3DX5X Volume 1:Support To The Cyberspace Mission

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3DX5X Quizzes & Trivia

Quiz over the 1st volume of cdc's in the 3dx5x series


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with AFI 36-2201, Classifying Military Personnel(Officer and Enlisted)?

    • A.

      Core task

    • B.

      Duty competency

    • C.

      Core competency

    • D.

      Duty position task

    Correct Answer
    D. Duty position task
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "duty position task." According to AFI 36-2201, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted), the supervisor is responsible for assigning duty position tasks to enlisted personnel. These tasks are specific to the individual's assigned position and are essential for the successful performance of their duties.

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  • 2. 

    Which enlisted training element is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?

    • A.

      Core task

    • B.

      Duty competency

    • C.

      Core competency

    • D.

      Duty position task

    Correct Answer
    C. Core competency
    Explanation
    A core competency is a combination of expert knowledge and organizational skills that are specific to a particular career field. It is an integrated bundle of skills and knowledge that individuals in that career field possess and use to perform their duties effectively. Core competencies are essential for success in a specific job and are developed through training and experience.

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  • 3. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty focuses it sattention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide?

    • A.

      Cyber Surety

    • B.

      Client Systems

    • C.

      Cyber Transport

    • D.

      Cyber Systems Operations

    Correct Answer
    D. Cyber Systems Operations
    Explanation
    Cyber Systems Operations is the correct answer because this 3D Air Force Specialty specifically deals with the administration of servers and server farms across Air Force installations globally. This specialty focuses on managing and maintaining the operational functionality of these systems, ensuring their efficiency and security.

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  • 4. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and hands-on maintenance actions?

    • A.

      Cyber Surety

    • B.

      Client Systems

    • C.

      Cyber Transport

    • D.

      Cyber Systems Operations

    Correct Answer
    B. Client Systems
    Explanation
    Client Systems is the correct answer because this Air Force Specialty responsibility involves providing local base helpdesk/client support and performing hands-on maintenance actions. This role focuses on supporting and maintaining the computer systems and networks used by clients within the Air Force, ensuring their functionality and addressing any technical issues that may arise.

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  • 5. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

    • A.

      Spectrun Operations

    • B.

      Ground Radar Systems

    • C.

      Cable and Antenna Systems

    • D.

      Radio Frequency Transmission

    Correct Answer
    D. Radio Frequency Transmission
    Explanation
    Radio Frequency Transmission is the correct answer because this 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. This specialty focuses on ensuring effective communication through RF transmission systems and maintaining the functionality of these devices.

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  • 6. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems?

    • A.

      Spectrun Operations

    • B.

      Ground Radar Systems

    • C.

      Cable and Antenna Systems

    • D.

      Radio Frequency Transmission

    Correct Answer
    B. Ground Radar Systems
    Explanation
    Ground Radar Systems is the correct answer because this specialty is responsible for the installation, maintenance, and repair of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems. This involves ensuring that these radar systems are functioning properly and accurately detecting and tracking aircraft and weather patterns.

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  • 7. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

    • A.

      Spectrun Operations

    • B.

      Ground Radar Systems

    • C.

      Cable and Antenna Systems

    • D.

      Radio Frequency Transmission

    Correct Answer
    C. Cable and Antenna Systems
    Explanation
    Cable and Antenna Systems are responsible for the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations. This involves ensuring that the network wiring is properly installed and maintained to support communication and connectivity for the Air Force. They are also responsible for the installation and maintenance of antennas, which are crucial for transmitting and receiving signals for communication purposes.

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  • 8. 

    Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

    • A.

      Unit training manger (UTM)

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM)

    • C.

      Major command functional manager MFM)

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
    Explanation
    The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for providing guidance and support to individuals in the career field, ensuring that they have the necessary resources and training to succeed. The AFCFM is knowledgeable about the specific requirements and opportunities within the career field and can provide valuable insight and advice to help individuals make informed decisions about their careers. They play a crucial role in shaping the direction and development of the career field and ensuring its overall success.

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  • 9. 

    Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

    • A.

      Unit training manger (UTM)

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM)

    • C.

