addition of __________ __________ to tRNAs. (2 words)  

  • 74. 
    The energy needed for protein synthesis is provided by the hydrolysis of  
    • A. 

      ATP

    • B. 

      GTP

    • C. 

      UTP

    • D. 

      ATP and GTP

    • E. 

      ATP and UTP


  • 75. 
    Some microbial proteins are spliced after translation in a reaction that results in removal of one or more internal intervening sequences called inteins.  
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 76. 
     Proteins that recognize unfolded polypeptides and help them fold into their proper conformations are called ______________.  

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