Perineum Anatomy Quiz
.JPG "Perineum Anatomy Quiz - Quiz")
The perineum is below the pelvic diaphragm and between the legs. It is a diamond-shaped area that includes the anus and, in females, the vagina. Just how much do you know about the perineum anatomy and bones? Take up the quiz below and get to learn more. All the best and keep studying.
- 1.
Which of the following is most likely pertaining to the two pelves depicted?
- A.
The one on the left is male and the one on the right is female.
- B.
The one on the right is male and the one on the left is female.
- C.
The one on the left is from a younger person than the one on the right.
- D.
The one on the right is from a younger person than the one on the left.
- E.
The one on the right shows arthritic degeneration at the sacroiliac joint.
Correct Answer
A. The one on the left is male and the one on the right is female.Explanation
The most likely explanation for the correct answer is that the two pelves depicted have characteristics that are typically associated with male and female individuals. This could include differences in the shape, size, and structure of the pelvis, as well as the presence or absence of certain features such as the pelvic inlet and outlet. These differences can be used to determine the sex of an individual based on skeletal remains.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following is correct pertaining to the bony pelvis?
- A.
The pelvic girdle is composed of the right and left hip bones and the sacrum.
- B.
In infants and children the hip bone is composed of three separate bones—the ilium, ischium, and pubis.
- C.
The ala of the ilium helps to form the acetabulum.
- D.
The ischial spine separates the greater and lesser sciatic foramina.
- E.
The pelvic brim separates the greater (false) and lesser (true) pelves.
- F.
All of the above
Correct Answer
F. All of the aboveExplanation
All of the statements you provided are correct. Here’s a brief explanation for each:
The pelvic girdle is indeed composed of the right and left hip bones and the sacrum.
In infants and children, the hip bone is composed of three separate bones—the ilium, ischium, and pubis.
The ala of the ilium helps to form the acetabulum.
The ischial spine separates the greater and lesser sciatic foramina.
The pelvic brim separates the greater (false) and lesser (true) pelves.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The sacrotuberous ligament:
- A.
Passes through the greater sciatic notch.
- B.
Attaches to the ala of the sacrum.
- C.
Resists posterosuperior rotation of the sacrum (inferior aspect moving posteriorly and superiorly).
- D.
Passes through the obturator foramen.
- E.
Prevents posterior dislocation of the femoral head.
Correct Answer
C. Resists posterosuperior rotation of the sacrum (inferior aspect moving posteriorly and superiorly).Explanation
The sacrotuberous ligament is a strong ligament that attaches from the sacrum to the ischial tuberosity. Its main function is to resist posterosuperior rotation of the sacrum, which means that it prevents the inferior aspect of the sacrum from moving posteriorly and superiorly. This helps to stabilize the sacrum and maintain proper alignment of the pelvis. The other statements in the question are incorrect and do not accurately describe the function or location of the sacrotuberous ligament.Rate this question:
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- 4.
In examining a newly pregnant woman, you notice that the spinous process of the L5 vertebra is abnormally prominent compared to the spinous processes of the superior lumbar vertebrae. You suspect:
- A.
A fracture of the body of L5.
- B.
Spondylolisthesis
- C.
A vertebral canal tumor.
- D.
Spina bifida.
- E.
Kyphosis
Correct Answer
B. SpondylolisthesisExplanation
Spondylolisthesis is the most likely explanation for the abnormally prominent spinous process of the L5 vertebra compared to the superior lumbar vertebrae. Spondylolisthesis is a condition where one vertebra slips forward over the vertebra below it. This can cause the spinous process to appear more prominent. Fracture of the body of L5 would likely cause more severe symptoms and would be less likely in a pregnant woman without a history of trauma. Vertebral canal tumor and spina bifida would typically present with different symptoms. Kyphosis refers to excessive forward curvature of the spine, which would not explain the specific finding of the prominent spinous process.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to the pelvis during pregnancy?
- A.
The true (conjugate) distance between the sacral promontory and the posterosuperior aspect of the pubic symphysis increases.
- B.
The hormone, relaxin, relaxes the pelvic ligaments.
- C.
The transverse diameter of the pelvis is increased.
- D.
The amount of pelvic rotation permitted around the sacrum is increased.
- E.
The coccyx is permitted to move more posteriorly.
