A Unique Quiz On Ccemtp
CEMTP was designed in response to the growing need for qualified specialists in the area of critical care inter-facility transfer. It helps to prepare paramedics and nurses to serve with competence and confidence in meeting the needs of critical care patients undergoing inter-facility transports. Take this unique quiz on Ccemtp quiz and get to learn more.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
The first Use of helicopters for air medical transport occurred as a result of:
- A.
The development of organ donor programs
- B.
The Korean War
- C.
The Prussian Seige of Paris
- D.
Enhanced responsibilities of State Law Enforcement personnel
Correct Answer
B. The Korean WarExplanation
During the Korean War, helicopters were used for the first time for air medical transport. The rugged terrain and difficult conditions of the war necessitated a faster and more efficient way to transport injured soldiers from the battlefield to medical facilities. Helicopters proved to be the perfect solution as they could land in small, remote areas and quickly transport wounded soldiers to receive medical care. This marked a significant milestone in the history of air medical transport, paving the way for the use of helicopters in emergency medical services worldwide.Rate this question:
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- 2.
The preferred qualifications of a Critical Care Professional include:
- A.
Successful completion of PHTLS/BTLS
- B.
A minimum of 1 year experience in an ALS system
- C.
Enrollment in a CCEMPT course
- D.
A Minimum 3 years as an EMS supervisor
Correct Answer
B. A minimum of 1 year experience in an ALS systemExplanation
The preferred qualification of a Critical Care Professional is a minimum of 1 year experience in an ALS system. This means that the ideal candidate should have at least one year of experience working in an Advanced Life Support (ALS) system, which involves providing advanced medical care and interventions to critically ill or injured patients. This experience would demonstrate the candidate's familiarity with the protocols and procedures of an ALS system, making them more suitable for the role of a Critical Care Professional.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which is not considered routine equipment on-board a Critical Care Transport unit?
- A.
IV infusion Pump
- B.
Portable ABG Machine
- C.
Neonatal isolette
- D.
Central Venous Line kit
Correct Answer
C. Neonatal isoletteExplanation
A neonatal isolette is not considered routine equipment on-board a Critical Care Transport unit. A neonatal isolette is a specialized incubator used to provide a controlled environment for newborn babies, particularly those who are premature or have medical conditions. While the other options listed (IV infusion pump, portable ABG machine, central venous line kit) are commonly found on Critical Care Transport units and are essential for providing medical care during transport, a neonatal isolette is not typically included as it is not necessary for the majority of patients being transported.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following Trauma Patients is a candidate for Critical Care Transport?
- A.
40 year old who has fallen from a height greater than 10 feet
- B.
16 year old with partial and full thicknes burns of the arms, affecting 15% body surface area.
- C.
33 year old with a revised trauma score of 12
- D.
22 year old who has been ejected from a vehicle
Correct Answer
D. 22 year old who has been ejected from a vehicleExplanation
The 22-year-old who has been ejected from a vehicle is a candidate for Critical Care Transport because being ejected from a vehicle indicates a high-energy mechanism of injury, which can result in severe trauma. This patient may have multiple injuries, including head, chest, and abdominal trauma, which require specialized care and monitoring during transport. Critical Care Transport is necessary to provide advanced medical interventions and ensure the patient's stability and safety during transfer to a higher level of care.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The law requiring that patients are provided written information on the right to make medical decisions is the:
- A.
Patient self determination act
- B.
Federal advance directives act
- C.
Living will statute
- D.
Treatment refusal act
Correct Answer
A. Patient self determination actExplanation
The Patient Self Determination Act is the correct answer because it requires healthcare providers to inform patients about their right to make medical decisions and provide them with written information. This act ensures that patients have the autonomy and ability to make informed choices about their healthcare, including the right to refuse treatment or create advance directives. It promotes patient-centered care and empowers individuals to have control over their own medical decisions.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which of the following areas are often cited for litigation involving malpractice?
- A.
Failure to adequately monitor the patient's condition
- B.
Failure to document findings
- C.
Failure to pass on information to a higher trained medical professional
- D.
All of the Above
Correct Answer
D. All of the AboveExplanation
All of the areas mentioned, including failure to adequately monitor the patient's condition, failure to document findings, and failure to pass on information to a higher trained medical professional, are often cited for litigation involving malpractice. This means that all of these factors can potentially lead to legal action being taken against a healthcare professional for negligence or improper care.Rate this question:
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- 7.
