American Government Final Exam

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American Government Final Exam - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Bureaucracy is the name given to

    • A.

      A large organization, structured hierarchically, that carries out specific functions.

    • B.

      Any organization that has major problems when attempting to accomplish its goals.

    • C.

      A group of people who work to enforce policies in a way that prevents quick results.

    • D.

      Any large branch of a government that has power to interpret laws.

    • E.

      Government organizations, but not corporate or university ones.

    Correct Answer
    A. A large organization, structured hierarchically, that carries out specific functions.
    Explanation
    Bureaucracy is defined as a large organization that is structured hierarchically and carries out specific functions. This means that it is a formal system of organization and administration designed to ensure efficiency and effectiveness in achieving goals. Bureaucracies are characterized by a clear chain of command, division of labor, and adherence to rules and procedures. They are commonly found in government agencies and large corporations, and their purpose is to streamline processes and ensure that tasks are carried out in a systematic and organized manner.

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  • 2. 

    One of the important differences between public bureaucracies and private corporations is that government bureaucracies

    • A.

      Are not organized to make a profit, while private corporations are.

    • B.

      Have a single set of leaders, while private corporations do not.

    • C.

      Are much larger than private corporations.

    • D.

      Are not intended to serve the citizenry, as private corporations are.

    • E.

      Present an opportunity for career advancement, while private corporations do not.

    Correct Answer
    A. Are not organized to make a profit, while private corporations are.
    Explanation
    Public bureaucracies are not organized to make a profit, while private corporations are. This means that the primary goal of government bureaucracies is to serve the public and fulfill their responsibilities, rather than generating financial gains. On the other hand, private corporations aim to maximize profits for their shareholders and owners. This fundamental difference in organizational objectives shapes the decision-making processes, priorities, and overall functioning of these two entities.

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  • 3. 

    The number of federal government employees has

    • A.

      Increased significantly in the last several decades.

    • B.

      Remained relatively stable for the last several decades.

    • C.

      Decreased substantially in the last ten years.

    • D.

      Grown to exceed the number of local government employees.

    • E.

      Grown to exceed the number of state government employees.

    Correct Answer
    B. Remained relatively stable for the last several decades.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "remained relatively stable for the last several decades." This means that the number of federal government employees has not seen significant increases or decreases over the past several decades.

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  • 4. 

    Today, government spending accounts for about _____ of the U.S. gross domestic product.

    • A.

      10%

    • B.

      20%

    • C.

      30%

    • D.

      40%

    • E.

      50%

    Correct Answer
    D. 40%
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 40%. This means that government spending makes up 40% of the total value of goods and services produced in the United States. This includes spending on things like healthcare, education, defense, infrastructure, and social welfare programs. Government spending plays a significant role in the economy, as it can stimulate growth and provide essential services to the population.

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  • 5. 

    The cabinet departments are

    • A.

      Less significant than independent agencies.

    • B.

      Privatized bureaucracies.

    • C.

      Government corporations.

    • D.

      The fifteen major departments of the executive branch.

    • E.

      Independent agencies.

    Correct Answer
    D. The fifteen major departments of the executive branch.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the fifteen major departments of the executive branch. This is because the cabinet departments are the primary units of the executive branch of the government responsible for carrying out specific functions and policies. They are headed by a secretary who is a member of the President's cabinet. There are currently fifteen cabinet departments in the United States government, each with its own area of responsibility and jurisdiction.

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  • 6. 

    The cabinet departments, in terms of organization, are

    • A.

      Directly accountable to the president.

    • B.

      Independent of direct control by the president.

    • C.

      Responsible for the actions of independent agencies.

    • D.

      Part of the legislative branch.

    • E.

      Responsible for monitoring the president.

    Correct Answer
    A. Directly accountable to the president.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is directly accountable to the president. Cabinet departments are part of the executive branch of the government and are headed by secretaries who are appointed by the president. They are responsible for implementing and enforcing policies and programs of the president. As such, they are directly accountable to the president for their actions and decisions.

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  • 7. 

    Independent executive agencies are

    • A.

      The most recent cabinet departments.

    • B.

      Responsible for regulating major aspects of the economy.

    • C.

      Not part of cabinet departments but report directly to the president.

    • D.

      Responsible directly to Congress.

    • E.

      Staffed entirely by political appointees.

