Air Force CDC 2r051 Volume 4

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Air Force CDC 2r051 Volume 4 - Quiz


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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following is not a level of maintenance?

    • A.

      Base

    • B.

      Depot

    • C.

      Intermediate

    • D.

      Organizational

    Correct Answer
    A. Base
    Explanation
    Base is not a level of maintenance. The other options, depot, intermediate, and organizational, are all recognized levels of maintenance.

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  • 2. 

    What is considered the highest level of maintenance for more complex repairs?

    • A.

      Base

    • B.

      Depot

    • C.

      Intermediate

    • D.

      Organizational

    Correct Answer
    B. Depot
    Explanation
    Depot maintenance is considered the highest level of maintenance for more complex repairs. Depot maintenance involves extensive repairs and overhauls of equipment or systems that cannot be performed at lower levels of maintenance. It typically requires specialized facilities, equipment, and highly skilled personnel. This level of maintenance is often conducted at centralized depots or repair facilities, where the necessary resources and expertise are available. Organizational, intermediate, and base maintenance levels are generally responsible for less complex repairs and routine maintenance tasks.

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  • 3. 

    Which maintenance category consists of time compliance technical order (TCTO) actions which can be accomplished with the skills possessed by a unit?

    • A.

      Off-equipment, Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC)

    • B.

      On-equipment, AFMC

    • C.

      Off-equipment, operating command

    • D.

      On-equipment, operating command

    Correct Answer
    D. On-equipment, operating command
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "On-equipment, operating command." This maintenance category refers to actions that can be performed by the unit itself, using the skills and resources available within the operating command. It does not require the involvement of Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) or off-equipment maintenance.

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  • 4. 

    Which maintenance category consists of those tasks that cannot be done on the end item but are within the capability of the skills and equipment possessed by a unit?

    • A.

      On-equipment, Air Materiel Command (AFMC)

    • B.

      Off-equipment, AFMC

    • C.

      On-equipment, operating command

    • D.

      Off-equipment, operating command

    Correct Answer
    D. Off-equipment, operating command
    Explanation
    Off-equipment, operating command refers to maintenance tasks that are not performed directly on the end item but can be accomplished by the skills and equipment available within a unit. This means that the maintenance can be done without the need for specialized equipment or expertise from higher-level maintenance organizations.

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  • 5. 

    Which maintenance category includes correcting discrepancies discovered during flight?

    • A.

      Unscheduled

    • B.

      Preventive

    • C.

      Debriefing

    • D.

      Scheduled

    Correct Answer
    A. Unscheduled
    Explanation
    Unscheduled maintenance category includes correcting discrepancies discovered during flight. This refers to any repairs or adjustments that need to be made to the aircraft due to unexpected issues or malfunctions that are identified while the aircraft is in operation. This type of maintenance is not planned in advance and is typically carried out as soon as possible to ensure the safety and proper functioning of the aircraft.

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  • 6. 

    “To minimize the length of time that an aircraft is out of commission due to a scheduled inspection” is the objective of what inspection concept?

    • A.

      Isochronal

    • B.

      Periodic

    • C.

      Phased

    • D.

      Depot

    Correct Answer
    C. Phased
    Explanation
    The objective of the "phased" inspection concept is to minimize the length of time that an aircraft is out of commission due to a scheduled inspection. This means that the phased inspection concept is designed to efficiently and effectively carry out inspections on an aircraft, ensuring that the aircraft is back in service as quickly as possible.

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  • 7. 

    All aircraft, no matter what inspection concept applies, are required to have how many calendar inspections?

    • A.

      One

    • B.

      Two

    • C.

      Three

    • D.

      Four

    Correct Answer
    B. Two
    Explanation
    All aircraft, regardless of the inspection concept applied, are required to have two calendar inspections. These inspections are necessary to ensure the safety and airworthiness of the aircraft.

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  • 8. 

    Which inspection status is affected by the 30 or 90 day inspection?

    • A.

      Preflight

    • B.

      Thruflight

    • C.

      Hourly postflight

    • D.

      Home station check

    Correct Answer
    D. Home station check
    Explanation
    The inspection status that is affected by the 30 or 90 day inspection is the Home station check. This type of inspection is conducted every 30 or 90 days, depending on the specific requirements. It is performed at the home station of the aircraft and involves a thorough examination of the aircraft to ensure its airworthiness and compliance with regulations. This inspection is crucial for maintaining the safety and operational readiness of the aircraft.

