3dx5x Cyber Support Journeyman Volume 2. Information Technology Concepts

126 Questions  I  By Beto612
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Information Technology Quizzes & Trivia
Volume 2. Information Technology Concepts

  
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Questions and Answers

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  • 1. 
    (201) What layer of the Open System Interconnect model defines the electrical, mechanical, procedural, and functional specifications for links between communicating network systems?
    • A. 

      A. Physical.

    • B. 

      B. Data Link.

    • C. 

      C. Network.

    • D. 

      D. Transport.


  • 2. 
    (201) The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers divide the Open System Interconnect Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?
    • A. 

      A. High Level Data Link Control and Synchronous Data Link Control.

    • B. 

      B. Logical Link Control and Media Access Control.

    • C. 

      C. Distance Vector and Link State.

    • D. 

      D. RS–232 and RS–530.


  • 3. 
    (201) At what Open System Interconnect layer do network switches and bridges operate?
    • A. 

      A. Network.

    • B. 

      B. Physical.

    • C. 

      C. Data Link.

    • D. 

      D. Transport.


  • 4. 
    (201) At what Open System Interconnect layer do routers operate?
    • A. 

      A. Network.

    • B. 

      B. Physical.

    • C. 

      C. Data Link.

    • D. 

      D. Transport.


  • 5. 
    (201) At what Open System Interconnect layer are common data compression and encryption schemes used?
    • A. 

      A. Application.

    • B. 

      B. Session.

    • C. 

      C. Presentation.

    • D. 

      D. Transport.


  • 6. 
    (201) What Open System Interconnect layer is closest to the end user?
    • A. 

      A. Application.

    • B. 

      B. Session.

    • C. 

      C. Presentation.

    • D. 

      D. Transport.


  • 7. 
    (201) What is a formal set of rules and conventions that govern how computers exchange information over a network medium?
    • A. 

      A. Specification.

    • B. 

      B. Standard.

    • C. 

      C. Etiquette.

    • D. 

      D. Protocol.


  • 8. 
    (202) What topology defines the layout of a network’s devices and media?
    • A. 

      A. Physical.

    • B. 

      B. Logical.

    • C. 

      C. Star.

    • D. 

      D. Hybrid.


  • 9. 
    (202) What topology defines the way in which devices communicate, and data is transmitted, throughout the network?
    • A. 

      A. Physical.

    • B. 

      B. Logical.

    • C. 

      C. Star.

    • D. 

      D. Hybrid.


  • 10. 
    (202) What topology consists of devices connected to a common, shared cable?
    • A. 

      A. Bus.

    • B. 

      B. Ring.

    • C. 

      C. Star.

    • D. 

      D. Hybrid.


  • 11. 
    (202) What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?
    • A. 

      A. Bus.

    • B. 

      B. Ring.

    • C. 

      C. Star.

    • D. 

      D. Hybrid.


  • 12. 
    (202) What topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?
    • A. 

      A. Bus.

    • B. 

      B. Ring.

    • C. 

      C. Star.

    • D. 

      D. Hybrid.


  • 13. 
    (202) What topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?
    • A. 

      A. Bus.

    • B. 

      B. Ring.

    • C. 

      C. Star.

    • D. 

      D. Hybrid.


  • 14. 
    (203) Which network protocol has the Department of Defense chosen as its standard to govern the flow of information?
    • A. 

      A. AppleTalk.

    • B. 

      B. NetBios Extended User Interface.

    • C. 

      C. Transport Control Protocol/Internet Protocol.

    • D. 

      D. Internetwork Packet Exchange/ Sequenced Packet Exchange.


  • 15. 
    (203) What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides the service of matching a known IP address for a destination device to a Media Access Control address?
    • A. 

      A. Internet Protocol.

    • B. 

      B. Address Resolution Protocol.

    • C. 

      C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol.

    • D. 

      D. Internet Control Message Protocol.


  • 16. 
    (203) What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides the IP address for a device that knows its own MAC address?
    • A. 

      A. Internet Protocol.

    • B. 

      B. Address Resolution Protocol.

    • C. 

      C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol.

    • D. 

      D. Internet Control Message Protocol.


  • 17. 
    (203) What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting?
    • A. 

      A. Internet Protocol.

    • B. 

      B. Address Resolution Protocol.

    • C. 

      C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol.

    • D. 

      D. Internet Control Message Protocol.


  • 18. 
    (203) What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol transport layer protocol provides reliable data delivery services?
    • A. 

      A. Internet Protocol.

    • B. 

      B. User Datagram Protocol.

    • C. 

      C. Transmission Control Protocol.

    • D. 

      D. Internet Control Message Protocol.


  • 19. 
    (203) What application within Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol is used to send and receive files via TCP?
    • A. 

