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Pressure Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which functions form a maintenance group?

    • A.

      Operations, aircraft maintenance, flying.

    • B.

      Maintenance, operations, quality assurance.

    • C.

      Quality assurance (QA), support, aircraft maintenance.

    • D.

      Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and QA.

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and QA.
  • 2. 

    To which flight is the engine management section assigned?

    • A.

      Programs and Resources.

    • B.

      Maintenance Operations.

    • C.

      Maintenance Training.

    • D.

      Quality Assurance.

    Correct Answer
    B. Maintenance Operations.
  • 3. 

    Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules and maintains visibility of fleet health indicators?

    • A.

      Operations Support Center.

    • B.

      Logistics Support Squadron.

    • C.

      Operations Support Squadron.

    • D.

      Maintenance Operations Center.

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance Operations Center.
  • 4. 

    What does the fifth position of the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3A652 represent?

    • A.

      Career field subdivision

    • B.

      Specific AFSC

    • C.

      Career field

    • D.

      Skill level

    Correct Answer
    B. Specific AFSC
  • 5. 

    What will be your title once you obtain the 7-skill level?

    • A.

      Craftsman

    • B.

      Apprentice

    • C.

      Journeyman

    • D.

      Superintendent

    Correct Answer
    A. Craftsman
  • 6. 

    What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?

    • A.

      On-the-job training

    • B.

      Task qualification training

    • C.

      Career development course

    • D.

      Noncommissioned Officer Academy (NCOA)

    Correct Answer
    C. Career development course
  • 7. 

    How many months must you have in the Air Force before you may attend the Airman Leadership School (ALS)?

    • A.

      24

    • B.

      36

    • C.

      48

    • D.

      60

    Correct Answer
    C. 48
  • 8. 

    Air Force occupational safety and health (AFOSH) standards are located within Air Force publication series?

    • A.

      91

    • B.

      66

    • C.

      127

    • D.

      161

    Correct Answer
    A. 91
  • 9. 

    Which piece of personal protective equipment is required to avoid potential hazards when lifting heavy objects?

    • A.

      Goggles

    • B.

      Back brace

    • C.

      Leather gloves

    • D.

      Safety-toed boots

    Correct Answer
    D. Safety-toed boots
  • 10. 

    Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?

    • A.

      00–5–1

    • B.

      00–20–1

    • C.

      21–101

    • D.

      36–2108

    Correct Answer
    C. 21–101
  • 11. 

    Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure that it is safe to proceed?

    • A.

      Lock and pin the work stands

    • B.

      Check the intake for foreign object damage (FOD)

    • C.

      Review the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781K

    • D.

      Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft

    Correct Answer
    D. Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft
  • 12. 

    How far does a propeller’s axis of rotation extend?

    • A.

      20 feet to the front and 15 feet from the rear

    • B.

      15 feet to the front and 10 feet from the rear

    • C.

      10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear

    • D.

      5 feet to the front and 1 foot from the rear

    Correct Answer
    C. 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear
  • 13. 

    In order to avoid the engine exhaust blast, what is the minimum distance to the rear of the aircraft?

    • A.

      100 feet

    • B.

      200 feet

    • C.

      300 feet

    • D.

      400 feet

    Correct Answer
    B. 200 feet
  • 14. 

    Foreign object damage (FOD) is normally caused by ?

    • A.

      People

    • B.

      Animals

    • C.

      Weather

    • D.

      Mechanical failure

    Correct Answer
    A. People
  • 15. 

    Who has overall responsibility for the foreign object damage (FOD) program?

    • A.

      Quality Assurance

    • B.

      Production supervisor

    • C.

      Squadron commander

    • D.

      Vice Wing commander

    Correct Answer
    D. Vice Wing commander
  • 16. 

    Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of?

    • A.

      Aerosols

    • B.

      Liquids

    • C.

      Solids

    • D.

      Gases

    Correct Answer
    D. Gases
  • 17. 

    Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment?

    • A.

      Safety

    • B.

      Hospital

    • C.

      Supervisor

    • D.

      Environmental

    Correct Answer
    C. Supervisor
  • 18. 

    What would you normally use to clean and sanitize respirators?

    • A.

      Alcohol

    • B.

      Pine oil.

    • C.

      Mild soap.

    • D.

      Fleur-de-lis.