    Correct Answer
    C. Not part of cabinet departments but report directly to the president.
    Explanation
    Independent executive agencies are not part of cabinet departments but report directly to the president. This means that they operate independently from the cabinet departments and have a direct line of communication and accountability to the president. Unlike cabinet departments, which are headed by secretaries and are part of the executive branch, independent executive agencies have their own leadership and are not under the direct control of the president.

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  • 8. 

    _____ were set up because Congress felt it was unable to handle the complexities and technicalities required to carry out specific laws in the public interest.

    • A.

      Cabinet departments

    • B.

      Independent executive agencies

    • C.

      Independent regulatory agencies

    • D.

      Government corporations

    • E.

      Courts of limited jurisdiction

    Correct Answer
    C. Independent regulatory agencies
    Explanation
    Independent regulatory agencies were set up because Congress felt it was unable to handle the complexities and technicalities required to carry out specific laws in the public interest. These agencies are designed to regulate and oversee specific industries or sectors, such as the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) or the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC). They have the authority to create and enforce regulations, conduct investigations, and ensure compliance with the law. By being independent from Congress, these agencies can focus on their specific area of expertise and make decisions based on technical knowledge and expertise.

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  • 9. 

    _____ is when an industry that is being regulated gains control over the agency that is supposed to regulate it.

    • A.

      Cooption

    • B.

      Capture

    • C.

      Complacency

    • D.

      Collusion

    • E.

      Pork

    Correct Answer
    B. Capture
    Explanation
    Capture refers to a situation where an industry that is being regulated gains control over the agency that is supposed to regulate it. This can occur through various means, such as lobbying, bribery, or the revolving door phenomenon, where industry insiders move into positions of power within the regulatory agency. When capture happens, the regulated industry is able to influence and manipulate the regulatory process to serve its own interests, often at the expense of the public or consumers.

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  • 10. 

    Government corporations and private corporations are different in all of the following ways except 

    • A.

      Government corporations do not have to make a profit.

    • B.

      Private corporations must pay taxes.

    • C.

      Private corporations have stockholders.

    • D.

      You cannot invest in a government corporation.

    • E.

      Government corporations do not perform a particular economic function.

    Correct Answer
    E. Government corporations do not perform a particular economic function.
    Explanation
    Private corporations and government corporations are different in several ways. Private corporations must pay taxes, while government corporations do not have to make a profit. Private corporations have stockholders, while government corporations do not perform a particular economic function. Additionally, you cannot invest in a government corporation. Therefore, the only statement that is not a difference between government and private corporations is that government corporations do not perform a particular economic function.

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  • 11. 

    Some people argued that the government should _____ banks, or take them over completely, in order to prevent them from becoming so-called "zombie banks."

    • A.

      Shrink

    • B.

      Insure

    • C.

      Capitalize

    • D.

      Aggrandize

    • E.

      Nationalize

    Correct Answer
    E. Nationalize
    Explanation
    Some people argued that the government should nationalize banks, or take them over completely, in order to prevent them from becoming so-called "zombie banks." Nationalizing banks would mean that the government would have full control and ownership over them, allowing them to make decisions and take actions to prevent them from failing and becoming unproductive or inactive, hence avoiding the creation of "zombie banks." This would ensure that the banks are properly managed and regulated by the government to protect the economy and the interests of the public.

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  • 12. 

     The spoils system is

    • A.

      The major problem of the federal bureaucracy today.

    • B.

      The most efficient way of structuring large organizations.

    • C.

      A new theory for employee selection and retention.

    • D.

      The awarding of government jobs to political supporters and friends.

    • E.

      A means of ensuring the best and the brightest will hold positions in government.

    Correct Answer
    D. The awarding of government jobs to political supporters and friends.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the awarding of government jobs to political supporters and friends." The spoils system refers to the practice of giving government positions to individuals based on their political loyalty rather than their qualifications or merit. This system has been criticized for promoting corruption, nepotism, and inefficiency within the federal bureaucracy. It allows politicians to reward their supporters and friends with government jobs, which can undermine the overall effectiveness and professionalism of the government.

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  • 13. 

    The selection and promotion of government employees on the basis of examinations is a result of the 

    • A.

      Administrative agency.

    • B.

      Independent regulatory agency.

    • C.

      Merit system.

    • D.

      Patronage system.

    • E.

      Spoils system.