A common problem of specimen collectionassociated with the breakdown of red blood cells and subswquent release of hemoglobin is know as
- A.
Hemoglobinura
- B.
Hematocrit
- C.
Hemolysis
- D.
Hemodialysis
Correct Answer
C. HemolysisExplanation
Hemolysis is the correct answer because it refers to the breakdown of red blood cells and the subsequent release of hemoglobin. This can occur during specimen collection, leading to the presence of hemoglobin in the sample. Hemolysis can be caused by various factors such as improper handling of the sample, excessive shaking or agitation, or the use of inappropriate collection devices. The presence of hemolysis can affect the accuracy of laboratory test results and may require the sample to be recollected.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following is not seen with a normal or increased hematocrit and hemoglobin?
- A.
Dehydration
- B.
COPD
- C.
Anemia
- D.
Severe diarrhea
Correct Answer
C. AnemiaExplanation
Anemia is not seen with a normal or increased hematocrit and hemoglobin levels because anemia is characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells or a decrease in the amount of hemoglobin in the blood. Therefore, if hematocrit and hemoglobin levels are normal or increased, it indicates that there is no deficiency in red blood cells or hemoglobin, ruling out anemia as a possibility.Rate this question:
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- 9.
A 16 year old female presents with the following signs and symptons; nervousness, anxiety, dizziness, with numbness and tingling in the extremeties. The patient ABG analysis shows the following values, based on these values, what condition would you suspect?ph - 7.50Po2 - 100Pco2 - 30Hco3 - 24BE = -1
- A.
Respiratory acidosis
- B.
Respiratory Alkalosis
- C.
Metabolic acidosis
- D.
Metabolic Alkalosis
Correct Answer
B. Respiratory AlkalosisExplanation
Based on the given ABG analysis, the patient has a pH level of 7.50, which is higher than the normal range of 7.35-7.45. This indicates alkalosis. Additionally, the pCO2 level is 30, which is lower than the normal range of 35-45 mmHg. This suggests a respiratory cause for the alkalosis. The symptoms of nervousness, anxiety, dizziness, and numbness and tingling in the extremities are consistent with respiratory alkalosis. Therefore, based on these findings, the condition that would be suspected is Respiratory Alkalosis.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The primary Intracellular cation important for repolarization of cardiac cells is?
- A.
Sodium
- B.
Potassium
- C.
Calcium
- D.
Magnessium
Correct Answer
B. PotassiumExplanation
Potassium is the primary intracellular cation important for repolarization of cardiac cells. During the cardiac action potential, potassium channels open, allowing potassium ions to move out of the cell, leading to repolarization. This helps restore the cell's resting membrane potential and prepares it for the next action potential. Sodium, calcium, and magnesium are also involved in cardiac cell function, but they primarily play roles in depolarization and contraction, rather than repolarization.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The urine output of an average adult should be?
- A.
10-30 cc/hr
- B.
20-50 cc/hr
- C.
30-70 cc/hr
- D.
40-90 cc/hr
Correct Answer
C. 30-70 cc/hrExplanation
The correct answer is 30-70 cc/hr. This range represents the normal urine output for an average adult. It is important for the kidneys to produce an adequate amount of urine to remove waste products from the body and maintain a balance of fluids and electrolytes. A urine output below 30 cc/hr may indicate dehydration or kidney dysfunction, while an output above 70 cc/hr may suggest excessive fluid intake or certain medical conditions.Rate this question:
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- 12.
A ________________ test is used to identify an organism, while a _____________ test is used to determine the best antibiotic to use against the organism?
- A.
Sensitivity : Guaiac
- B.
Prothrombin : culture
- C.
Thromboplastin : staining
- D.
Culture : Sensitivity
Correct Answer
D. Culture : SensitivityExplanation
A culture test is used to identify an organism by growing it in a controlled environment, such as a petri dish, and observing its characteristics. On the other hand, a sensitivity test is used to determine the best antibiotic to use against the organism by exposing it to different antibiotics and observing its response.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which of the following is CORRECT with regaurds to shock?
- A.
A degenerative condition leading to death
- B.
A physiologic state of tachycardia and diaphoresis
- C.
General systemic response to inadequate tissue perfusion
- D.