      Major command functional manager MFM)

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
    Explanation
    The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). This means that the AFCFM has the power to exempt individuals from certain training requirements based on their specific circumstances or qualifications. The AFCFM is responsible for overseeing and managing the career field, making them the appropriate authority to make decisions regarding training waivers.

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  • 10. 

    Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

    • A.

      Unit training manger (UTM)

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM)

    • C.

      Major command functional manager MFM)

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)

    Correct Answer
    C. Major command functional manager MFM)
    Explanation
    The Major command functional manager (MFM) assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC).

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  • 11. 

    What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

    • A.

      Unit training manger (UTM)

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM)

    • C.

      Major command functional manager MFM)

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)

    Correct Answer
    B. Base functional manager (BFM)
    Explanation
    The title normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO) is Base functional manager (BFM).

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  • 12. 

    What is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

    • A.

      Modify training

    • B.

      Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

    • C.

      Conduct climate training surveys

    • D.

      Review the occupational analysis report

    Correct Answer
    B. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
    Explanation
    The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This plan outlines the education and training requirements for a specific career field, ensuring that individuals receive the necessary skills and knowledge to succeed in their roles. By establishing a CFETP, the workshop aims to provide a comprehensive and structured approach to training, enabling individuals to develop and advance in their careers effectively.

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  • 13. 

    Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would you reference safety information on “Material Handling and Storage Equipment?”

    • A.

      91-46

    • B.

      91-50

    • C.

      91-64

    • D.

      91-68

    Correct Answer
    A. 91-46
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 91-46. This Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard specifically pertains to "Material Handling and Storage Equipment." Therefore, if you need safety information related to this topic, you would reference AFOSH 91-46.

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  • 14. 

    Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would you reference safety information on “Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems?”

    • A.

      91-46

    • B.

      91-50

    • C.

      91-64

    • D.

      91-68

    Correct Answer
    C. 91-64
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 91-64. This AFOSH standard document would be the appropriate reference for safety information on "Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems."

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  • 15. 

    The Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard that you would reference safety information on data processing facilities is called AFOSH standard

    • A.

      91-46

    • B.

      91-50

    • C.

      91-64

    • D.

      91-68

    Correct Answer
    D. 91-68
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 91-68. This AFOSH standard provides safety information specifically for data processing facilities in the Air Force. It outlines the guidelines and regulations that need to be followed to ensure the safety and health of personnel working in these facilities.

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  • 16. 

    From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?

    • A.

      Sunlight

    • B.

      Microwaves

    • C.

      Ionizing radiation

    • D.

      Nonionizing radiation

    Correct Answer
    D. Nonionizing radiation
    Explanation
    Nonionizing radiation can be absorbed by the body in damaging amounts, specifically affecting deep tissue and organs, without causing any sensation of skin heating. This type of radiation includes electromagnetic waves with lower energy levels, such as radio waves, visible light, and microwaves. Unlike ionizing radiation, which has higher energy levels and can cause immediate damage to cells and DNA, nonionizing radiation causes harm through long-term exposure. This explanation suggests that nonionizing radiation is the correct answer to the question.

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  • 17. 

    Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle states that most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk?

    • A.

      Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B.

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C.

      Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

    • D.

      Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

    Correct Answer
    A. Accept no unnecessary risk.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Accept no unnecessary risk." This principle states that when making choices to accomplish a mission, it is important to avoid taking on any unnecessary risks. It emphasizes the importance of finding solutions that meet all mission requirements while minimizing the exposure of personnel and resources to risk. By accepting no unnecessary risk, organizations can prioritize the safety and well-being of their personnel while still achieving their mission objectives.

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  • 18. 

    Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle requests you to weigh the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capability?

    • A.

      Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B.

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C.

      Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

    • D.

      Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

    Correct Answer
    C. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
    Explanation
    This principle of occupational risk management (ORM) suggests that it is acceptable to take on risk if the benefits and opportunities outweigh the costs. This means that when evaluating a situation, the potential gains and advantages should be carefully considered alongside the potential risks and drawbacks. By weighing these factors, organizations can make informed decisions that help to maximize their overall capability and effectiveness. This principle emphasizes the importance of balancing risk and reward in order to make strategic choices that can lead to positive outcomes.

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  • 19. 

    Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process?

    • A.

      Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B.

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C.

      Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

    • D.

      Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels

    Correct Answer
    D. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels
    Explanation
    The principle of integrating ORM into operations and planning at all levels means that risk assessments are conducted as a normal part of conducting a mission, rather than being seen as an additional process. This implies that risk assessments are ingrained into the standard procedures and decision-making processes of the organization, rather than being treated as an optional or separate activity.

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  • 20. 

    Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by

    • A.

      Providing adversaries access to useless data files on legacy systems.

    • B.

      Taking offensive measures to track adversaries and correct damage to sensitive data.

    • C.

      Denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary’s ability to use cyberspace.

    • D.

      Allowing the adversaries to use the cyberspace domain so we can document the country they’re from.

    Correct Answer
    C. Denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary’s ability to use cyberspace.
    Explanation
    Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary's ability to use cyberspace. This means that offensive measures are taken to hinder the adversary's capability to operate effectively in the cyberspace domain. By doing so, the United States aims to weaken the adversary's ability to carry out cyber attacks or other malicious activities, ultimately protecting sensitive data and national security interests.

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  • 21. 

    Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas?

    • A.

      Joint Operability network.

    • B.

      Tactical data links network.

    • C.

      Strategic data control network.

    • D.

      Supervisory control and data acquisition.

    Correct Answer
    D. Supervisory control and data acquisition.
    Explanation
    Supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) refers to centralized systems that monitor and control industrial sites or complexes of systems spread out over large areas. SCADA systems are used in various industries such as manufacturing, energy, and transportation to gather and analyze real-time data, control processes, and make informed decisions. They provide a centralized platform for monitoring and controlling various devices, sensors, and equipment, allowing operators to remotely manage and optimize operations. SCADA systems are essential for ensuring the efficiency, safety, and reliability of industrial processes.

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  • 22. 

    Which center has the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks?

    • A.

      Area Processing Center (APC).

    • B.

      Network Control Center (NCC).

    • C.

      Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).

    • D.

      Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC).

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).
    Explanation
    The Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC) is the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks. This means that AFNOC is responsible for monitoring and managing the network infrastructure, ensuring its security, and controlling access to the network. The other options, such as the Area Processing Center (APC), Network Control Center (NCC), and Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC), do not have the same level of authority and responsibility as AFNOC in managing Air Force networks.

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  • 23. 

    Which center is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provides Tier 3 (local level) on-site, and implements technical and physical network changes?

    • A.

      Area Processing Center (APC).

    • B.

      Network Control Center (NCC).

    • C.

      Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).

    • D.

      Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC).

    Correct Answer
    B. Network Control Center (NCC).
    Explanation
    The Network Control Center (NCC) is typically aligned under the base communications squadron and is responsible for providing Tier 3 (local level) on-site support. The NCC also implements technical and physical network changes, making it the correct answer for this question.

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  • 24. 

    Which function or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages?

    • A.

      Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

    • B.

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

    • C.

      Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).

    • D.

      Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).

    Correct Answer
    C. Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Combat Communications Squadron (CCS). The mission of CCS is different from the other options mentioned. While the Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Enterprise Service Desk (ESD) are focused on providing communication packages, they do not specifically mention the rapid deployment of Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages. Similarly, the Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS) may provide communication packages, but their mission does not specifically mention the small flyaway communication packages. Only the Combat Communications Squadron (CCS) has a mission that includes both providing small flyaway communication packages and rapidly deploying EAB communications packages.

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  • 25. 

    Which function or organization was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF)?

    • A.

      Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

    • B.

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

    • C.

      Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).

    • D.

      Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).

    Correct Answer
    D. Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).
    Explanation
    The Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS) was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF). This organization is responsible for providing communication support in expeditionary environments, ensuring that the AETF has reliable and secure communication capabilities. The ECS is specifically designed to deploy and operate in various locations, supporting the mission of the AETF and enabling effective communication among its members.

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  • 26. 

    Which function or organization has the goal to manage AF core services, within the AFNetOps community to; reduce training, maintenance costs; increase operational flexibility and capacity to the warfighter?

    • A.

      Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

    • B.

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

    • C.

      Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).

    • D.

      Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Enterprise Service Unit (ESU). The ESU is responsible for managing AF core services within the AFNetOps community. Its goal is to reduce training and maintenance costs, as well as increase operational flexibility and capacity to the warfighter.

