Breast care And Gynecology Exam: Quiz!
(246).jpg "Breast care And Gynecology Exam: Quiz! - Quiz")
How much do you understand about breast care and gynecology? Have you ever had an examination or performed an examination on your own? Using the pads of your fingers, go around your entire breast in a circular pattern moving from the outside to the middle, checking the entire breast and armpit area. Check both breasts each month and feel for any lump. This educational quiz could help to save your life.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
What Breast disorder: •Uncommon form of breast cancer •Starts as a scaly, eczema-like lesion that may weep, crust, or erode •A breast mass may be present •Suspect any persisting dermatitis of the nipple and areola
- A.
Breast Carcinoma
- B.
Paget's Disease of the Nipple
- C.
Peau d'Orange
- D.
Mastitis
Correct Answer
B. Paget's Disease of the NippleExplanation
Paget's Disease of the Nipple is the correct answer because it is an uncommon form of breast cancer that starts as a scaly, eczema-like lesion on the nipple and areola. It may weep, crust, or erode, and a breast mass may also be present. Therefore, any persisting dermatitis of the nipple and areola should be suspected as Paget's Disease of the Nipple.Rate this question:
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- 2.
These later findings BEST describe which breast disorder? •\ Skin or nipple retraction; axillary lymphadenopathy; breast enlargement, erythema, edema, pain; fixation of mass to skin or chest wall
- A.
Breast Carcinoma
- B.
Paget's Disease
- C.
Mastitis
- D.
Lobular Cancer
Correct Answer
A. Breast CarcinomaExplanation
The given symptoms of skin or nipple retraction, axillary lymphadenopathy, breast enlargement, erythema, edema, pain, and fixation of mass to skin or chest wall are commonly associated with breast carcinoma. Breast carcinoma is a type of cancer that originates in the cells of the breast and can present with various symptoms including changes in the breast tissue, nipple, and surrounding areas. Therefore, breast carcinoma is the most appropriate disorder that can explain the given symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which is not considered a visible sign of breast Cancer?
- A.
Retraction
- B.
Abnormal contour
- C.
Skin dimpling
- D.
Nipple retraction/ deviation
- E.
Skin edema
- F.
Paget's
- G.
Leukocytosis
Correct Answer
G. LeukocytosisExplanation
Leukocytosis is not considered a visible sign of breast cancer. Leukocytosis refers to an increased number of white blood cells in the bloodstream, which is typically a response to infection or inflammation rather than a direct symptom of breast cancer. Visible signs of breast cancer include retraction or deviation of the nipple, abnormal contour, skin dimpling, and skin edema. Paget's disease is a type of breast cancer that affects the skin of the nipple and areola.Rate this question:
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- 4.
All of the following are structures of the vulva except?
- A.
Mons pubis
- B.
Labia majora/minora
- C.
Clitoris
- D.
Glandular structures opening into vestibule
- E.
Bartholin's glands
Correct Answer
E. Bartholin's glandsExplanation
Bartholin's glands are not structures of the vulva. The vulva consists of the mons pubis, labia majora/minora, clitoris, and glandular structures opening into the vestibule. Bartholin's glands, on the other hand, are located on either side of the vaginal opening, within the vestibule, but they are not considered part of the vulva itself. These glands are responsible for producing lubrication during sexual arousal.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Bartholin's glands are visible at the 5 and 7 oclock positions outside the vulva.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
NOT visibleRate this question:
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- 6.
What does the uterus consist of anatomically?
- A.
Corpus + cervix
- B.
Cervix + adnexa
- C.
Uterus + fallopian tubes
- D.
Uterus + adnexa
Correct Answer
A. Corpus + cervixExplanation
The uterus consists of two main parts anatomically: the corpus, which is the main body of the uterus, and the cervix, which is the lower part that connects the uterus to the vagina. This answer accurately identifies both the corpus and cervix as the components of the uterus.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What is not a part of the genital adnexa for females?