    Correct Answer
    C. Mild soap.
  • 19. 

    Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent?

    • A.

      Explosions

    • B.

      Unauthorized entry

    • C.

      Overflow of materials

    • D.

      Mixing of unlike materials

    Correct Answer
    B. Unauthorized entry
  • 20. 

    Containers holding hazardous waste must be clearly marked to show the contents and?

    • A.

      Flash point

    • B.

      Classification

    • C.

      Shipping name

    • D.

      Date the waste began to accumulate

    Correct Answer
    D. Date the waste began to accumulate
  • 21. 

    A specialized function of the supply mission is?

    • A.

      Repair

    • B.

      Service

    • C.

      Disposal

    • D.

      Retrieval

    Correct Answer
    C. Disposal
  • 22. 

    From what perspective does the Global Logistics Support Center (GLSC) manage supply?

    • A.

      Base system

    • B.

      Weapons system

    • C.

      Inventory system

    • D.

      Geographical system

    Correct Answer
    B. Weapons system
  • 23. 

    Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics function or application, are predetermined to require?

    • A.

      Overhaul

    • B.

      Retest OK

    • C.

      Time change

    • D.

      Repair cycle support

    Correct Answer
    A. Overhaul
  • 24. 

    Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS)?

    • A.

      Priority Monitor Report (D18).

    • B.

      Daily Document Register (D04).

    • C.

      Due-out Validation Listing (M30).

    • D.

      Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23).

    Correct Answer
    B. Daily Document Register (D04).
  • 25. 

    Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because of the differences in each organization’s?

    • A.

      Type of aircraft

    • B.

      Contract

    • C.

      Mission

    • D.

      Location

    Correct Answer
    C. Mission
  • 26. 

    What does a completed Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 350 serve to identify?

    • A.

      Origin of an item

    • B.

      Why the item broke

    • C.

      How long the item will take to repair

    • D.

      The responsible reparable processing center

    Correct Answer
    A. Origin of an item
  • 27. 

    If you need detailed information concerning codes and entries on the Air Force Information Management Tool (IMT) Form 2005, Issue/Turn-In Request, refer to Air Force Manual (AFMAN)?

    • A.

      23-254

    • B.

      23-110

    • C.

      91-254

    • D.

      91-110

    Correct Answer
    B. 23-110
  • 28. 

    Items that are awaiting parts or maintenance are each required to have an attached Department of Defense (DD) Form?

    • A.

      1574

    • B.

      1575

    • C.

      1577-2

    • D.

      1577-3

    Correct Answer
    B. 1575
  • 29. 

    When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means the item?

    • A.

      Has an assigned shelf-life period that may be extended

    • B.

      Should be returned to supply after expiration date

    • C.

      Has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-life

    • D.

      Should be inspected or tested

    Correct Answer
    C. Has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-life
  • 30. 

    A Category I deficiency report (DR) is used to report a deficiency?

    • A.

      That is required for tracking by agreement of the single manager

    • B.

      Found during an initial acceptance inspection (critical or major defects only).

    • C.

      That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system.

    • D.

      That identifies a potential enhancement (applies to enhancements noted during the acquisition cycle).

    Correct Answer
    C. That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system.
  • 31. 

    Within how many hours must Category I deficiency reports (DR) be forwarded to the originating point?

    • A.

      8

    • B.

      12

    • C.

      24

    • D.

      72

    Correct Answer
    C. 24
  • 32. 

    Which type of items must be reflected on the Custodian Authorization/Custody Receipt Listing (CA/CRL)?

    • A.

      Shelf-life

    • B.

      Bench stock

    • C.

      Hazardous materials

    • D.

      Equipment authorization inventory data

    Correct Answer
    D. Equipment authorization inventory data
  • 33. 

    To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the?

    • A.

      Shop chief

    • B.

      Supervisor

    • C.

      Commander

    • D.

      Supply chief

    Correct Answer
    C. Commander
  • 34. 

    When should new equipment account custodians receive training?

    • A.

      Before signing for the account

    • B.

      Within 10 days of signing for the account

    • C.

      Within 15 days of signing for the account

    • D.

      Within 30 days of signing for the account

    Correct Answer
    A. Before signing for the account
  • 35. 

    The second section of a technical order (TO) number gives the?

    • A.

      Classification

    • B.

      Type of equipment

    • C.

      Mission type of equipment

    • D.