    Correct Answer
    C. Merit system.
    Explanation
    The selection and promotion of government employees on the basis of examinations is a result of the merit system. This system ensures that individuals are hired and promoted based on their qualifications, skills, and abilities rather than political connections or favoritism. It aims to create a fair and transparent process that allows the most qualified individuals to serve in government positions.

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  • 14. 

    The Civil Service Reform Act of 1978 

    • A.

      Created the Office of Personnel Management and the Merit Systems Protection Board.

    • B.

      Created the Department of Health and Human Services and Department of Labor.

    • C.

      Created the Civil Service Commission.

    • D.

      Created the Office of Management and Budget(OMB).

    • E.

      Abolished the Labor Department and the Civil Service Commission.

    Correct Answer
    A. Created the Office of Personnel Management and the Merit Systems Protection Board.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978 created the Office of Personnel Management and the Merit Systems Protection Board. This act was enacted to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the federal government's personnel system. The Office of Personnel Management was established to oversee the federal workforce and ensure fair and merit-based hiring practices. The Merit Systems Protection Board was created to protect federal employees from prohibited personnel practices and provide a neutral forum for hearing appeals and complaints.

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  • 15. 

    The "Government in the Sunshine Act" required that 

    • A.

      All federal agencies that are run by committees conduct their business regularly in public session.

    • B.

      All federal agencies will terminate after five years unless Congress grants the agency an extension.

    • C.

      All federal agencies hold at least half of their public meetings outside of Washington, D.C.

    • D.

      At least 40 percent of upper level positions within an agency be filled by females or ethnic minorities.

    • E.

      All federal agency meetings on personnel problems or court proceedings be held in public session.

    Correct Answer
    A. All federal agencies that are run by committees conduct their business regularly in public session.
    Explanation
    The "Government in the Sunshine Act" requires federal agencies that are run by committees to conduct their business regularly in public session. This means that these agencies must hold their meetings in a public setting, allowing for transparency and accountability in the decision-making process. This requirement ensures that the public has access to information and can participate in the democratic process by being aware of and informed about the actions and decisions made by these agencies.

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  • 16. 

     The concept of privatization refers to

    • A.

      Federal loan guarantees for small businesses.

    • B.

      The replacement of government services with services provided by private firms.

    • C.

      The hiring practices of the Civil Service.

    • D.

      The replacement of federal government services with state or local government services.

    • E.

      Reducing the number of levels in the federal hierarchy.

    Correct Answer
    B. The replacement of government services with services provided by private firms.
    Explanation
    The concept of privatization refers to the replacement of government services with services provided by private firms. This means that instead of the government directly providing certain services such as healthcare, education, or transportation, these services are outsourced to private companies. The goal of privatization is often to increase efficiency, reduce costs, and introduce competition into sectors that were previously monopolized by the government.

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  • 17. 

    A whistleblower is a person who 

    • A.

      Does not accomplish his or her tasks by the end of a day.

    • B.

      Brings to public attention gross governmental inefficiency or illegal action.

    • C.

      Is hired in excess of the true labor requirements of an agency.

    • D.

      Is a person who serves in the position of an ombudsman.

    • E.

      Leaks the contents of a presidential speech to the press before it is given.

    Correct Answer
    B. Brings to public attention gross governmental inefficiency or illegal action.
    Explanation
    A whistleblower is a person who brings to public attention gross governmental inefficiency or illegal action. This means that a whistleblower is someone who exposes wrongdoing or misconduct within a government organization, whether it is inefficiency or illegal activities. They play a crucial role in holding government accountable and ensuring transparency.

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  • 18. 

     A statute enacted by Congress that authorizes the creation of an administrative agency is

    • A.

      An appropriations authorization.

    • B.

      Enabling legislation.

    • C.

      An executive order.

    • D.

      Statutory authorization.

    • E.

      The Civil Service Act of 1978.

    Correct Answer
    B. Enabling legislation.
    Explanation
    Enabling legislation refers to a statute passed by Congress that grants authority to create an administrative agency. This legislation outlines the agency's purpose, powers, and responsibilities. It serves as the legal basis for the agency's existence and operations. An appropriations authorization, on the other hand, pertains to the allocation of funds for a specific purpose. An executive order is a directive issued by the President, while statutory authorization refers to the approval of a law by the legislative branch. The Civil Service Act of 1978 is unrelated to the creation of administrative agencies.

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  • 19. 

    A major power that Congress has over the federal bureaucaracy is the 

    • A.