- A.
Ovaries
- B.
Fallopian tubes
- C.
Supporting tissues
- D.
Clitoris and clitoral sheath
Correct Answer
D. Clitoris and clitoral sheathExplanation
The genital adnexa for females include the ovaries, fallopian tubes, and supporting tissues. The clitoris and clitoral sheath are not part of the genital adnexa. The clitoris is a small, sensitive organ located at the top of the vulva, while the clitoral sheath is a fold of skin that covers the clitoris. Although they are important anatomical structures, they are not considered part of the genital adnexa.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What term below fits this definition: Vaginal surface of cervix seen with speculum, @ center is external os (round, oval, slit like) opens to endocervical canal
- A.
Endocervix
- B.
Paracervix
- C.
Ectocervix
- D.
Pseudocervix
Correct Answer
C. EctocervixExplanation
The term "ectocervix" fits the given definition because it refers to the external surface of the cervix that is visible with a speculum. The description of the external os, which is round, oval, or slit-like and opens to the endocervical canal, aligns with the characteristics of the ectocervix.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What is the most common STD in the US?
- A.
Chlamydia
- B.
Gonorrhea
- C.
HPV
- D.
HIV
Correct Answer
C. HPVExplanation
HPV, or Human Papillomavirus, is the most common STD in the US. It is a viral infection that is spread through sexual contact. HPV can cause various health issues, including genital warts and certain types of cancer. It is highly prevalent due to its ability to be transmitted easily and often without symptoms. Regular testing and vaccination are essential to prevent the spread of HPV and its associated complications.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which is not a cause of post coital bleeding?
- A.
Polyps
- B.
Cancer
- C.
Atrophic vaginitis
- D.
Candida
Correct Answer
D. CandidaExplanation
Candida is not a cause of post coital bleeding. Post coital bleeding refers to vaginal bleeding that occurs after sexual intercourse and can be caused by various factors such as polyps, cancer, and atrophic vaginitis. However, candida, which is a type of yeast infection, is not typically associated with post coital bleeding.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What is the US girls age of menarche on average
- A.
9-16
- B.
4-8
- C.
12-13
- D.
10-11
Correct Answer
A. 9-16Explanation
The average age of menarche, which is the onset of menstruation, for girls in the US is between 9 and 16 years old. This means that most girls will experience their first period within this age range. It is important to note that individual variations exist, and some girls may start earlier or later than the average age.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Once a girl starts her period, how long can it take until menses becomes regular?
- A.
6 months
- B.
Immediately
- C.
2 years
- D.
1 year
Correct Answer
D. 1 yearExplanation
After a girl starts her period, it can take up to 1 year for her menstrual cycle to become regular. During the first few years after menarche (the first occurrence of menstruation), the cycle length and duration of bleeding can vary. It takes time for the hormones to balance out and for the body to establish a consistent pattern. This process usually takes around 1 year, after which the menstrual cycle becomes more predictable and regular.Rate this question:
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- 13.
When looking at the cervix, what area of anatomy are you testing in a pap smear looking for dysplasia?
- A.
Columnar epithelium
- B.
Cervical os
- C.
Squamal columnar junction
- D.
Red ectropion zone
Correct Answer
C. Squamal columnar junctionExplanation
The correct answer is the squamocolumnar junction. During a pap smear, the squamocolumnar junction is the area of the cervix that is tested for dysplasia. Dysplasia refers to the abnormal growth of cells, and it can be an early sign of cervical cancer. The squamocolumnar junction is the area where the squamous epithelium (outer layer of cells) meets the columnar epithelium (inner layer of cells) in the cervix. This area is particularly prone to dysplasia and is therefore the focus of testing during a pap smear.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What is the most common (m/c) reported STI in U.S., m/c STI in women, most are undiagnosed, routine screening recommended
- A.
Chlamydia
- B.
Gonnorhea
- C.