Irreversible hypotention
Correct Answer
C. General systemic response to inadequate tissue perfusionExplanation
The correct answer is "general systemic response to inadequate tissue perfusion." Shock refers to a condition where there is a widespread and severe lack of blood flow and oxygen delivery to the body's tissues. This leads to a systemic response in the body, including symptoms such as rapid heart rate (tachycardia) and excessive sweating (diaphoresis). It is not necessarily a degenerative condition leading to death, nor does it always result in irreversible hypotension. The key characteristic of shock is the inadequate tissue perfusion, which is addressed in the correct answer choice.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following will ocur as a result of Neurogenic shock?
- A.
Peripheral vasoconstriction
- B.
Peripheral vasodiolation
- C.
The absence of sympathetic cardiac stimulation
- D.
B and C
- E.
A and C
Correct Answer
D. B and CExplanation
Neurogenic shock is a condition that occurs due to damage to the spinal cord or brain, resulting in the disruption of the autonomic nervous system. This leads to a loss of sympathetic tone, causing peripheral vasodilation (widening of blood vessels) and the absence of sympathetic cardiac stimulation. Therefore, the correct answer is B and C.Rate this question:
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- 15.
A 31 year old female is experiencing anaphlaxis. What is the CORRECT medication given to promote vasoconstriction, bronchodialation, and inhibit further release of biochemical mediators?
- A.
Decadron
- B.
Epinephrine
- C.
Solumedrol
- D.
Benadryl
Correct Answer
B. EpinephrineExplanation
Epinephrine is the correct medication given in cases of anaphylaxis. It promotes vasoconstriction, which helps to increase blood pressure and reduce swelling. It also acts as a bronchodilator, opening up the airways and improving breathing. Additionally, epinephrine inhibits the further release of biochemical mediators, such as histamine, which are responsible for the allergic reaction. Therefore, epinephrine is the most suitable medication in this situation.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Gram negative and gram positive bacteria have been implicated as the causation factors of ?
- A.
Sepsis
- B.
Disseminated intravacular coagulation
- C.
Multisystem organ failure
- D.
Pancreatitis
Correct Answer
A. SepsisExplanation
Gram negative and gram positive bacteria have been implicated as the causation factors of sepsis. Sepsis is a life-threatening condition that occurs when the body's response to an infection causes widespread inflammation. Both gram negative and gram positive bacteria can cause infections that lead to sepsis. Gram negative bacteria, such as Escherichia coli and Pseudomonas aeruginosa, release endotoxins that trigger an immune response and can lead to sepsis. Gram positive bacteria, such as Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pneumoniae, can also cause severe infections that result in sepsis. Therefore, sepsis can be caused by both gram negative and gram positive bacteria.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which of the following abnormal lab values are indicative of DIC (Disseminated intravascular coagulation)?
- A.
Serum glucose level
- B.
Clotting test
- C.
Liver function test
- D.
Renal function test
Correct Answer
B. Clotting testExplanation
The correct answer is "Clotting test." Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition characterized by the abnormal activation of blood clotting throughout the body, leading to excessive clot formation and consumption of clotting factors. A clotting test, such as prothrombin time (PT) or activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), can detect abnormalities in the clotting process and help diagnose DIC. Serum glucose level, liver function test, and renal function test are not specific indicators of DIC.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT with regard to the proper infection control measures while caring for a TB patient
- A.
The use of gloves only
- B.
The use of googles and gloves
- C.
Use of a micron filter face mask
- D.
Washing your hands
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Use of a micron filter face maskExplanation
The correct answer is the use of a micron filter face mask. This is because TB (Tuberculosis) is an airborne disease that spreads through respiratory droplets. Using a micron filter face mask can help prevent the inhalation of these droplets and reduce the risk of infection. Gloves, goggles, and handwashing are also important infection control measures, but they alone are not sufficient for protecting against airborne diseases like TB. Therefore, the use of a micron filter face mask is the most appropriate measure in this scenario.Rate this question:
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- 19.
In which of the following would the blood oxygen saturation be high, yet the patient still dies from hypoxia
- A.
Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
- B.
Hypovolemia
- C.