      Authority to select high-level bureaucrats.

    • B.

      Authority to authorize or appropriate funds for particular agencies.

    • C.

      Authority to fire bureaucrats for not executing policy passed by Congress.

    • D.

      Power to find agency actions unconstitutional.

    • E.

      Power to appoint agency heads.

    Correct Answer
    B. Authority to authorize or appropriate funds for particular agencies.
    Explanation
    Congress has the authority to authorize or appropriate funds for particular agencies. This means that Congress has the power to allocate money to specific government agencies, determining how much funding each agency will receive. By controlling the purse strings, Congress can influence the functioning and priorities of the federal bureaucracy. This power allows Congress to shape the policies and activities of the agencies by either increasing or decreasing their funding.

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  • 20. 

     All of the following ar among the ten categories the government is exempted from having to rulease under the Freedom of Information Act, except

    • A.

      Classified material.

    • B.

      Confidential material on trade secrets.

    • C.

      Internal personnel rules.

    • D.

      Personal medical files.

    • E.

      Marriage records.

    Correct Answer
    E. Marriage records.
    Explanation
    The government is exempted from releasing classified material, confidential material on trade secrets, internal personnel rules, and personal medical files under the Freedom of Information Act. However, marriage records are not included in the categories that the government is exempted from releasing.

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  • 21. 

    Alexis de Tocqueville, an observer of nineteenth-century American society, indicated that Americans rely on courts

    • A.

      To resolve political questions.

    • B.

      Very rarely when compared to Europe.

    • C.

      Only if there is no other alternative.

    • D.

      To resolve economic questions, but not political ones.

    • E.

      To provide a form of entertainment.

    Correct Answer
    A. To resolve political questions.
    Explanation
    Alexis de Tocqueville, a nineteenth-century observer of American society, believed that Americans turn to courts to resolve political questions. This implies that Americans see the judicial system as a means of settling disputes and making decisions on matters related to politics. The other options are not supported by the information given and do not align with Tocqueville's observations.

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  • 22. 

    A court rule bearing on subsequent legal decisions in similar cases is

    • A.

      A precedent.

    • B.

      Criminal law.

    • C.

      A judicial maxim.

    • D.

      Common law.

    • E.

      Statutory law.

    Correct Answer
    A. A precedent.
    Explanation
    A court rule bearing on subsequent legal decisions in similar cases is called a precedent. Precedents are established when a court makes a decision on a particular legal issue, and these decisions serve as a guide for future cases with similar facts or legal principles. Precedents help maintain consistency and predictability in the legal system and are an important part of common law systems. They provide guidance to judges and lawyers in interpreting and applying the law in similar cases, ensuring fairness and equality in the legal process.

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  • 23. 

    Sources of American law include all of the following except

    • A.

      The U.S. Constitution.

    • B.

      State constitutions.

    • C.

      Statutes.

    • D.

      Administrative regulations.

    • E.

      The Charter of the United Nations.

    Correct Answer
    E. The Charter of the United Nations.
    Explanation
    The sources of American law include the U.S. Constitution, state constitutions, statutes, and administrative regulations. However, the Charter of the United Nations is not considered a source of American law. The Charter of the United Nations is an international treaty that establishes the principles and structure of the United Nations, which is a separate entity from the American legal system. Therefore, it is not included as a source of American law.

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  • 24. 

    The federal court derives its power from

    • A.

      Article III of the Constitution.

    • B.

      Congressional legislation.

    • C.

      Article IV of the Constitution.

    • D.

      The 5th Amendment.

    • E.

      Executive order.

    Correct Answer
    A. Article III of the Constitution.
    Explanation
    The federal court derives its power from Article III of the Constitution. This article establishes the judicial branch of the federal government and outlines the powers and jurisdiction of the federal courts. It grants the courts the authority to interpret and apply the law, hear cases involving federal laws and the Constitution, and resolve disputes between states and between individuals and the federal government. The power of the federal court is derived directly from this constitutional provision, making it the correct answer.

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  • 25. 

    A question that has to do with the U.S. Constitution, acts of Congress, or treaties is known as a _____ question.

    • A.

      Justiciable

    • B.

      Political

    • C.

      Federal

    • D.

      National

    • E.

      Legal

    Correct Answer
    C. Federal
    Explanation
    A question that has to do with the U.S. Constitution, acts of Congress, or treaties is known as a federal question. This term refers to legal matters that fall under the jurisdiction of the federal government rather than individual state governments. Federal questions are typically resolved in federal courts and involve issues of constitutional interpretation or federal law.