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  • 9. 

    What changes to baseline computer programs are normally announced by a time compliance technical order (TCTO)?

    • A.

      Price-only

    • B.

      Software-only

    • C.

      Hardware-only

    • D.

      Contractor-specific

    Correct Answer
    B. Software-only
    Explanation
    A time compliance technical order (TCTO) is typically used to announce changes to baseline computer programs that are related to software only. This means that any modifications or updates to the software components of the computer programs will be communicated through a TCTO. This allows users to stay informed about any changes or updates that may affect the functionality or performance of the software. It is important to note that TCTOs do not cover changes related to hardware, price, or specific contractors.

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  • 10. 

    What is the number of authorized basic time compliance technical order (TCTO) categories?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    C. 3
    Explanation
    There are three authorized basic time compliance technical order (TCTO) categories.

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  • 11. 

    What are the authorized types of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs)?

    • A.

      Safety, routine, and urgent

    • B.

      Immediate, safety, and urgent

    • C.

      Immediate, routine, and safety

    • D.

      Immediate, routine, and urgent

    Correct Answer
    D. Immediate, routine, and urgent
    Explanation
    The authorized types of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) include immediate, routine, and urgent. Immediate TCTOs are issued for urgent situations that require immediate action to prevent injury or damage. Routine TCTOs are issued for non-urgent maintenance tasks that need to be completed within a specific timeframe. Urgent TCTOs are issued for situations that require prompt action to prevent injury or damage, but are not as time-sensitive as immediate TCTOs.

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  • 12. 

    To permit simultaneous release of two or more time compliance technical orders (TCTO) requiring work in the same general area, procuring activities are authorized to withhold the release of non-safety routine action TCTOs for a maximum of

    • A.

      30 days

    • B.

      60 days

    • C.

      90 days

    • D.

      120 days

    Correct Answer
    C. 90 days
    Explanation
    Procuring activities are authorized to withhold the release of non-safety routine action TCTOs for a maximum of 90 days in order to allow for the simultaneous release of two or more time compliance technical orders requiring work in the same general area. This allows for efficient coordination and implementation of the TCTOs, ensuring that the necessary work can be completed in a timely manner without compromising safety.

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  • 13. 

    Which logistics indicator shows a unit’s ability to keep equipment in a ready status?

    • A.

      System reliability

    • B.

      Airframe capability

    • C.

      Base level repair capability

    • D.

      Maintenance scheduling effectiveness

    Correct Answer
    A. System reliability
    Explanation
    System reliability is the logistics indicator that shows a unit's ability to keep equipment in a ready status. This means that the system is dependable and can perform its intended function without failure or breakdown, ensuring that the equipment is always available and operational when needed.

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  • 14. 

    The data to calculate system capability rates is obtained from

    • A.

      The major command (MAJCOM)

    • B.

      The weekly maintenance plan

    • C.

      Materiel supply liaison

    • D.

      Debriefing

    Correct Answer
    D. Debriefing
    Explanation
    Debriefing provides valuable information and feedback about the performance of a system. It allows for a thorough review of any issues or problems that may have occurred during the operation of the system. This information can then be used to calculate system capability rates and identify areas for improvement. Debriefing sessions involve gathering input from various sources, such as operators, technicians, and other relevant personnel, to ensure a comprehensive understanding of the system's performance.

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  • 15. 

    If repair is not authorized at base level who forwards the item to contract maintenance or Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) depot?

    • A.

      Supply

    • B.

      Workcenter

    • C.

      Maintenance analysis

    • D.

      Plans and scheduling

    Correct Answer
    A. Supply
    Explanation
    If repair is not authorized at the base level, the item is forwarded to Supply. Supply is responsible for managing and distributing resources, including repair services. They would be the ones to coordinate with contract maintenance or the Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) depot to arrange for the repair of the item.

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  • 16. 

    What action taken codes are used to compute base repair capability rates?

    • A.

      A, F, G, K, L, V, Z

    • B.

      A, F, G, K, L, B, P

    • C.

      A, F, G, K, L, Z

    • D.

      A, F, B, G, K, L

    Correct Answer
    C. A, F, G, K, L, Z
    Explanation
    The action taken codes A, F, G, K, L, and Z are used to compute base repair capability rates.