Hypothermia
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. Carbon Monoxide PoisoningExplanation
In carbon monoxide poisoning, the blood oxygen saturation can be high because carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin more easily than oxygen, leading to a false sense of high oxygen levels. However, despite the high saturation, the patient still dies from hypoxia because the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is compromised by the presence of carbon monoxide. This prevents sufficient oxygen from reaching the body's tissues, resulting in cellular damage and ultimately death.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The normal PaCo2 for a healthy adult, breathing room air is?
- A.
60- 80 mmHg
- B.
30-40 mmHg
- C.
35 - 45 mmHg
- D.
7.35 - 7.45
- E.
None are correct
Correct Answer
C. 35 - 45 mmHgExplanation
The normal PaCo2 for a healthy adult, breathing room air is 35 - 45 mmHg. PaCo2 stands for partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood. This range indicates the normal levels of carbon dioxide in the blood for a healthy individual. Values below or above this range may indicate respiratory alkalosis or acidosis, respectively.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which of the following is correct regarding the fiO2 of room air?
- A.
80 -100 torr
- B.
.21
- C.
1.00
- D.
49 torr
- E.
Both b and c
Correct Answer
B. .21Explanation
The correct answer is .21. This is because the fiO2 of room air is typically 21%, which means that oxygen makes up 21% of the total gas mixture in the air we breathe.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which of the following is CORRECT in regard to changing a patient's oxygen delivery system prior to obtaining an ABG sample?
- A.
Should NOT be de
- B.
Can be Done if noted on the samples
- C.
May require 15 minutes for the patient to adapt
- D.
Requires the samples be tested on two machines and the result then compared
Correct Answer
C. May require 15 minutes for the patient to adaptExplanation
Changing a patient's oxygen delivery system prior to obtaining an ABG sample may require 15 minutes for the patient to adapt. This is because the change in oxygen delivery system can affect the patient's oxygen levels and it takes some time for the body to adjust to the new system. It is important to wait for the patient to adapt before obtaining the ABG sample to ensure accurate results.Rate this question:
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- 23.
After pleural decompression, assessment observations would include: 1 Hemoptysis2 signs of hypoxemia3 Lung sounds4 Tracheal Stenosis
- A.
1,2,3 are correct
- B.
2,3,4 are correct
- C.
1,2,4, are correct
- D.
1,3,4 are correct
- E.
1,2,3,4 are correct
Correct Answer
A. 1,2,3 are correctExplanation
After pleural decompression, assessment observations would include hemoptysis (coughing up blood), signs of hypoxemia (low oxygen levels in the blood), and lung sounds. These are important indicators to monitor the patient's respiratory status and ensure that the pleural decompression procedure was successful. Tracheal stenosis (narrowing of the windpipe) is not directly related to pleural decompression and therefore would not be included in the assessment observations.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The voulume of a gas inhaled or exhaled during a single resipratory cycle is called the?
- A.
Inspiration capacity IC
- B.
Total lung capcity TLC
- C.
Vital Capcity VC
- D.
Tidal volume Vt
- E.
Residual value
Correct Answer
D. Tidal volume VtExplanation
Tidal volume (Vt) refers to the volume of gas that is inhaled or exhaled during a single respiratory cycle. It represents the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs with each breath. This volume is important for maintaining proper oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the body. It is different from other lung capacities such as inspiration capacity (IC), total lung capacity (TLC), vital capacity (VC), and residual volume, which represent different combinations of lung volumes.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which of the following is NOT a complication of pleural decompression?
- A.
Pneumothorax
- B.
Infection
- C.
Lung contusion
- D.
Occlusion of the 14 gauge catheter
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. Occlusion of the 14 gauge catheterExplanation
The correct answer is "Occlusion of the 14 gauge catheter." Pleural decompression is a procedure used to relieve pressure in the pleural space, typically caused by conditions like pneumothorax or hemothorax. Complications of pleural decompression can include pneumothorax (as it is a procedure involving the pleural space), infection (as it involves inserting a catheter into the body), and lung contusion (as it may cause trauma to the lung tissue). However, occlusion of the 14 gauge catheter is not a complication of this procedure.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The chest tube insertion site for air removal is the?
- A.
7th Intercostal space on the mid axillary line
- B.
5th or 6th intercostal space mid clavicular
- C.
4th or 5th intercostal space mid axillary line
- D.
Second intercostal space mid clavicular
- E.