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  • 27. 

    Which document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States?

    • A.

      Constitution

    • B.

      Bill of Rights

    • C.

      United States Title Code 10

    • D.

      Uniformed Code of Military Justice

    Correct Answer
    A. Constitution
    Explanation
    The Constitution is the document used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States. It outlines the structure of the government, the powers and limitations of each branch, and the rights and freedoms of the citizens. It serves as the supreme law of the land and provides the framework for the legal system in the United States. The Bill of Rights, United States Title Code 10, and Uniformed Code of Military Justice are all important legal documents, but they are not the basis for all federal laws like the Constitution is.

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  • 28. 

    Which document authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of government and established all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

    • A.

      Constitution

    • B.

      Bill of Rights

    • C.

      United States Title Code 10

    • D.

      Uniformed Code of Military Justice

    Correct Answer
    C. United States Title Code 10
    Explanation
    The United States Title Code 10 is the correct answer because it is the document that authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. It is a federal law that outlines the organization and structure of the military and provides the legal basis for its operations.

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  • 29. 

    Which document serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding instruction and law?

    • A.

      Constitution

    • B.

      Bill of Rights

    • C.

      United States Title Code 10

    • D.

      Uniformed Code of Military Justice

    Correct Answer
    D. Uniformed Code of Military Justice
    Explanation
    The Uniformed Code of Military Justice serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breaches in binding instruction and law. It is a federal law that governs the military justice system and outlines the legal rights and responsibilities of military personnel. It provides a set of rules and regulations that military members must adhere to, and violations can result in disciplinary action, including court-martial.

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  • 30. 

    In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD?

    • A.

      1994

    • B.

      1995

    • C.

      1997

    • D.

      1998

    Correct Answer
    B. 1995
    Explanation
    In 1995, the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD.

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  • 31. 

    In what year did the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine in August of 1998, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine?

    • A.

      1994

    • B.

      1995

    • C.

      1997

    • D.

      1998

    Correct Answer
    D. 1998
    Explanation
    The Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine in 1998. This is stated in the question itself, where it mentions that the Air Force published its doctrine in August of 1998.

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  • 32. 

    Which publication type are directive policy statements of Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility?

    • A.

      Air Force Doctrines.

    • B.

      Air Force Pamphlets.

    • C.

      Air Force Instructions.

    • D.

      Air Force Policy Directives.

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force Policy Directives.
    Explanation
    Directive policy statements of the Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF are called Air Force Policy Directives. These directives are used to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct within their specified areas of responsibility. Air Force Doctrines, Air Force Pamphlets, and Air Force Instructions are not specifically mentioned as the correct answer for this question.

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  • 33. 

    Which publication type are informational publications which are “how to” documents?

    • A.

      Air Force Pamphlets

    • B.

      Air Force Instructions.

    • C.

      Air Force Publications.

    • D.

      Air Force Policy Directives.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Pamphlets
    Explanation
    Air Force Pamphlets are informational publications that provide instructions on how to do something. They are designed to guide individuals on specific tasks or procedures. Unlike other publication types such as Air Force Instructions, Air Force Publications, and Air Force Policy Directives, Air Force Pamphlets specifically focus on providing step-by-step instructions or guidance on "how to" perform certain actions or tasks.

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  • 34. 

    What provides us with the transmission of analog or digital bits information to convey data over significant geographical distances to communicate?

    • A.

      Broadcasts

    • B.

      Transmissions

    • C.

      Telecommunications

    • D.

      Voice over Internet Protocol

    Correct Answer
    C. Telecommunications
    Explanation
    Telecommunications refers to the transmission of information over long distances to communicate. It includes the use of various technologies and systems to transmit both analog and digital bits of data. This can involve the use of telephones, radios, television, and other devices to convey information over significant geographical distances. Telecommunications plays a crucial role in connecting people and facilitating communication across the world.

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  • 35. 

    What tool provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location?

    • A.

      MyPay

    • B.

      E-Publishing

    • C.

      Air Force Portal

    • D.