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  • 17. 

    When computing maintenance scheduling effectiveness rates weights are usually assigned to show

    • A.

      The degree of importance of a task

    • B.

      The sequence of task accomplishment

    • C.

      How many tasks are scheduled next month

    • D.

      How many tasks were scheduled last month

    Correct Answer
    A. The degree of importance of a task
    Explanation
    Weights are assigned when computing maintenance scheduling effectiveness rates to show the degree of importance of a task. This means that tasks are prioritized based on their significance, with more weight given to tasks that are considered more important. This allows for a more efficient and effective maintenance schedule, as critical tasks can be given higher priority and addressed promptly. By assigning weights, the maintenance team can ensure that essential tasks are not overlooked and are completed in a timely manner.

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  • 18. 

    Delayed discrepancies are referred to as

    • A.

      Awaiting parts (AWP) or awaiting defer (AWD)

    • B.

      Awaiting parts (AWP) or awaiting maintenance (AWM)

    • C.

      Awaiting defer (AWD) or awaiting maintenance (AWM)

    • D.

      Awaiting parts (AWP) or awaiting deferred discrepancy (ADD)

    Correct Answer
    B. Awaiting parts (AWP) or awaiting maintenance (AWM)
    Explanation
    Delayed discrepancies are referred to as "awaiting parts (AWP) or awaiting maintenance (AWM)" because when there is a delay in addressing a discrepancy or issue with a system or equipment, it can be due to either waiting for the necessary parts to arrive or waiting for maintenance personnel to be available to fix the problem. Therefore, these terms are used to describe the different reasons for the delay in resolving the discrepancy.

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  • 19. 

    If they are not able to schedule or combine deferred discrepancies with more extensive maintenance actions, maintenance schedulers should?

    • A.

      Defer the discrepancies for 5 calendar days

    • B.

      Defer the discrepancies for 7 calendar days

    • C.

      Routinely schedule the aircraft to work the delays

    • D.

      Defer the discrepancies until there are more discrepancies to work

    Correct Answer
    C. Routinely schedule the aircraft to work the delays
    Explanation
    Maintenance schedulers should routinely schedule the aircraft to work the delays. This means that if they are unable to schedule or combine deferred discrepancies with more extensive maintenance actions, they should prioritize working on the delays and incorporating them into the aircraft's maintenance schedule. This ensures that the discrepancies are addressed in a timely manner and does not further delay the maintenance process.

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  • 20. 

    What mission capability status code is the sum of not mission capable supply (NMCS) and not mission capable both (NMCB) and reflects total not mission capable (NMC) aircraft limitations due to supply?

    • A.

      Fully mission capable (FMC)

    • B.

      Partial mission capable (PMC)

    • C.

      Not mission capable both (NMCB)

    • D.

      Total not mission capable supply (TNMCS)

    Correct Answer
    D. Total not mission capable supply (TNMCS)
    Explanation
    The mission capability status code that reflects total not mission capable (NMC) aircraft limitations due to supply is Total not mission capable supply (TNMCS). This code includes the sum of not mission capable supply (NMCS) and not mission capable both (NMCB), indicating that the aircraft is unable to perform its mission due to supply issues.

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  • 21. 

    What deviation category is used when an aircraft is cancelled due to bad weather?

    • A.

      Local

    • B.

      Chargeable

    • C.

      Nonchargeable

    • D.

      Higher headquarters

    Correct Answer
    C. Nonchargeable
    Explanation
    When an aircraft is cancelled due to bad weather, it is categorized as "Nonchargeable." This means that the cancellation is not the fault of the pilot or the airline, but rather due to external factors beyond their control, such as bad weather conditions. Therefore, the cancellation does not result in any charges or penalties for the airline or the passengers.

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  • 22. 

    The total number of cancellations can be obtained from the

    • A.

      Daily Flying Schedule

    • B.

      Operational Event Report

    • C.

      Monthly Maintenance Plan

    • D.

      Accomplishment Utilization Report (AUR)

    Correct Answer
    D. Accomplishment Utilization Report (AUR)
    Explanation
    The Accomplishment Utilization Report (AUR) provides information on the total number of cancellations. It is a report that tracks the utilization of resources and the accomplishment of tasks. By analyzing the AUR, one can determine the number of cancellations that have occurred within a specific time period. This report is likely to contain data on flights that were cancelled due to various reasons such as maintenance issues, weather conditions, or operational events. Therefore, the AUR is the most suitable source to obtain the total number of cancellations.