Any place is fine
Correct Answer
C. 4th or 5th intercostal space mid axillary lineExplanation
The correct answer is the 4th or 5th intercostal space mid axillary line. This is the preferred site for chest tube insertion for air removal because it allows for effective drainage of air from the pleural space. The mid axillary line ensures that the tube is inserted in the correct location, while the 4th or 5th intercostal space allows for adequate access to the pleural space.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which of the following is true with regards to the indication for clamping a chest tube?
- A.
To locate the source of an air leak
- B.
Replacing the drainage unit
- C.
Suspicious that the tube has been accidently dislodged
- D.
All the above
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. All the aboveExplanation
The indication for clamping a chest tube includes all of the above options. Clamping the chest tube can help locate the source of an air leak, as it will cause the air leak to stop temporarily. It can also be done when replacing the drainage unit to prevent air from entering the pleural space. Lastly, if there is a suspicion that the tube has been accidentally dislodged, clamping it can help confirm this and prevent further complications.Rate this question:
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- 28.
A dyspneic patient complains of sharp chest pain in the upper right chest. It becomes worse on deep inspiration. Which condition would you suspect?
- A.
Acute Bronchiospasm
- B.
Pleuritic irratation
- C.
Acute myocardial infarction
- D.
Bronchial Obstruction
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Pleuritic irratationExplanation
The correct answer is Pleuritic irritation. Pleuritic irritation refers to inflammation or irritation of the pleura, the lining of the lungs. This can cause sharp chest pain that worsens with deep inspiration. Acute bronchiospasm refers to sudden constriction of the bronchial tubes in the lungs, which may cause shortness of breath but typically does not cause sharp chest pain. Acute myocardial infarction, also known as a heart attack, can cause chest pain but it is not typically localized to the upper right chest. Bronchial obstruction refers to blockage of the airways, which can cause symptoms such as cough and wheezing but not specifically sharp chest pain.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Choose the blood gas sequesnce that indicates the need for mechanical venitlation?
- A.
Decreasing PO2, decreasing PCo2, normal PH
- B.
Increasing Po2, decreasing Pco2, increasing PH
- C.
Decreasing Po2, increasing Pco2, decreasing PH
- D.
Increasing po2, decreasing Pco2, decreasing PH
Correct Answer
C. Decreasing Po2, increasing Pco2, decreasing PHExplanation
The correct answer is "decreasing Po2, increasing Pco2, decreasing PH." This blood gas sequence indicates the need for mechanical ventilation because it shows a decrease in oxygen levels (Po2), an increase in carbon dioxide levels (Pco2), and a decrease in pH. These changes suggest that the patient is not effectively exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide, leading to respiratory acidosis. Mechanical ventilation can help improve gas exchange and restore normal oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which of the following is NOT a standard ventilator setting?
- A.
Peak inspiratory pressure less than 40 lpm
- B.
Flow rate 80- 100 LPM
- C.
Tidal Volume 12 ml/kg body weight
- D.
Respiratory rate 10-15 breaths per minute
Correct Answer
B. Flow rate 80- 100 LPMExplanation
30-60 LPM is normal flow rateRate this question:
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- 31.
Which of the following is not an indication for ETT suctioning?
- A.
The normal cough Mechanism is lost
- B.
Production of secretions increase
- C.
To maintain patency of the device
- D.
Monitor tube position
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. Monitor tube positionExplanation
The question asks for an indication for endotracheal tube (ETT) suctioning. ETT suctioning is a procedure used to remove secretions from the airway. The normal cough mechanism being lost and an increase in secretion production are both indications for ETT suctioning as they can lead to airway obstruction. However, monitoring tube position is not an indication for ETT suctioning. Tube position monitoring is important to ensure that the ETT is properly placed in the trachea and not causing any complications, but it does not directly indicate the need for suctioning. Therefore, the correct answer is "Monitor tube position."Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which is false regarding the sellick's maneuver?
- A.
Pressure is applied over the cricoid cartlage
- B.
It cannot be used on children
- C.
It serves to occlude the esophagus in the vomiting patient
- D.
Aid in visulization of airway structures for intubation
Correct Answer
B. It cannot be used on childrenExplanation
The Sellick's maneuver is a technique used during intubation to aid in visualization of airway structures. It involves applying pressure over the cricoid cartilage to occlude the esophagus in order to prevent regurgitation of stomach contents. However, it is not recommended to be used on children as their anatomy is different and the maneuver may cause harm.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Place the following steps for rapid sequence intubation in chronological order.1 Apply cardiac monitor and pulse oximeter2. Pre-oxygenate the patient3. Medicate the patient with succinylcholine4. Medicate the patient with pancuronium or vecuronium if neccessary5. intubate the patient
- A.