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  • 26. 

    A justiciable controversy

    • A.

      Forms the basis of concurring opinions.

    • B.

      Is a controversy that is real and substantial as opposed to hypothetical or academic.

    • C.

      Arises when the opinions on the Supreme Court are tied.

    • D.

      Can be found in a case's dissenting opinion.

    • E.

      Is a hypothetical question.

    Correct Answer
    B. Is a controversy that is real and substantial as opposed to hypothetical or academic.
    Explanation
    A justiciable controversy refers to a real and substantial controversy rather than a hypothetical or academic one. It implies a dispute that can be resolved by a court, involving actual legal rights and claims. This term is used to distinguish cases that are suitable for judicial review from those that are not. In the context of concurring opinions, a justiciable controversy forms the basis for such opinions because it represents a genuine legal issue that the judges agree on, even if they have different reasoning or approaches to the case.

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  • 27. 

    Interest groups play an important role in our judicial system because

    • A.

      They have the opportunity to veto judicial nominations.

    • B.

      They help to fund the judicial review board.

    • C.

      Madison stipulated their role in Federalist #10.

    • D.

      They bring to trial cases of discrimination, civil liberties cases, and more than a third of cases involving business matters.

    • E.

      They frequently are defendants in class-action suits.

    Correct Answer
    D. They bring to trial cases of discrimination, civil liberties cases, and more than a third of cases involving business matters.
  • 28. 

    A class-action suit is a

    • A.

      Lawsuit filed by a third party who is not directly involved in the litigation.

    • B.

      Case sent back to the court that originally heard the case.

    • C.

      Lawsuit seeking damages for "all persons similarly situated."

    • D.

      Case in which the Supreme Court exercises original jurisdiction.

    • E.

      Lawsuit in which the parties are from different jurisdictions.

    Correct Answer
    C. Lawsuit seeking damages for "all persons similarly situated."
    Explanation
    A class-action suit is a type of lawsuit where a group of individuals who have suffered similar harm or have similar legal claims collectively file a lawsuit seeking damages for "all persons similarly situated." This means that instead of each individual filing separate lawsuits, they join together as a class to pursue their claims more efficiently and effectively. By doing so, they can pool their resources, share the costs and risks of litigation, and have a stronger voice in seeking justice and compensation for their grievances.

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  • 29. 

    Tax courts and bankruptcy courts are examples of

    • A.

      Appellate courts.

    • B.

      General jurisdiction courts.

    • C.

      Courts of limited jurisdiction.

    • D.

      Territorial courts.

    • E.

      International courts.

    Correct Answer
    C. Courts of limited jurisdiction.
    Explanation
    Tax courts and bankruptcy courts are examples of courts of limited jurisdiction because they have specific subject matter jurisdiction and can only hear cases related to tax or bankruptcy issues. These courts do not have general jurisdiction to hear a wide range of cases like general jurisdiction courts. Appellate courts hear appeals from lower courts, territorial courts have jurisdiction over specific territories, and international courts handle disputes between countries.

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  • 30. 

    According to the Constitution, the Supreme Court can exercise original jurisdiction

    • A.

      In matters where the United States is a party.

    • B.

      In cases where jurisdiction has been granted by statute.

    • C.

      To intervene in a federal case.

    • D.

      Over cases appealed from state supreme courts.

    • E.

      In cases affecting foreign diplomats and in cases in which a state is a party.

    Correct Answer
    E. In cases affecting foreign diplomats and in cases in which a state is a party.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "in cases affecting foreign diplomats and in cases in which a state is a party." This is because the Constitution grants the Supreme Court original jurisdiction in cases involving foreign diplomats, meaning that these cases can be brought directly to the Supreme Court without going through lower courts. Additionally, the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in cases where a state is a party, meaning that a state can bring a case directly to the Supreme Court.

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  • 31. 

    Of the total number of cases that are decided each year, those reviewed by the Supreme Court represent

    • A.

      Less than one case in forty thousand.

    • B.

      Less than one case in four thousand.

    • C.

      Roughly 4 percent.

    • D.

      Over half of all cases.

    • E.

      A majority of cases filed in federal court, but significantly less than a majority of all other cases.