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  • 23. 

    When computing for the Flying Scheduling Effectiveness rate, what is subtracted from the total number of scheduled sorties?

    • A.

      Total deviations

    • B.

      Number of cancelled takeoffs

    • C.

      Total chargeable deviations only

    • D.

      Total nonchargeable deviations only

    Correct Answer
    A. Total deviations
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Total deviations." When computing for the Flying Scheduling Effectiveness rate, the total number of scheduled sorties is subtracted by the total deviations. This includes both chargeable and nonchargeable deviations. By subtracting the total deviations, we can determine the number of sorties that were successfully completed without any deviations from the schedule.

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  • 24. 

    Which command uses the departure reliability rate?

    • A.

      Air Combat Command (ACC)

    • B.

      Air Mobility Command (AMC)

    • C.

      Air Force Space Command

    • D.

      Air Force Materiel Command

    Correct Answer
    B. Air Mobility Command (AMC)
    Explanation
    The Air Mobility Command (AMC) uses the departure reliability rate. This rate is a measure of how reliable and consistent the departures of aircraft are within the command. It helps to assess the efficiency and effectiveness of the command's operations in terms of timely departures.

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  • 25. 

    When used for the departure reliability rate, the standard for on-time departure is within

    • A.

      10 minutes of the scheduled departure time

    • B.

      14 minutes of the scheduled departure time

    • C.

      20 minutes of the scheduled departure time

    • D.

      24 minutes of the scheduled departure time

    Correct Answer
    B. 14 minutes of the scheduled departure time
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 14 minutes of the scheduled departure time. This means that a flight is considered to have departed on time if it takes off within 14 minutes of the scheduled departure time. This standard allows for some flexibility and accounts for minor delays that may occur due to various factors such as boarding, fueling, or air traffic control.

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  • 26. 

    When we compute utilization under the flying hour program, the two ways we compute for the utilization (UTE) rate are?

    • A.

      Sortie and hourly

    • B.

      Program and actual

    • C.

      Effective and ineffective

    • D.

      Authorized and chargeable

    Correct Answer
    A. Sortie and hourly
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "sortie and hourly". Utilization (UTE) rate can be computed using the number of sorties flown and the number of hours flown. Sortie refers to a single flight mission, while hourly refers to the total number of hours flown. By considering both the number of sorties and the number of hours, we can accurately calculate the utilization rate under the flying hour program.

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  • 27. 

    What is the definition of aircraft availability?

    • A.

      The historical percentage of sorties lost to causes outside of unit control

    • B.

      The percentage of a fleet in a depot possessed or non-mission capable status

    • C.

      The percentage of a fleet not in a depot possessed or non-mission capable status

    • D.

      A measure of the health of the air mobility system and reflects the percentage of on-time departures

    Correct Answer
    C. The percentage of a fleet not in a depot possessed or non-mission capable status
    Explanation
    Aircraft availability refers to the percentage of a fleet that is not in a depot possessed or non-mission capable status. This means that the aircraft is in a state where it can be used for its intended mission without any restrictions or limitations. This measurement is important in assessing the readiness and effectiveness of the fleet, as a higher availability rate indicates a greater number of aircraft that are ready for use at any given time.

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  • 28. 

    What report is used to calculate aircraft availability?

    • A.

      Fix Time Report (FTR)

    • B.

      Equipment Status Report (TRIC: ESR)

    • C.

      Aerospace Vehicle Status Report (TRIC: AVS)

    • D.

      Accomplishment Utilization Report (TRIC: AUR)

    Correct Answer
    C. Aerospace Vehicle Status Report (TRIC: AVS)
    Explanation
    The Aerospace Vehicle Status Report (TRIC: AVS) is used to calculate aircraft availability. This report provides information on the status of aerospace vehicles, including their availability for use. It tracks the availability of aircraft and helps in determining their operational readiness. This report is essential for monitoring and managing aircraft availability and ensuring that they are ready for use when needed.

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  • 29. 

    What factor represents a historical percentage of scheduled sorties lost to causes outside of unit control?

    • A.

      Abort

    • B.

      Spare

    • C.

      Attrition

    • D.