4,2,1,5,3
- B.
3,1,2,4,5
- C.
2,1,5,3,4
- D.
1,2,3,5,4
- E.
2,1,3,5,4
Correct Answer
D. 1,2,3,5,4Explanation
The correct order for rapid sequence intubation is as follows: first, apply a cardiac monitor and pulse oximeter (step 1). Then, pre-oxygenate the patient (step 2) to ensure adequate oxygen levels. Next, medicate the patient with succinylcholine (step 3) to induce paralysis. After that, intubate the patient (step 5) by inserting a breathing tube. Finally, if necessary, medicate the patient with pancuronium or vecuronium (step 4) to maintain paralysis.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which is the following is CORRECT regarding why a tracheostomy wound is not packed or surigically closed?
- A.
To allow rapid removal of the tube if necessary
- B.
To avoid subcutaneous emphysema
- C.
To avoid the possibility of infection
- D.
The neck tape adequately secures the tube nothing else is needed
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. To avoid subcutaneous emphysemaExplanation
A tracheostomy wound is not packed or surgically closed to avoid subcutaneous emphysema. Subcutaneous emphysema is the accumulation of air in the tissues beneath the skin, which can occur if the wound is closed and air becomes trapped. Leaving the wound open allows any air that may escape from the tracheostomy tube to dissipate and prevents the development of subcutaneous emphysema.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which of the following is the correct procedure for a cricothyrotomy incision?
- A.
A transverse incision is made through the superficial cricothyroid membrane
- B.
A transverse incision is made 1cm superior to the suprasternal notch
- C.
A traverse incision is made between the forth and fith ribs
- D.
The subcutaneous tissues are infiltrated with lidocain prior to starting the incision
Correct Answer
A. A transverse incision is made through the superficial cricothyroid membraneExplanation
A cricothyrotomy is a procedure used to establish an emergency airway in situations where traditional methods are not feasible. The correct procedure for a cricothyrotomy incision is to make a transverse incision through the superficial cricothyroid membrane. This membrane is located between the cricoid cartilage and the thyroid cartilage in the neck. By making a transverse incision through this membrane, a pathway is created for inserting a tube or other device to allow for breathing. Making the incision in this specific location ensures that it is in close proximity to the trachea, allowing for effective ventilation.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which of the following is NOT an indication for needle cricothyrotomy?
- A.
Obsrtuction below the cricothyroid membrane
- B.
Manual measeures for airway management have failed
- C.
Central cyanosis
- D.
Endotracheal intubation is not possible
Correct Answer
A. Obsrtuction below the cricothyroid membraneExplanation
An indication for needle cricothyrotomy is when manual measures for airway management have failed and endotracheal intubation is not possible. Central cyanosis is also an indication for needle cricothyrotomy as it indicates severe hypoxia. However, obstruction below the cricothyroid membrane is not an indication for needle cricothyrotomy as it suggests that the airway is still patent below this level and other methods of airway management can be attempted.Rate this question:
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- 37.
When the anterior neck is palpated from supeior to inferior, the cricothyroid membrane:
- A.
The first prominet structure palpated
- B.
The second prominent structure felt
- C.
Between the first and second prominent structures
- D.
Below the second prominent structure
Correct Answer
C. Between the first and second prominent structuresExplanation
The cricothyroid membrane is located between the first and second prominent structures when palpating the anterior neck from superior to inferior.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which procedure allows rapid entrance into airway by making a horizontal incision?
- A.
Percutaneous transtracheal jet insufflation
- B.
Needle Cricothyrotomy
- C.
Surgical Cricothyrotomy
- D.
Retrograde surgical intubation
Correct Answer
C. Surgical CricothyrotomyExplanation
Surgical cricothyrotomy is a procedure that allows rapid entrance into the airway by making a horizontal incision in the cricothyroid membrane. This technique is used in emergency situations when traditional methods of airway management are not possible or unsuccessful. It involves making an incision in the skin and underlying tissues, followed by the insertion of a tracheostomy tube or endotracheal tube directly into the trachea. This procedure provides a direct and secure airway access, making it the correct answer in this case.Rate this question:
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- 39.