    Correct Answer
    B. Less than one case in four thousand.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "less than one case in four thousand." This means that out of the total number of cases decided each year, only a very small fraction, specifically less than one case out of every four thousand cases, are reviewed by the Supreme Court. This indicates that the Supreme Court's involvement is extremely limited and selective, as they only choose to review a very small number of cases.

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  • 32. 

    A procedure use by the Supreme Court to determine which cases it will hear is called

    • A.

      The rule of four.

    • B.

      The gang of four.

    • C.

      The Sign of the Four.

    • D.

      The rule of six.

    • E.

      The sign of five.

    Correct Answer
    A. The rule of four.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the rule of four." The rule of four is a procedure used by the Supreme Court to determine which cases it will hear. It states that if four out of the nine justices agree to hear a case, then the Court will grant a writ of certiorari and the case will be heard. This rule ensures that the Court's docket is limited to cases that have the support of a significant number of justices, preventing the Court from being overwhelmed with cases.

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  • 33. 

    The reasoning upon which a court ruling was based is

    • A.

      An amicus brief.

    • B.

      The judicial implementation.

    • C.

      The opinion.

    • D.

      Rule Four.

    • E.

      A writ of certiorari.

    Correct Answer
    C. The opinion.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the opinion." In a court ruling, the opinion refers to the written explanation of the court's decision. It outlines the legal reasoning, analysis of facts, and interpretation of the law that led to the final judgment. The opinion is crucial as it provides guidance and establishes precedent for future cases. It allows the court to explain and justify its decision, ensuring transparency and accountability in the judicial process.

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  • 34. 

    A justice who agrees with the result reached by the majority of the Court but wants to voice disapproval of the grounds on which the decision was made would write

    • A.

      A majority opinion.

    • B.

      A dissenting opinion.

    • C.

      A consenting opinion.

    • D.

      An amicus curiae brief.

    • E.

      A concurring opinion.

    Correct Answer
    E. A concurring opinion.
    Explanation
    A justice who agrees with the result reached by the majority of the Court but wants to voice disapproval of the grounds on which the decision was made would write a concurring opinion. This allows the justice to express their agreement with the outcome while also providing their own separate reasoning or critique of the majority's rationale. It gives them the opportunity to highlight any disagreements or concerns they may have with the majority's decision-making process or legal analysis.

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  • 35. 

    When all Supreme Court justices agree to an opinion, it is known as a _____ opinion.

    • A.

      Majority

    • B.

      Minority

    • C.

      Concurring

    • D.

      Unanimous

    • E.

      Dissenting

    Correct Answer
    D. Unanimous
    Explanation
    When all Supreme Court justices agree to an opinion, it is known as a unanimous opinion. This means that all the justices have reached a consensus and are in complete agreement on the decision or ruling.

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  • 36. 

    In the twenty-first century, Senate Republicans implemented a policy that

    • A.

      Required Democrats to be consulted on judicial nominations.

    • B.

      Gave the President of the United States authority to appoint federal judges without the approval of the Senate.

    • C.

      Prevented Democratic Senators from being able to speak on the floor of the Senate about the qualifications of judges.

    • D.

      Required a judicial nominee to receive unanimous approval from the Senate Judiciary Committee prior to a vote by the entire Senate.

    • E.

      Members of the opposition party, the Democrats, would not be allowed to invoke senatorial courtesy.

    Correct Answer
    E. Members of the opposition party, the Democrats, would not be allowed to invoke senatorial courtesy.
    Explanation
    The given correct answer states that members of the opposition party, the Democrats, would not be allowed to invoke senatorial courtesy. Senatorial courtesy is a long-standing tradition in the Senate where the President consults with Senators from the nominee's home state before making a judicial appointment. This tradition allows Senators to have input and influence over judicial nominations. If members of the opposition party, the Democrats, are not allowed to invoke senatorial courtesy, it means that they would not have a say or influence in the appointment process, giving the President and the majority party more control over judicial nominations.

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  • 37. 

    Almost _____ percent of presidential nominations to the Supreme Court have been either rejected or not acted on by the Senate.

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      20

    • D.

      50

    • E.

      75

    Correct Answer
    C. 20
    Explanation
    Approximately 20 percent of presidential nominations to the Supreme Court have been either rejected or not acted on by the Senate. This suggests that a significant portion of nominees have faced opposition or have not been able to proceed in the confirmation process.

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  • 38. 