      VMPF

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Portal
    Explanation
    The Air Force Portal is the correct answer because it is a tool that provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location. It serves as a central hub for information, communication, and collaboration within the Air Force community. Users can access various resources such as news, documents, training materials, and applications through the portal, making it a vital tool for the Air Force and its personnel.

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  • 36. 

    What tool is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces?

    • A.

      MyPay

    • B.

      E-Publishing

    • C.

      Air Force Portal

    • D.

      VMPF

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Portal
    Explanation
    The Air Force Portal is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces. This suggests that the Air Force Portal plays a crucial role in facilitating the work of the information technology task force and serves as a base or starting point for other transformation task forces within the organization.

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  • 37. 

    Which Air Force Portal feature enables authorized users to enter passwords once to gain access to all applications with no further log-in requirement?

    • A.

      My base

    • B.

      Single Sign On

    • C.

      Community of Practice

    • D.

      VMPF

    Correct Answer
    B. Single Sign On
    Explanation
    Single Sign On is a feature that allows authorized users to enter their passwords once and gain access to all applications without the need for further log-ins. This means that users do not have to remember multiple passwords for different applications, saving time and effort. It enhances convenience and streamlines the login process for authorized users on the Air Force Portal.

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  • 38. 

    Which Air Force Portal feature is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal?

    • A.

      My base

    • B.

      Single Sign On

    • C.

      Community of Practice

    • D.

      VMPF

    Correct Answer
    D. VMPF
    Explanation
    The vMPF (Virtual Military Personnel Flight) feature is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal because it allows Air Force personnel to access and manage their personal and career information online. It provides a centralized platform for tasks such as updating personal information, viewing pay and benefits, managing assignments, and accessing official documents. This feature simplifies and streamlines administrative processes, saving time and effort for Air Force personnel.

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  • 39. 

    Which Air Force Portal feature provides a secure, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic where members of a group share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and/or solve group problems?

    • A.

      My base

    • B.

      Single Sign On

    • C.

      Community of Practice

    • D.

      VMPF

    Correct Answer
    C. Community of Practice
    Explanation
    A Community of Practice is a feature in the Air Force Portal that provides a secure, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic. It allows members of a group to share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and/or solve group problems. This feature facilitates collaboration and knowledge sharing among members of a specific community, enabling them to work together effectively and efficiently.

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  • 40. 

    Which document would you reference for guidance on “Web management and Internet use?”

    • A.

      AFI 33-118

    • B.

      AFI 33-119

    • C.

      AFI 33-127

    • D.

      AFI 33-129

    Correct Answer
    D. AFI 33-129
    Explanation
    AFI 33-129 would be the appropriate document to reference for guidance on "Web management and Internet use."

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  • 41. 

    Prior to posting web content on an Air Force web page; which document would you reference regarding compliance of local clearance and approval Public Affairs procedures for posting information to the Internet/public Web sites?

    • A.

      AFI 33-127

    • B.

      AFI 33-129

    • C.

      AFI 35-101

    • D.

      AFI 35-108

    Correct Answer
    C. AFI 35-101
    Explanation
    AFI 35-101 is the correct answer because it provides guidance and procedures for public affairs personnel to follow when posting information to the Internet or public websites. It outlines the clearance and approval procedures that need to be followed to ensure compliance with local regulations and public affairs policies. This document is specifically relevant for Air Force web pages and serves as a reference to ensure that the content posted meets the necessary clearance and approval requirements.

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  • 42. 

    When corresponding to an e-mail, which would you not use to follow proper e-mail etiquette?

    • A.

      Keep emails brief and to the point.

    • B.

      Read your email out loud to yourself.

    • C.

      Consistently use the “Reply-to-All” feature.

    • D.

      Ensure attachments are appropriate to supplement your message.

    Correct Answer
    C. Consistently use the “Reply-to-All” feature.
    Explanation
    Using the "Reply-to-All" feature consistently would not follow proper email etiquette. This feature should only be used when it is necessary for everyone included in the original email to be aware of the response. Overusing "Reply-to-All" can lead to unnecessary clutter in people's inboxes and can be seen as spamming or annoying to recipients who do not need to be included in the conversation. It is important to consider who really needs to be included in the response and use the "Reply-to-All" feature sparingly.

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  • 43. 

    Which document is not considered an official government record?