A stabbing incision is made at the ___________________to perform a surgical cricothyrotomy:
- A.
Thyroid Membrane
- B.
Thyroid Cartilage
- C.
Cricothyroid membrane
- D.
Cricoid Cartilage
Correct Answer
C. Cricothyroid membraneExplanation
A stabbing incision is made at the cricothyroid membrane to perform a surgical cricothyrotomy. This is because the cricothyroid membrane is a thin and easily accessible structure located between the thyroid cartilage and the cricoid cartilage in the neck. It is the ideal site for creating an emergency airway in situations where traditional methods of intubation are not possible or unsuccessful.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which of the following is CORRECT regarding an indication for retrograde intubation?
- A.
Inability to fully open patients mouth
- B.
A Patient less than 5 year old
- C.
Lack of a laryngoscope
- D.
The presence of subcutaneous emphysema
Correct Answer
A. Inability to fully open patients mouthExplanation
Retrograde intubation is a technique used when traditional methods of intubation are not possible or difficult to perform. It involves passing a guidewire through the cricothyroid membrane and then threading the endotracheal tube over the wire. Inability to fully open the patient's mouth can be an indication for retrograde intubation as it may suggest limited access to the airway. This technique allows for securing the airway in patients with restricted mouth opening, providing an alternative method for intubation.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which of the following are potential side effects or complications of retrograde intubation?1 Bleeding2 Hypoxemia3 Coagulation disorder4 The lack of a local anesthetic for the puncture site
- A.
1,2,3,4
- B.
2,3
- C.
1,2,3
- D.
1,2
Correct Answer
D. 1,2Explanation
Retrograde intubation is a procedure where an alternative airway is established by passing a tube through the cricothyroid membrane. Potential side effects or complications of this procedure include bleeding (1) due to damage to blood vessels during the puncture, hypoxemia (2) which can occur if there is difficulty in establishing the airway, coagulation disorder (3) as a result of trauma to the blood vessels, and the lack of a local anesthetic for the puncture site (4) which can cause discomfort or pain during the procedure. Therefore, options 1 and 2 are correct.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which of the following is false regarding invasive line complication?
- A.
Sluggish infusion is often associated with catheter kinks
- B.
If unable to withdraw blood, flush with 20ml of normal saline
- C.
Infection of the exit site requires dressing changes every 2 days
- D.
You can avoid catheter damage by keeping the cateter looped on the chest wall.
Correct Answer
C. Infection of the exit site requires dressing changes every 2 daysExplanation
The statement "infection of the exit site requires dressing changes every 2 days" is false. Infection of the exit site actually requires more frequent dressing changes, typically every 24 hours. This is done to maintain a clean and sterile environment around the exit site and prevent further infection. Dressing changes every 2 days would not provide adequate protection against infection and could lead to complications.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which of the following is CORRECT regarding CVP "central venous pressure" monitoring?
- A.
Allows accurate assessment of left ventricular function
- B.
Allows rapid assessment of left ventricular end diastolic pressure (LVEDP)
- C.
CVP fluctuates with right ventricular compliance
- D.
Accurately measures PCWP (pulmonary capilary wedge pressure)
Correct Answer
C. CVP fluctuates with right ventricular complianceExplanation
CVP, or central venous pressure, monitoring is used to assess the fluid status and hemodynamic stability of a patient. The correct answer states that CVP fluctuates with right ventricular compliance. This means that changes in the compliance, or ability to stretch, of the right ventricle can affect the CVP reading. Right ventricular compliance can be influenced by factors such as volume status, pulmonary vascular resistance, and cardiac function. Therefore, monitoring CVP can provide valuable information about the right ventricular function and overall hemodynamic status of the patient.Rate this question:
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- 44.
PCWP Stands for:
- A.
Pulmonary capilary wedge pressure
- B.
Primary control with preload
- C.
Primary capilary with preload
- D.
Pulmonary control with pressure
Correct Answer
A. Pulmonary capilary wedge pressureExplanation
PCWP stands for pulmonary capillary wedge pressure. This is a measurement used in medical settings to assess the pressure within the pulmonary capillaries, which are tiny blood vessels in the lungs. It is obtained by inserting a catheter into the pulmonary artery and advancing it until it wedges into a small branch of the pulmonary artery. This measurement is important in evaluating the function of the heart and diagnosing conditions such as congestive heart failure.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which of the following is correct regarding the difference betweena spontaneously wedged catheter, as opposed to one that is occluded:
- A.