    The judicial philosophy that looks to the context and purpose of a law when making an interpretation is _____ construction.

    • A.

      Judicial

    • B.

      Conservative

    • C.

      Broad

    • D.

      Strict

    • E.

      Contextual

    Correct Answer
    C. Broad
    Explanation
    Broad construction refers to a judicial philosophy that interprets laws in a way that gives the government more power and flexibility. It focuses on the overall purpose and intent of the law, rather than strictly adhering to the literal language. This approach allows for a broader interpretation of the law, giving the judiciary more discretion in applying it to different situations.

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  • 39. 

    The Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act is an example of

    • A.

      An Amendment to the U.S. Constitution.

    • B.

      A conservative ruling by the Supreme Court.

    • C.

      A liberal ruling by the Supreme Court.

    • D.

      A law deemed unconstitutional by the Supreme Court.

    • E.

      An action by Congress to overturn a Supreme Court ruling.

    Correct Answer
    E. An action by Congress to overturn a Supreme Court ruling.
    Explanation
    The Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act was a law passed by Congress in 2009. It was enacted in response to a Supreme Court ruling that limited the time period in which an employee could file a pay discrimination claim. The act effectively overturned the Supreme Court's ruling and extended the time period for filing such claims. Therefore, the correct answer is that it was an action by Congress to overturn a Supreme Court ruling.

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  • 40. 

    An issue that the court believes should be decided by the executive or legislative branch is a 

    • A.

      Judiciable controversy.

    • B.

      Jurisdictional issue.

    • C.

      Political question.

    • D.

      Precedent-setting issue.

    • E.

      Hypothetical question.

    Correct Answer
    C. Political question.
    Explanation
    A political question refers to an issue that the court believes should be decided by the executive or legislative branch rather than the judiciary. This typically involves matters that are inherently political in nature, such as foreign policy, impeachment proceedings, or the regulation of political processes. The court recognizes that it is not the appropriate body to make decisions on these matters and defers to the other branches of government.

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  • 41. 

    Domestic policy

    • A.

      Is limited to policies that affect major economic variables.

    • B.

      Can be defined as all policies that affect housing.

    • C.

      Can be defined as all the laws, government planning, and government actions that concern internal issues of national importance.

    • D.

      Is limiting to matters relating to law enforcement.

    • E.

      Relates to the activities of the government in its relations with foreign countries.

    Correct Answer
    C. Can be defined as all the laws, government planning, and government actions that concern internal issues of national importance.
  • 42. 

    Agenda building is

    • A.

      The process of making Congress aware that an issue requires congressional action.

    • B.

      The discussion of the proposal by governmental officials and the public.

    • C.

      The process of deciding on a specific proposal.

    • D.

      Concerned with the implementation of policy by bureaucrats, the courts, police and individual citizens.

    • E.

      The actions taken by members of the president's staff in response to congressional initiatives.

    Correct Answer
    A. The process of making Congress aware that an issue requires congressional action.
    Explanation
    Agenda building refers to the process of bringing attention to an issue and making Congress aware that it needs to be addressed through legislative action. It involves highlighting the importance and urgency of the issue, gathering support from stakeholders, and advocating for its inclusion in the legislative agenda. This process aims to prioritize certain issues and ensure that they receive the necessary attention and consideration from lawmakers.

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  • 43. 

    In 2002, during the boom in the housing market, mortgage originators increasingly approved loan applications from individuals who had unstable incomes, low incomes, or no incomes at all because

    • A.

      Privacy protections enacted by Congress had made it nearly impossible to determine an individual's actual income.

    • B.

      Their conviction that every American should own a home blinded them to the risks of lending to unqualified individuals.

    • C.

      They knew they could sell the risky mortgages to someone else.

    • D.

      Internet application forms made it possible for individuals to falsely inflate their incomes.

    • E.

      Mortgage originators were forced by banks to meet impossibly high sales quotas.

    Correct Answer
    C. They knew they could sell the risky mortgages to someone else.
    Explanation
    During the housing market boom in 2002, mortgage originators approved loan applications from individuals with unstable, low, or no incomes because they knew they could sell these risky mortgages to someone else. This suggests that the mortgage originators were not concerned about the potential risks associated with lending to unqualified individuals, as they believed they could transfer the burden of these loans to another party.

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  • 44. 

    The part of the policy making process that involves choosing a specific policy from among the proposals that have been discussed is policy

    • A.

      Formulation

    • B.