      Utilization

    Correct Answer
    C. Attrition
    Explanation
    Attrition represents a historical percentage of scheduled sorties lost to causes outside of unit control. Attrition refers to the gradual reduction or wearing down of something, in this case, it refers to the loss of sorties due to factors that are beyond the control of the unit. This could include various reasons such as mechanical failures, weather conditions, or other unforeseen circumstances that prevent the scheduled sorties from being completed.

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  • 30. 

    In determining the spare factor, what do you compare to the number of historical sorties scheduled?

    • A.

      Number of flyable aircraft

    • B.

      Number of non-flyable aircraft

    • C.

      Number of 1st sortie logistics losses

    • D.

      Number of 2nd sortie logistics losses

    Correct Answer
    C. Number of 1st sortie logistics losses
    Explanation
    The spare factor is determined by comparing the number of 1st sortie logistics losses to the number of historical sorties scheduled. This comparison helps in assessing the efficiency and effectiveness of the logistics system in supporting the first sortie of aircraft. A higher number of 1st sortie logistics losses indicates a lower spare factor, suggesting that the logistics system needs improvement to reduce these losses and ensure a higher availability of aircraft for sorties.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following is not a factor used for computing manhour per flying hour?

    • A.

      Flying hours

    • B.

      Operating hours

    • C.

      On-equipment manhours

    • D.

      Off-equipment manhours

    Correct Answer
    B. Operating hours
    Explanation
    Operating hours is not a factor used for computing manhour per flying hour. Manhour per flying hour is a measure of the amount of time it takes for maintenance personnel to complete a certain amount of work on an aircraft during one hour of flight time. Factors used for computing this include flying hours, on-equipment manhours, and off-equipment manhours. Operating hours, on the other hand, refer to the total number of hours that an aircraft has been in operation, including both flying and non-flying time.

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  • 32. 

    What is the first position of the work unit code (WUC) for general support work included in the computation for manhours per flying hour?

    • A.

      0

    • B.

      1

    • C.

      2

    • D.

      3

    Correct Answer
    A. 0
    Explanation
    The first position of the work unit code (WUC) for general support work included in the computation for manhours per flying hour is 0.

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  • 33. 

    What code is used in the computation of the break rate?

    • A.

      Fix code 3

    • B.

      Cap code 3

    • C.

      Landing code 3

    • D.

      Not reparable this station (NRTS) code 3

    Correct Answer
    C. Landing code 3
    Explanation
    The computation of the break rate is done using the "Landing code 3".

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  • 34. 

    Which rate is used to measure speed of repair and equipment maintainability?

    • A.

      Fix rate

    • B.

      Break rate

    • C.

      Utilization rate

    • D.

      Mission capable rate

    Correct Answer
    A. Fix rate
    Explanation
    The fix rate is used to measure the speed of repair and equipment maintainability. This rate indicates how quickly repairs are made and how efficiently the equipment is maintained. A higher fix rate suggests that repairs are done promptly and the equipment is well-maintained, while a lower fix rate indicates slower repair times and potential issues with equipment maintenance.

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  • 35. 

    When an aircraft lands with a code 3 landing status, what maintenance status code is entered in Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?

    • A.

      Partial mission capable (PMC)

    • B.

      Fully mission capable (FMC)

    • C.

      Not mission capable (NMC)

    • D.

      Cap code 3

    Correct Answer
    C. Not mission capable (NMC)
    Explanation
    When an aircraft lands with a code 3 landing status, it means that the aircraft is not mission capable. Therefore, the maintenance status code entered in Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) would be "Not mission capable (NMC)".

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  • 36. 

    What are the three time frames used in the fix rate formula?

    • A.

      2, 4, or 8 hours

    • B.

      4, 6, or 8 hours

    • C.

      4, 8, or 10 hours

    • D.

      4, 8, or 12 hours

    Correct Answer
    D. 4, 8, or 12 hours
    Explanation
    The fix rate formula uses three time frames: 4, 8, or 12 hours. These time frames are used to calculate the fix rate, which is the rate at which a support team resolves issues within a given time frame. The formula considers the number of issues resolved within each time frame and calculates the fix rate based on that. By using these specific time frames, the formula provides a comprehensive view of the support team's performance over different durations.

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  • 37. 

    The total abort rate is a combination of

    • A.

      Air and ground abort

    • B.