Aspirate for blood return
- B.
Inflate the balloon
- C.
Excessive catheter lengths are more prone to occlusion
- D.
Reconfirm proper transducer placement at the phlebostatic axis
Correct Answer
A. Aspirate for blood returnExplanation
Aspirating for blood return is the correct action to take when using a spontaneously wedged catheter. This means that after inserting the catheter into the vessel, the nurse should attempt to withdraw blood from the catheter to confirm proper placement and ensure that the catheter is not occluded. This is different from an occluded catheter, where blood cannot be aspirated. The other options provided in the question are not relevant to the difference between a spontaneously wedged catheter and an occluded one.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Why is it best to place the alarm in the pulse mode rather than the heart rate mode?
- A.
It would detect bleeding from loose tube
- B.
The heart rate is picked up off the heart rate wave form, making it more accurate
- C.
It would detect air in the system
- D.
It would detect improperly wedged tube
Correct Answer
A. It would detect bleeding from loose tubeExplanation
Placing the alarm in pulse mode rather than heart rate mode is best because it would detect bleeding from a loose tube. This is because pulse mode focuses on detecting irregularities in the pulse waveform, which can indicate bleeding from a loose tube. On the other hand, heart rate mode only measures the heart rate waveform, which may not be as sensitive to detecting bleeding. Therefore, using pulse mode is more accurate and effective in identifying this specific issue.Rate this question:
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- 47.
A disease that would increase the afterload of the heart would result in?
- A.
Increase in the cardiac index
- B.
Decrease in the stroke volume
- C.
Increase in myocardial contractility
- D.
Decrease in arterial pressure
Correct Answer
B. Decrease in the stroke volumeExplanation
If a disease increases the afterload of the heart, it means that there is an increased resistance that the heart has to pump against in order to eject blood into the arteries. This increased afterload makes it more difficult for the heart to contract and pump blood out, leading to a decrease in the stroke volume. The stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction, so a decrease in stroke volume means that less blood is being pumped out of the heart.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What would the effect of positive pressure ventilation be on hemodynamic waveform?
- A.
There would be no effects
- B.
The same with those associated with spontaneous respirations
- C.
Hemodynamic pressure waves rise during positive pressure ventilations
- D.
Transducer calibration would need to reflect higher pulmonary pressures
Correct Answer
C. Hemodynamic pressure waves rise during positive pressure ventilationsExplanation
Positive pressure ventilation refers to the mechanical inflation of the lungs through the use of external pressure, such as a ventilator. This process can have an effect on hemodynamic waveform, which refers to the graphical representation of blood pressure changes over time. During positive pressure ventilation, the hemodynamic pressure waves tend to rise. This occurs because the increased pressure in the lungs during ventilation can cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure, leading to changes in cardiac output and vascular resistance. Therefore, the correct answer is "Hemodynamic pressure waves rise during positive pressure ventilations."Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which of the following is FALSE regarding the Rh factor?
- A.
It is an antigenic substance
- B.
It is present in the blood plasma
- C.
Rh positive blood administered to an Rh negative patient will result in hemolysis
- D.
Rh positive blood administered to an Rh negative patient will result in anemia
Correct Answer
B. It is present in the blood plasmaExplanation
The Rh factor is an antigenic substance that is present on the surface of red blood cells, not in the blood plasma. When Rh positive blood is administered to an Rh negative patient, it can lead to hemolysis, the destruction of red blood cells, but not anemia.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which blood preparation contains the formed elements, clotting factors, and antibodies?
- A.
Whole blood
- B.
Packed red blood cells
- C.
Fresh frozen plasma
- D.
Albumin
Correct Answer
A. Whole bloodExplanation
Whole blood is the correct answer because it contains all the formed elements of blood, such as red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. It also contains clotting factors, which are essential for the blood to coagulate and form clots to prevent excessive bleeding. Additionally, whole blood contains antibodies, which are proteins that help to fight against infections and provide immunity. Packed red blood cells, fresh frozen plasma, and albumin do not contain all these components of whole blood.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Nov 09, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Aug 23, 2010Quiz Created by
Perkida
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