HPV
- D.
HSV
Correct Answer
A. ChlamydiaExplanation
Chlamydia is the most common reported STI in the U.S. and also the most common STI in women. It is often undiagnosed because it may not show any symptoms. Routine screening is recommended to identify and treat chlamydia infections early, as they can lead to serious complications if left untreated.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Untreated _______: -40% pts develop PID, 20% pts become infertile
- A.
Chronic Candidiasis
- B.
Gonnorhea
- C.
Chlamydia
- D.
Bacterial Vaginitis
Correct Answer
C. ChlamydiaExplanation
Untreated Chlamydia can lead to the development of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) in 40% of patients and cause infertility in 20% of patients. PID is a serious infection that affects the reproductive organs in women and can lead to complications such as chronic pelvic pain, ectopic pregnancy, and infertility. Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis and is one of the most common STIs worldwide. It is important to diagnose and treat Chlamydia promptly to prevent the development of complications.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What percentage of pregnancies are unplanned?
- A.
100
- B.
10
- C.
50
- D.
60
Correct Answer
C. 50Explanation
Approximately 50% of pregnancies are unplanned. This means that half of the pregnancies that occur are unintended or unexpected. Unplanned pregnancies can happen due to various reasons such as lack of contraception use, contraceptive failure, or simply not intending to become pregnant at that time. It is important to note that unplanned pregnancies can have significant implications for individuals and families, and highlight the importance of access to reproductive healthcare and education.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Ovarian is not treatable but is preventable because of ovarian CA screening tests
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
rare, no good screening test, strongest RF’s family hx, BRCA mutations, CA-125 is not sensitive or specificRate this question:
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- 18.
Your patient has vulvar pruritus and a malodorous frothy, yellow-green discharge.There is diffuse vaginal erythema and red macular lesions on the cervix. The cervix appears to look like a strawberry. You realize this is a severe case in which you treat with Metronidazole and tinidazole. The wet mount shows motile organisms with flagella as below. What is the disease/etiology?
- A.
Vaginitis, d/t Trichomonas vaginalis
- B.
Dysplasia due to Human papilloma virus
- C.
Seconday syphillus sequela
Correct Answer
A. Vaginitis, d/t Trichomonas vaginalisExplanation
The patient's symptoms of vulvar pruritus, malodorous frothy discharge, diffuse vaginal erythema, and red macular lesions on the cervix are consistent with a diagnosis of vaginitis. The presence of motile organisms with flagella on the wet mount confirms the etiology as Trichomonas vaginalis, a sexually transmitted infection. Treatment with Metronidazole and tinidazole is appropriate for this severe case of trichomonas vaginitis.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What is the treatment for trichomonas vaginitis?
- A.
Metronidazole, Tinidazole
- B.
Clobex
- C.
Clotrimazole
- D.
Fluconazole
Correct Answer
A. Metronidazole, TinidazoleExplanation
The correct treatment for trichomonas vaginitis is Metronidazole or Tinidazole. These medications are commonly used to treat infections caused by the parasite Trichomonas vaginalis. They work by killing the parasite and relieving the symptoms of the infection. Clobex is a topical medication used to treat certain skin conditions and is not effective against trichomonas vaginitis. Clotrimazole is an antifungal medication used to treat yeast infections, not trichomonas vaginitis. Fluconazole is also an antifungal medication used to treat yeast infections and is not effective against trichomonas vaginitis.Rate this question:
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- 20.
An ulcerated or raised red vulvar lesion in an elderly woman may indicate ________
- A.
Bacterial vaginosis
- B.
Bartholin's cyst
- C.