      Implementation

    • C.

      Adoption

    • D.

      Choices

    • E.

      Determination

    Correct Answer
    C. Adoption
    Explanation
    The correct answer is adoption. Adoption refers to the stage in the policy making process where a specific policy is chosen from the various proposals that have been discussed. This involves selecting and approving a policy that will be implemented. The other options, such as formulation, implementation, choices, and determination, do not accurately describe this particular stage of policy making.

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  • 45. 

    The Financial Stability Oversight Board is an example of an agency created to provide _____, in this case for the TARP program.

    • A.

      Agenda building

    • B.

      Policy adoption

    • C.

      Policy formulation

    • D.

      Policy implementation

    • E.

      Policy evaluation

    Correct Answer
    E. Policy evaluation
    Explanation
    The Financial Stability Oversight Board is an agency created to provide policy evaluation for the TARP program. This means that the board is responsible for assessing and analyzing the effectiveness and impact of the policies implemented under the TARP program. They review and evaluate the outcomes and results of the policies to determine if they are achieving their intended goals and making a positive impact on financial stability.

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  • 46. 

    _____ is a joint federal-state program designed to subsidize health care costs for the poor.

    • A.

      Medicare

    • B.

      Medicaid

    • C.

      Social Security

    • D.

      Medivac

    • E.

      Blue Cross

    Correct Answer
    B. Medicaid
    Explanation
    Medicaid is a joint federal-state program that aims to provide financial assistance for healthcare expenses to individuals with low income or limited resources. It is specifically designed to support the healthcare needs of the poor population by covering a wide range of medical services, including doctor visits, hospital stays, prescription drugs, and long-term care. Medicaid is different from Medicare, which primarily serves the elderly and disabled individuals. Social Security is a separate program that provides income support for retirees, disabled individuals, and survivors. Medivac and Blue Cross are not specific government programs for healthcare subsidies.

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  • 47. 

    About _____ of Americans do not have health insurance.

    • A.

      6 percent

    • B.

      16 percent

    • C.

      24 percent

    • D.

      32 percent

    • E.

      38 percent

    Correct Answer
    B. 16 percent
    Explanation
    Approximately 16 percent of Americans do not have health insurance. This means that out of the total population of Americans, 16 percent do not have access to healthcare coverage. This can have significant implications for their ability to receive necessary medical treatment and can result in financial burden for those individuals who have to pay for healthcare expenses out of pocket.

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  • 48. 

    In 2009, under President Obama's leadership, Democrats adopted _____ in all of their proposals for health-care legislation.

    • A.

      Caps on out-of-pocket expenses

    • B.

      Free preventive care

    • C.

      A single-payer system

    • D.

      Optional coverage

    • E.

      Mandated coverage

    Correct Answer
    E. Mandated coverage
    Explanation
    Under President Obama's leadership in 2009, Democrats implemented a policy of mandated coverage in all of their proposals for health-care legislation. This means that individuals would be required to have health insurance coverage, preventing gaps in coverage and ensuring that everyone has access to healthcare services. Mandated coverage aims to increase the number of people with health insurance and promote a more equitable healthcare system.

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  • 49. 

    In 2009, President Obama and Democrats proposed all of the following means of containing health care costs, except

    • A.

      Creating a government-run insurance plan.

    • B.

      Requiring electronic medical records.

    • C.

      Studying which treatments work best.

    • D.

      Taxing risky, experimental, or elective medical procedures.

    • E.

      Reducing the number of unnecessary procedures.

    Correct Answer
    D. Taxing risky, experimental, or elective medical procedures.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is taxing risky, experimental, or elective medical procedures. This means that in 2009, President Obama and Democrats proposed all of the following means of containing health care costs: creating a government-run insurance plan, requiring electronic medical records, studying which treatments work best, and reducing the number of unnecessary procedures. However, they did not propose taxing risky, experimental, or elective medical procedures as a means of containing health care costs.

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  • 50. 

    People who were born on foreign soil now constitute about _____ of the U.S. population.

    • A.

      1 percent

    • B.

      6 percent

    • C.

      10 percent

    • D.

      13 percent

    • E.

      18 percent

    Correct Answer
    D. 13 percent
    Explanation
    Approximately 13 percent of the U.S. population is made up of people who were born on foreign soil. This means that a significant portion of the population consists of individuals who were not born in the United States.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 29, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Dana_Haberkorn
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