      Air abort, late takeoff, and ground abort

    • C.

      Air abort, total deviations, and ground abort

    • D.

      Air abort, ground abort, and maintenance cancellation

    Correct Answer
    A. Air and ground abort
    Explanation
    The correct answer is air and ground abort. This means that the total abort rate includes both air aborts and ground aborts. Air abort refers to the cancellation of a flight after it has taken off, while ground abort refers to the cancellation of a flight before it has taken off. By considering both air and ground aborts, the total abort rate provides a comprehensive measure of the number of flights that have been cancelled for various reasons.

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  • 38. 

    A repeat discrepancy occurs how many sorties after a problem is originally reported?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    A repeat discrepancy occurs 1 sortie after a problem is originally reported.

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  • 39. 

    High repeat and recur rates may indicate a lack of

    • A.

      Available aircraft

    • B.

      Available spare parts

    • C.

      Qualified supervisors

    • D.

      Thorough troubleshooting

    Correct Answer
    D. Thorough troubleshooting
    Explanation
    High repeat and recur rates may indicate a lack of thorough troubleshooting because if the root cause of a problem is not identified and resolved properly, it is likely to reoccur. Thorough troubleshooting involves a systematic approach to identifying and addressing the underlying issues, ensuring that the problem is completely resolved and does not happen again. If thorough troubleshooting is not carried out, it can lead to repeated problems and a higher rate of recurrence.

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  • 40. 

    Base supply uses which rate to indicate depot support?

    • A.

      Break

    • B.

      Utilization

    • C.

      Mission capable

    • D.

      Cannibalization

    Correct Answer
    D. Cannibalization
    Explanation
    Cannibalization is the correct answer because it refers to the practice of taking parts or equipment from one unit or system to support another. In the context of depot support, cannibalization would involve using parts from one depot to support another depot. This rate would indicate the extent to which cannibalization is being used to provide support, and therefore would be a measure of base supply.

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  • 41. 

    Mean time to repair (MTTR) is expressed in

    • A.

      Seconds

    • B.

      Minutes

    • C.

      Hours

    • D.

      Days

    Correct Answer
    C. Hours
    Explanation
    Mean time to repair (MTTR) is a metric used to measure the average time it takes to repair a system or equipment after a failure. It is commonly expressed in hours because it provides a more detailed and accurate measurement compared to seconds or minutes. Hours allow for a better understanding of the time required for repairs, especially in complex systems where repairs may take a significant amount of time. Additionally, expressing MTTR in days may be too broad and less precise for analyzing and improving repair processes.

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  • 42. 

    Which computation provides you with the average equipment operating time before a failure occurs?

    • A.

      Fix rate

    • B.

      Break rate

    • C.

      Man-hour per flying hour

    • D.

      Mean time between failure (MTBF)

    Correct Answer
    D. Mean time between failure (MTBF)
    Explanation
    Mean time between failure (MTBF) is the computation that provides the average equipment operating time before a failure occurs. It is a measure used to estimate the reliability of a system or component by calculating the average time between failures. MTBF takes into account the total operating time and the number of failures that occur within that time period. It is commonly used in industries to assess the reliability and maintenance needs of equipment.

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  • 43. 

    In the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) what is the maximum number of days allowed for calculating the mean time between failure (MTBF)?

    • A.

      30

    • B.

      60

    • C.

      90

    • D.

      180

    Correct Answer
    D. 180
    Explanation
    In the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS), the maximum number of days allowed for calculating the mean time between failure (MTBF) is 180. This means that when calculating the MTBF, the system considers failures that have occurred within a maximum period of 180 days.

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  • 44. 

    Which mission performance indicator is used to measure the average time between failures of mission-essential systems?

    • A.

      Mean time to repair (MTTR)

    • B.

      Mean time between critical failure (MTBCF)

    • C.

      Mean time between downing events (MTBDE)

    • D.

      Mean time between maintenance actions (MTBMA)

    Correct Answer
    B. Mean time between critical failure (MTBCF)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Mean time between critical failure (MTBCF). This mission performance indicator is used to measure the average time between failures of mission-essential systems. It focuses specifically on critical failures, which are failures that significantly impact the mission. By measuring the time between these critical failures, organizations can assess the reliability and effectiveness of their mission-essential systems. The longer the MTBCF, the more reliable and robust the systems are considered to be.