Vulvar carcinoma
Correct Answer
C. Vulvar carcinomaExplanation
An ulcerated or raised red vulvar lesion in an elderly woman may indicate vulvar carcinoma. Vulvar carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the vulva, which is the external part of the female genitalia. It can present with symptoms such as ulcers or raised red lesions on the vulva. Given that the woman is elderly, the risk of developing vulvar carcinoma increases, making it a likely possibility. Bacterial vaginosis and Bartholin's cyst are less likely to cause such symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Your patient comes in with an acutely tense, hot and very tender abscess. She also admits that she was diagnosed last week with Gonorrhea, what is she likely to have currently?
- A.
Bacterial Vaginosis cyst
- B.
Vulvar carcinoma
- C.
Acute reaction to Levofloxacin for the gonorrhea
- D.
Bartholin's Gland abscess
Correct Answer
D. Bartholin's Gland abscessExplanation
The patient's symptoms of an acutely tense, hot, and very tender abscess, along with a recent diagnosis of gonorrhea, suggest that she is likely to have a Bartholin's Gland abscess. Bartholin's gland abscess is a common complication of gonorrhea infection and is characterized by the formation of a painful abscess near the vaginal opening. The symptoms described align with the presentation of a Bartholin's gland abscess.Rate this question:
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- 22.
•Also known as epidermal inclusion cysts or sebaceous cysts •Commonly found on the vulva •Generally asymptomatic and require no further evaluation
- A.
Epidermoid cysts
- B.
Bartholins cysts-chronic
- C.
Vulvar cysts
- D.
Syphillitic Chancre
Correct Answer
A. Epidermoid cystsExplanation
Epidermoid cysts, also known as epidermal inclusion cysts or sebaceous cysts, are commonly found on the vulva. They are generally asymptomatic and require no further evaluation. This means that they do not cause any symptoms and do not need any additional tests or treatment unless they become bothersome. The other options, such as Bartholin's cysts, chronic vulvar cysts, and Syphillitic Chancre, do not fit the given description.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Responsible for approximately 70% of clinical cancers.
- A.
HIV
- B.
Dysplasia
- C.
HPV
- D.
Gonorrhea
Correct Answer
C. HPVExplanation
HPV (Human Papillomavirus) is responsible for approximately 70% of clinical cancers. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that can lead to various types of cancer, including cervical, anal, vaginal, and oropharyngeal cancer. It is a common virus that can be spread through sexual contact and can also be transmitted from mother to baby during childbirth. HPV infections can often go unnoticed as they may not cause any symptoms, but they can lead to the development of cancerous cells over time. Regular screenings and vaccination against HPV are important preventive measures to reduce the risk of developing HPV-related cancers.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Suzy has pruritus, vulvovaginal erythema, and a white curd-like discharge that is not malodorous. You do a microscopic examination with 10% potassium hydroxide reveals branched hyphae, after which you treat it with topical azoles or oral fluconazole. What is the disease?
- A.
Gonorrhea
- B.
Chlamydia Trichomatis
- C.
Bacterial Vaginosis
- D.
Vulvovaginal Candidiasis
Correct Answer
D. Vulvovaginal CandidiasisExplanation
The symptoms described, including pruritus, vulvovaginal erythema, and a white curd-like discharge, are consistent with vulvovaginal candidiasis. The microscopic examination with 10% potassium hydroxide revealing branched hyphae further supports this diagnosis, as this is a characteristic finding in candidiasis. The treatment with topical azoles or oral fluconazole is also commonly used for vulvovaginal candidiasis. Therefore, the correct answer is Vulvovaginal Candidiasis.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Your pt. presents with increased malodorous discharge. Upon exam she has no obvious vulvitis or vaginitis. She notes that she is a Catholic Nun who is asexual, and has never had sex nor does she want to. You note a gray frothy discharge, which upon testing shows a pH of 5.0-5.5. Upon exam you note an amine like "fishy" odor with discharge. You alkaline the discharge with 10% KOH, and subseqently on wet mount you find that the epithelial cells are covered with bacteria to such an extent that cell borders are obscured, as shown below . You treat this with Metronidazole, Clindamycin. What is the disease?
- A.
Bacterial Vaginosis
- B.