Correct Answer
A. The true (conjugate) distance between the sacral promontory and the posterosuperior aspect of the pubic symphysis increases.Explanation
During pregnancy, the hormone relaxin is released, which relaxes the pelvic ligaments. This allows for increased mobility and flexibility in the pelvis, enabling it to accommodate the growing fetus and facilitate childbirth. The transverse diameter of the pelvis also increases to provide more space for the baby to pass through during delivery. Additionally, the amount of pelvic rotation around the sacrum increases, aiding in the birthing process. The coccyx, or tailbone, is permitted to move more posteriorly to further accommodate the baby's passage. However, the true distance between the sacral promontory and the posterosuperior aspect of the pubic symphysis does not increase during pregnancy.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to the pelvic diaphragm?
- A.
It separates the pelvic cavity from the perineum.
- B.
It is pierced by the vagina in females.
- C.
It helps maintain urinary continence.
- D.
It helps maintain fecal continence
- E.
It is synonymous with the levator ani.
Correct Answer
E. It is synonymous with the levator ani.Explanation
The pelvic diaphragm is not synonymous with the levator ani. The pelvic diaphragm is a group of muscles that forms the floor of the pelvic cavity and separates it from the perineum. It helps maintain urinary and fecal continence by supporting the organs in the pelvic cavity. The levator ani is a specific muscle within the pelvic diaphragm that plays a role in supporting the pelvic organs and controlling continence, but it is not synonymous with the entire pelvic diaphragm.Rate this question:
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- 7.
In the following AP pelvic radiograph, the arrow indicates:
- A.
The sacrotuberous ligament.
- B.
The ischial spine.
- C.
The ischial tuberosity.
- D.
The iliac tubercle.
- E.
A posteriorly dislocated femoral head.
Correct Answer
B. The ischial spine.Explanation
The correct answer is the ischial spine. In an AP pelvic radiograph, the ischial spine appears as a bony prominence located posteriorly and medially to the ischial tuberosity. It is an important landmark used in pelvic measurements and is also a reference point for identifying certain pelvic fractures. The sacrotuberous ligament is not visible on an AP radiograph, and the iliac tubercle is located on the iliac crest, not the ischial spine. A posteriorly dislocated femoral head would be seen as a displacement of the femoral head from its normal position in the acetabulum.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The levator ani:
- A.
Is innervated by pelvic splanchnic nerves.
- B.
Actively contracts during coughing.
- C.
Causes increased urination when spastic.
- D.
Is part of the urogenital diaphragm.
- E.
Actively contracts during inspiration.
Correct Answer
B. Actively contracts during coughing.Explanation
The levator ani is a group of muscles located in the pelvic region. It plays a crucial role in maintaining continence and supporting the organs in the pelvis. During coughing, the levator ani contracts actively to provide additional support to the pelvic organs and prevent any leakage of urine or feces. This contraction helps to maintain continence and prevent any involuntary release of urine or feces during coughing episodes. Therefore, the statement "actively contracts during coughing" is the correct explanation for the given answer.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The rectouterine pouch:
- A.
May be entered from the anterior vaginal fornix.
- B.
Is a peritoneal recess.
- C.
Is within the broad ligament.
- D.
Contains the ovaries.
- E.
Provides support to the bladder.
Correct Answer
B. Is a peritoneal recess.Explanation
The rectouterine pouch is a peritoneal recess located between the rectum and the uterus. It is also known as the pouch of Douglas. This pouch is formed by the reflection of the peritoneum from the posterior wall of the uterus to the rectum. It is an important anatomical landmark in gynecology and can be accessed through the anterior vaginal fornix during certain procedures. The rectouterine pouch does not contain the ovaries and its main function is not to provide support to the bladder.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to the transverse cervical (cardinal) ligament?
- A.
It is composed of subperitoneal endopelvic fascia
- B.
It provides support to the uterus.
- C.
It attaches to the lateral wall of the pelvic cavity.
- D.
It provides an attachment for the levator ani.
- E.
It may be used to hold sutures during pelvic surgery.
Correct Answer
D. It provides an attachment for the levator ani.Explanation
The transverse cervical (cardinal) ligament is a fibrous band that provides support to the uterus and attaches to the lateral wall of the pelvic cavity. It is composed of subperitoneal endopelvic fascia, which makes it strong and capable of holding sutures during pelvic surgery. However, it does not provide an attachment for the levator ani, which is a different structure responsible for supporting the pelvic organs and maintaining continence.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to the sacral plexus?
- A.