      Model and series for equipment type

    Correct Answer
    D. Model and series for equipment type
  • 36. 

    Which technical order (TO) describes the Air Force TO system?

    • A.

      00-5-1

    • B.

      00-5-2

    • C.

      00-20-1

    • D.

      00-20-2

    Correct Answer
    A. 00-5-1
  • 37. 

    Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?

    • A.

      General Equipment

    • B.

      General System

    • C.

      Fault Isolation

    • D.

      Job Guide

    Correct Answer
    D. Job Guide
  • 38. 

    What section of the Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB) contains definitions of the codes used in the IPB?

    • A.

      Introduction

    • B.

      Numerical index

    • C.

      Group assembly parts list

    • D.

      Reference designation index

    Correct Answer
    A. Introduction
  • 39. 

    What time compliance technical order (TCTO) category is issued to correct hazardous safety conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?

    • A.

      Record

    • B.

      Urgent action

    • C.

      Routine action

    • D.

      Immediate action

    Correct Answer
    D. Immediate action
  • 40. 

    Who originates technical orders?

    • A.

      Section supervisor

    • B.

      Contracting squadron

    • C.

      Equipment manufacturer

    • D.

      Maintenance group commander

    Correct Answer
    C. Equipment manufacturer
  • 41. 

    An Air Force technical order (AFTO) information management tool (IMT) Form 22, Technical Manual (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply, is not submitted for?

    • A.

      Preliminary technical orders (TO).

    • B.

      Methods and procedures TOs

    • C.

      Work cards

    • D.

      Job guides

    Correct Answer
    A. Preliminary technical orders (TO).
  • 42. 

    Who makes sure the Air Force technical order (AFTO) information management tool (IMT) Form 22 is valid and warrants submission?

    • A.

      Initiator

    • B.

      Commander

    • C.

      Supervisor of initiator

    • D.

      Product improvement office

    Correct Answer
    C. Supervisor of initiator
  • 43. 

    What are the two classifications of failures in the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach?

    • A.

      Evident and hidden

    • B.

      Potential and evident

    • C.

      Hidden and functional

    • D.

      Potential and functional

    Correct Answer
    D. Potential and functional
  • 44. 

    In the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach, which preventative maintenance task is a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition?

    • A.

      Hard time

    • B.

      Lubrication

    • C.

      On condition

    • D.

      Failure finding

    Correct Answer
    C. On condition
  • 45. 

    Which program integrates hardware, software, maintenance, and diagnostic processes to quantify and monitor/manage engine health?

    • A.

      Centralized repair facility (CRF)

    • B.

      Engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D)

    • C.

      Engine life-cycle management planning (ELMP)

    • D.

      Comprehensive engine management system (CEMS)

    Correct Answer
    B. Engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D)
  • 46. 

    Within the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program, to whom do flight-line personnel transfer collected data for analysis?

    • A.

      Depot-level engine maintenance shops

    • B.

      Base engine maintenance shop

    • C.

      Product center engineers

    • D.

      Flight-line expediter

    Correct Answer
    B. Base engine maintenance shop
  • 47. 

    Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program?

    • A.

      Propulsion and depot

    • B.

      Depot and nondestructive inspection

    • C.

      Propulsion and nondestructive inspection

    • D.

      Environmental health and nondestructive inspection

    Correct Answer
    C. Propulsion and nondestructive inspection
  • 48. 

    Centralized repair facilities (CRF) provide support for whom?

    • A.

      War fighters

    • B.

      Test cell personnel

    • C.

      Flight-line mechanics

    • D.

      Back shop mechanics

    Correct Answer
    A. War fighters
  • 49. 

    Who maintains accountability of centralized repair facility (CRF) assets and reports their status?

    • A.

      Production supervisor

    • B.

      Depot item manager

    • C.

      Engine technician

    • D.

      Supply officer

    Correct Answer
    A. Production supervisor
  • 50. 

    Depot maintenance provides support to base-level technicians by?

    • A.

      Notifying maintenance personnel of upcoming time compliance technical orders (TCTO).

    • B.

      Providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability.

    • C.

      Ensuring replacement parts are ordered in a timely manner.

    • D.

      Providing the most current TO updates to the field.

    Correct Answer
    B. Providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability.

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jan 15, 2015
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 29, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    2a354n
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