Chlamydia Trachomatis
- C.
Vulvar Candidiasis
- D.
Primary syphillis
Correct Answer
A. Bacterial VaginosisExplanation
The patient's presentation of increased malodorous discharge, gray frothy discharge, amine-like odor, and the presence of bacteria on the epithelial cells suggest a diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis. Bacterial vaginosis is a common vaginal infection characterized by an overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina, leading to a disruption in the normal vaginal flora. The pH of 5.0-5.5 and the positive response to KOH alkaline test further support this diagnosis. Treatment with metronidazole and clindamycin is appropriate for bacterial vaginosis.Rate this question:
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- 26.
This disease is caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum, causing a firm painless ulcer as above. What is the treatment?
- A.
Bactrim
- B.
Levofloxacin
- C.
Penicillin
- D.
Tetracycline
Correct Answer
C. PenicillinExplanation
Penicillin is the correct treatment for the disease caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum. Penicillin is a commonly used antibiotic that is effective against many bacterial infections, including syphilis, which is caused by this particular spirochete. It is the preferred treatment for syphilis and has been proven to be highly effective in curing the infection. Other antibiotics like Bactrim, Levofloxacin, and Tetracycline may be used in certain cases, but penicillin remains the most reliable and recommended treatment option.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What is the most prevalent painful genital ulcer disease, and is also a chronic viral infecton?
- A.
HPV
- B.
VVZ
- C.
HIV
- D.
HSV
Correct Answer
D. HSVExplanation
HSV, or Herpes Simplex Virus, is the most prevalent painful genital ulcer disease and a chronic viral infection. It is transmitted through sexual contact and can cause recurring painful sores or ulcers on the genitals. HSV is divided into two types: HSV-1, which usually causes oral herpes, and HSV-2, which is primarily responsible for genital herpes. It is estimated that over 400 million people worldwide are infected with HSV-2. While there is no cure for HSV, antiviral medications can help manage the symptoms and reduce the frequency and severity of outbreaks.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What would you treat Condyloma Acuminata with?
- A.
Excision
- B.
Cryotherapy
- C.
Aldara, TCA
- D.
Bactrim
Correct Answer
C. Aldara, TCAExplanation
Aldara and TCA (trichloroacetic acid) are both commonly used treatments for Condyloma Acuminata, also known as genital warts. Aldara is a topical cream that stimulates the body's immune response to fight the virus causing the warts. TCA is a chemical solution that is applied directly to the warts, causing them to gradually shrink and disappear. Both treatments have been proven effective in treating this condition. Excision, which refers to surgically removing the warts, and cryotherapy, which involves freezing the warts, are also treatment options but were not mentioned in the answer choices. Bactrim is an antibiotic and is not typically used to treat condyloma acuminata.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Your patient Molly admits to having sexual contact with her boyfriend, but not vaginal penetration. Upon exam, you note flesh-colored, dome-shaped papules with a central umbilication, as shown below. You note that this is a highly contagious disease and encourage your pt to keep her current partner to avoid spreading this pathogen. You reassure her that it will regress likely within 2 to 3 months.
- A.
Epidermoid vulvar inclusion cyst
- B.
Condyloma Acuminata
- C.
Condyloma lata
- D.
Molluscum Contagiosum
Correct Answer
D. Molluscum ContagiosumExplanation
The correct answer is Molluscum Contagiosum. This is a viral skin infection caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus. The flesh-colored, dome-shaped papules with central umbilication described in the question are characteristic of molluscum contagiosum. It is highly contagious and can be transmitted through sexual contact. The infection usually resolves on its own within 2 to 3 months, but treatment may be necessary in some cases. Encouraging the patient to avoid spreading the virus to her current partner is important to prevent further transmission.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Your patient has intense vulvar itching which is worse at night. Upon exam, you note that their is vulvar excoriations and lichenification. You tell your patient that there is no curative treatment but you can prescribe a topical steroid for her symptoms. What is the disease?