    • A.

      Published doctrines.

    • B.

      Geographical base maps.

    • C.

      Photographs of a retreat ceremony.

    • D.

      Library reference or museum exhibitions.

    Correct Answer
    D. Library reference or museum exhibitions.
    Explanation
    Library reference or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are not created or maintained by government agencies for the purpose of documenting official activities or decisions. While they may contain valuable information, they are not typically considered legal or administrative documents that hold the same weight as official government records.

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  • 44. 

    Records that are considered to be in draft format

    • A.

      Can be altered and are not officially released.

    • B.

      Can’t be altered, but are officially released.

    • C.

      Can’t be altered and are officially signed.

    • D.

      Officially signed and officially released.

    Correct Answer
    A. Can be altered and are not officially released.
    Explanation
    Records that are considered to be in draft format can be altered and are not officially released. This means that these records are still in the process of being finalized and may undergo changes before they are officially released to the public or other stakeholders. As they are not yet finalized, they can be modified or edited as needed. However, once they are officially released, they become official records and cannot be altered.

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  • 45. 

    Records that are considered to be in final format have which characteristic?

    • A.

      Officially signed and not released.

    • B.

      Officially signed and officially released.

    • C.

      Can be altered and are not officially released.

    • D.

      Can’t be altered, but are not officially released.

    Correct Answer
    B. Officially signed and officially released.
    Explanation
    Records that are considered to be in final format are officially signed and officially released. This means that they have undergone all necessary approvals and have been authorized for public dissemination. Being officially signed ensures that the records have been authenticated and verified by the appropriate authority. Being officially released means that they have been made available to the public or relevant stakeholders. This characteristic indicates that the records are in their completed form and can be relied upon as accurate and complete representations of the information they contain.

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  • 46. 

    Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?

    • A.

      Base records manager.

    • B.

      Chief of Office of Records.

    • C.

      Command records manager.

    • D.

      Functional area records manager.

    Correct Answer
    C. Command records manager.
    Explanation
    The command records manager is responsible for establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers. This individual is in charge of overseeing the management of records within a specific command or organization. They are responsible for ensuring that base records managers receive the necessary training and guidance to effectively carry out their duties. This includes developing training programs, providing instruction on record-keeping procedures and policies, and monitoring the performance of base records managers to ensure compliance with established standards.

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  • 47. 

    Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?

    • A.

      Base records manager.

    • B.

      Chief of Office of Records.

    • C.

      Command records manager.

    • D.

      Functional area records manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. Base records manager.
    Explanation
    The duties mentioned in the question, such as providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training, align with the responsibilities of a base records manager. This role involves overseeing the management of records within a military base or organization, including tasks related to organization, training, and support. The other options, such as Chief of Office of Records, Command records manager, and Functional area records manager, do not specifically mention these duties and responsibilities.

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  • 48. 

    Who is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?

    • A.

      Base records manager.

    • B.

      Chief of Office of Records.

    • C.

      Command records manager.

    • D.

      Functional area records manager.

    Correct Answer
    D. Functional area records manager.
    Explanation
    A functional area records manager is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization, or contractor to perform records management. This individual is responsible for managing and maintaining records within their specific functional area, ensuring compliance with regulations and policies related to records management. They play a crucial role in organizing and preserving records, as well as facilitating access to information when needed.

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  • 49. 

    Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?

    • A.

      Base records manager.

    • B.

      Chief of Office of Records.

    • C.

      Command records manager.

    • D.

      Functional area records manager.

    Correct Answer
    B. Chief of Office of Records.
    Explanation
    The Chief of Office of Records has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record. This individual holds a higher position within the office and is responsible for overseeing the management and maintenance of records. They have the knowledge and expertise to determine who is best suited to be a custodian and can make informed decisions regarding appointments.

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  • 50. 

    A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is known as a/an

    • A.

      File

    • B.

      Record

    • C.

      Database

    • D.

      Enterprise

    Correct Answer
    B. Record
    Explanation
    A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is known as a record. A record is a collection of related data fields that are organized and stored together. It represents a single entity or item within a database or file. Records are used to store and retrieve information efficiently, as they allow for easy access to specific data within a larger dataset.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 16, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 12, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Rjhayes
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