It is located on the posterolateral wall of the lesser pelvis.
- B.
It is related to the anterior surface of the piriformis muscle.
- C.
It is joined by the lumbosacral trunk
- D.
It may be compressed during parturition, resulting in lower limb pain.
- E.
Most of its branches exit the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen.
Correct Answer
E. Most of its branches exit the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen.Explanation
The correct answer is "Most of its branches exit the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen." This statement is incorrect because most of the branches of the sacral plexus actually exit the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen, not the lesser sciatic foramen. The lesser sciatic foramen is primarily traversed by the tendon of the obturator internus muscle and the pudendal nerve.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The hypogastric plexuses:
- A.
Convey vagal fibers to the pelvic viscera.
- B.
Convey pelvic splanchnic fibers to pelvic viscera.
- C.
Convey sympathetic fibers to pelvic viscera.
- D.
Receive white communicating rami from the sacral spinal nerves.
- E.
Comprise the pelvic part of the sympathetic trunk.
Correct Answer
C. Convey sympathetic fibers to pelvic viscera.Explanation
The hypogastric plexuses are a network of nerves located in the pelvis. They are responsible for conveying sympathetic fibers to the pelvic viscera. This means that they transmit signals from the sympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for the fight-or-flight response, to the organs in the pelvic region. These sympathetic fibers help regulate various functions in the pelvic viscera, such as blood flow, digestion, and bladder control.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to pelvic parasympathetic innervation?
- A.
It derives from spinal segments S2-4.
- B.
It stimulates rectal contraction for defecation.
- C.
It stimulates bladder contraction for urination.
- D.
It stimulates ejaculation
- E.
The fibers are accompanied by visceral afferent fibers from pelvic viscera.
Correct Answer
D. It stimulates ejaculationExplanation
The given statement is incorrect because pelvic parasympathetic innervation does not stimulate ejaculation. Ejaculation is primarily controlled by the sympathetic nervous system. The parasympathetic innervation of the pelvis is responsible for stimulating bladder contraction for urination and rectal contraction for defecation. The fibers of pelvic parasympathetic innervation are indeed accompanied by visceral afferent fibers from pelvic viscera.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The pelvic pain line:
- A.
Characterizes pelvic pain referral areas based on the inferior limit of peritoneum.
- B.
Is at the level of the first sacral segment.
- C.
Refers to the vertebral level at which the pain associated with parturition is most severe.
- D.
Is only relevant during childbirth.
- E.
Relates to the referred pain felt in the midsagittal plane after hysterectomy.
Correct Answer
A. Characterizes pelvic pain referral areas based on the inferior limit of peritoneum.Explanation
The pelvic pain line characterizes pelvic pain referral areas based on the inferior limit of peritoneum. This means that it identifies the areas where pain is felt in the pelvis based on the location of the peritoneum. It is not limited to childbirth or hysterectomy, but rather applies to any pelvic pain. It is not specific to a particular vertebral level, but rather focuses on the peritoneum as a reference point for identifying pain referral areas.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to the umbilical artery?
- A.
It gives rise to the obturator artery.
- B.
It is a branch of the internal iliac artery.
- C.
It gives rise to superior vesical arteries.
- D.
It forms the medial umbilical ligament.
- E.
Postnatally, has both patent and occluded parts.
Correct Answer
A. It gives rise to the obturator artery.Explanation
The correct answer is that the umbilical artery does not give rise to the obturator artery. The umbilical artery is a branch of the internal iliac artery, and it gives rise to the superior vesical arteries. It forms the medial umbilical ligament postnatally, and it can have both patent and occluded parts.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The uterine artery:
- A.
Passes superior to the ureter at the lateral fornix of the vagina.
- B.
Is a branch of the external iliac artery.
- C.
Is intraperitoneal.
- D.
Supplies the bladder
- E.
Connects to the uterus at its junction with the uterine tubes.
Correct Answer
A. Passes superior to the ureter at the lateral fornix of the vagina.Explanation
The uterine artery passes superior to the ureter at the lateral fornix of the vagina. This is the correct answer because the uterine artery is located above the ureter and runs along the lateral fornix of the vagina. This anatomical relationship is important to note as it helps to avoid injury to the ureter during surgical procedures involving the uterus or surrounding structures.Rate this question:
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.JPG "In the following AP pelvic radiograph, the arrow indicates:")
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Nov 06, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Mar 25, 2012Quiz Created by
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