- A.
Vulvar Hiradenitis Suppuritiva
- B.
Vulvar Candidiasis
- C.
Lichen Sclerosis
- D.
Bacterial Vulvinosis
Correct Answer
C. Lichen SclerosisExplanation
Lichen Sclerosis is the correct answer. Lichen Sclerosis is a chronic inflammatory condition that affects the skin of the vulva. It causes intense itching, especially at night, and can lead to vulvar excoriations and lichenification. Although there is no curative treatment for Lichen Sclerosis, topical steroids can be prescribed to help alleviate the symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Your patient upon normal pap smear has a cervix that looks like this: You are looking at a translucent nodule. What is this most likely to be, and what is the treatment?
- A.
Lichenification of squamous epithelium; none
- B.
Cervical inclusion cyst; D&C
- C.
Cervical inclusion cyst; none
- D.
Nabothian cyst; none
Correct Answer
D. Nabothian cyst; noneExplanation
The correct answer is "Nabothian cyst; none." A Nabothian cyst is a benign cyst that forms on the surface of the cervix. It is typically filled with mucus and appears as a translucent nodule. These cysts are common and usually do not require any treatment unless they are causing symptoms or complications. Therefore, the appropriate treatment in this case is none.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Upon exam, you notice this soft lesion on the patient's cervix. It is rather fragile and starts to bleed. You are worried it may be cancer. What is your next step?
- A.
Take detailed STI hx and do saline prep for HPV
- B.
Follow the patient and take a CBC to check white count
- C.
Read your book because it's not cancer it's a benign cervical polyp
- D.
Excision and electrocautery, subsequent biopsy
Correct Answer
C. Read your book because it's not cancer it's a benign cervical polypExplanation
The correct answer is "Read your book because it's not cancer it's a benign cervical polyp." This answer suggests that the soft lesion on the patient's cervix is most likely a benign cervical polyp rather than cancer. The term "read your book" implies that the healthcare provider should consult their medical resources or reference materials to confirm this diagnosis. Cervical polyps are usually noncancerous growths that can cause bleeding and are typically easily treated or removed.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which of the following is not usually a pathological cause of mucopurulent cervicitis?
- A.
Chlamydia trachomatis
- B.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
- C.
Herpes virus
- D.
Mucopurulent discharge that is normal for said patien
Correct Answer
D. Mucopurulent discharge that is normal for said patienExplanation
The given options are all potential causes of mucopurulent cervicitis, which is an inflammation of the cervix characterized by a thick, yellowish discharge. Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are common sexually transmitted infections that can cause this condition. Herpes virus can also lead to mucopurulent cervicitis, as it causes genital herpes. However, the option "mucopurulent discharge that is normal for said patient" is not a pathological cause of the condition. It suggests that the discharge is normal for the specific patient, indicating that there is no underlying infection or inflammation causing the symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 34.
In the early stage of cervical carcinoma, there is clear delineation of pathologic vs normal tissue
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Early stage: cannot be distinguished from a normal cervixRate this question:
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.png "Suzy has pruritus, vulvovaginal erythema, and a white curd-like discharge that is not malodorous. You do a microscopic examination with 10% potassium hydroxide reveals branched hyphae, after which you treat it with topical azoles or oral fluconazole. What is the disease?")
.png "Your pt. presents with increased malodorous discharge. Upon exam she has no obvious vulvitis or vaginitis. She notes that she is a Catholic Nun who is asexual, and has never had sex nor does she want to. You note a gray frothy discharge, which upon testing shows a pH of 5.0-5.5. Upon exam you note an amine like \"fishy\" odor with discharge. You alkaline the discharge with 10% KOH, and subseqently on wet mount you find that the epithelial cells are covered with bacteria to such an extent that cell borders are obscured, as shown below . You treat this with Metronidazole, Clindamycin. What is the disease?")
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