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  • 45. 

    What maintenance events are included when computing for the mean time between maintenance actions (MTBMA)?

    • A.

      Scheduled only

    • B.

      Unscheduled only

    • C.

      Both scheduled and unscheduled

    • D.

      On-equipment and off-equipment

    Correct Answer
    C. Both scheduled and unscheduled
    Explanation
    The mean time between maintenance actions (MTBMA) is a metric used to calculate the average time between any maintenance events. This includes both scheduled and unscheduled maintenance events. Scheduled maintenance refers to planned maintenance activities that are performed based on a predetermined schedule, while unscheduled maintenance refers to unexpected or unplanned maintenance actions that are performed as a result of equipment failure or other unforeseen circumstances. By considering both scheduled and unscheduled maintenance events, the MTBMA provides a comprehensive measure of the reliability and availability of equipment or systems.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following gives the average time for end items and is an indication of component overall performance?

    • A.

      Mean time to repair (MTTR)

    • B.

      Mean time between failure (MTBF)

    • C.

      Mean time between critical failure (MTBCF)

    • D.

      Mean time between maintenance actions (MTBMA)

    Correct Answer
    D. Mean time between maintenance actions (MTBMA)
    Explanation
    Mean time between maintenance actions (MTBMA) gives the average time for end items and is an indication of component overall performance. MTBMA measures the average time between two maintenance actions, which includes both preventive and corrective maintenance. This metric helps to assess the reliability and availability of the component or system. A higher MTBMA value indicates better overall performance, as it means that the component or system requires less frequent maintenance actions, resulting in increased uptime and productivity.

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  • 47. 

    The two cornerstones of maintenance metrics are fleet availability and

    • A.

      Maintenance capability

    • B.

      Deployment execution

    • C.

      Program execution

    • D.

      Airlift capability

    Correct Answer
    C. Program execution
    Explanation
    Program execution is one of the cornerstones of maintenance metrics because it refers to the successful implementation and completion of maintenance programs. This metric focuses on how well maintenance programs are executed, including factors such as adherence to schedules, completion of tasks, and overall effectiveness of the program. By measuring program execution, organizations can assess the efficiency and effectiveness of their maintenance operations, identify areas for improvement, and ensure that maintenance tasks are carried out in a timely and effective manner to support fleet availability and maintenance capability.

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  • 48. 

    Which of these is a lagging indicator under fleet availability?

    • A.

      Mission capable rate

    • B.

      Code 3 break rate

    • C.

      8-hour fix rate

    • D.

      Air abort rate

    Correct Answer
    A. Mission capable rate
    Explanation
    A lagging indicator is a measurement that reflects past performance and is used to assess the effectiveness of actions taken. In the context of fleet availability, the mission capable rate is a lagging indicator because it indicates the percentage of time that a fleet is available to perform its intended missions. It reflects the historical performance of the fleet in terms of its ability to be operational and ready for missions. Other indicators such as code 3 break rate, 8-hour fix rate, and air abort rate may provide real-time or more immediate information about specific issues or events, but the mission capable rate provides a broader and more comprehensive view of overall fleet availability.

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  • 49. 

    Which fix rate time interval is reported for all aircraft other than fighters?

    • A.

      Four

    • B.

      Eight

    • C.

      Twelve

    • D.

      Fourteen

    Correct Answer
    C. Twelve
    Explanation
    For all aircraft other than fighters, the fix rate time interval reported is twelve. This means that the aircraft's position is reported every twelve seconds.

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  • 50. 

    By consolidating feasible cannibalizations (CANN) to a few aircraft when practical, maintenance can keep which mission capable rate low?

    • A.

      Fully mission capable (FMC)

    • B.

      Partial mission capable (PMC)

    • C.

      Total not mission capable both (TNMCB)

    • D.

      Total not mission capable supply (TNMCS)

    Correct Answer
    D. Total not mission capable supply (TNMCS)
    Explanation
    By consolidating feasible cannibalizations to a few aircraft when practical, maintenance can keep the Total not mission capable supply (TNMCS) rate low. This means that by using parts from non-operational aircraft to repair others, maintenance can ensure that there is an adequate supply of parts available to keep the aircraft operational, reducing the number of aircraft that are not mission capable due to a lack of supplies.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 06, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 01, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Jhomsey
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