      A. File Transfer Protocol.

    • B. 

      B. Trivial File Transfer Protocol.

    • C. 

      C. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol.

    • D. 

      D. HyperText Transfer Protocol.


  • 20. 
    (204) What type of network connects networks that are typically separated by geographical distances between cities, states, countries, or around the world?
    • A. 

      A. Local Area Network.

    • B. 

      B. Wide Area Network.

    • C. 

      C. Virtual Private Network.

    • D. 

      D. Metropolitan Area Network.


  • 21. 
    (204) What type of network makes use of tunneling and security protocols to enables a group of two or more computer systems to communicate over the public Internet?
    • A. 

      A. Local Area Network.

    • B. 

      B. Wide Area Network.

    • C. 

      C. Virtual Private Network.

    • D. 

      D. Metropolitan Area Network.


  • 22. 
    (204) Which is a common port that contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol servers and proxies?
    • A. 

      A. Port 80.

    • B. 

      B. Port 110.

    • C. 

      C. Port 443.

    • D. 

      D. Port 8080.


  • 23. 
    (205) How many bits are in an IPv4 address?
    • A. 

      A. 16 bits.

    • B. 

      B. 32 bits.

    • C. 

      C. 64 bits.

    • D. 

      D. 128 bits.


  • 24. 
    (205) Instead of using binary, how are IPv4 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?
    • A. 

      A. Colon Hexadecimal Format.

    • B. 

      B. Dotted Decimal Notation.

    • C. 

      C. Hexadecimal.

    • D. 

      D. Octal.


  • 25. 
    (205) Using a range of 1–126 in the first octet of an IPv4 address, what class does it belong to?
    • A. 

      A. Class A.

    • B. 

      B. Class B.

    • C. 

      C. Class C.

    • D. 

      D. Class D.


  • 26. 
    (205) What IPv4 class address is used for networks with about 250 nodes?
    • A. 

      A. Class C.

    • B. 

      B. Class D.

    • C. 

      C. Class E.

    • D. 

      D. Class F.


  • 27. 
    (205) What IPv4 class address is used for multicast addressing?
    • A. 

      A. Class C.

    • B. 

      B. Class D.

    • C. 

      C. Class E.

    • D. 

      D. Class F.


  • 28. 
    (205) What IPv4 reserved address is used for loop back?
    • A. 

      A. 0.0.0.0.

    • B. 

      B. 127.0.0.1.

    • C. 

      C. 207.55.157.255.

    • D. 

      D. 255.255.255.255.


  • 29. 
    (205) What is a mechanism that allows a network device to divide an IP address into a network and host number?
    • A. 

      A. Subnet mask.

    • B. 

      B. Broadcast.

    • C. 

      C. Multicast.

    • D. 

      D. Subnet.


  • 30. 
    (205) What is the default classful subnet mask on class B networks?
    • A. 

      A. 255.255.0.0.

    • B. 

      B. 255.255.240.0.

    • C. 

      C. 255.255.255.0.

    • D. 

      D. 255.255.255.224.


  • 31. 
    (205) What method borrows bits from the host field of an IP address to create a subnet?
    • A. 

      A. Classful Subnet Masking.

    • B. 

      B. Classless Inter-Domain Routing.

    • C. 

      C. Virtual Private Networking.

    • D. 

      D. Virtual Local Area Networking.


  • 32. 
    (206) Instead of using binary, how are IPv6 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?
    • A. 

      A. Colon Hexadecimal Format.

    • B. 

      B. Dotted Decimal Notation.

    • C. 

      C. Hexadecimal.

    • D. 

      D. Octal.


  • 33. 
    (206) What notation is expressed in leading zero compression for IPv6?
    • A. 

      A. 1234:1234:0:0:1234:0:0:1234.

    • B. 

      B. 10AB::3:0:1234:5678.

    • C. 

      C. 255.255.255.255.

    • D. 

      D. 127.0.0.1.


  • 34. 
    (206) What notation is expressed in zero compression for IPv6?
    • A. 

      A. 1234:1234:0:0:1234:0:0:1234.

    • B. 

      B. 10AB::3:0:1234:5678.

    • C. 

      C. 255.255.255.255.

    • D. 

      D. 127.0.0.1.


  • 35. 
    (206) What Unicast address scope operates within a network segment, and will not originate from, or be destined to, an interface that requires a router to direct traffic?
    • A. 

      A. Site-local.

    • B. 

      B. Link-local.

    • C. 

      C. Aggregatable Local.

    • D. 

      D. Aggregatable Global.


  • 36. 
    (206) What Unicast address scope is designed to be private, internally routable addresses that do not route outside the site?
    • A. 

      A. Site-local.

    • B. 

      B. Link-local.

    • C. 

      C. Aggregatable Local.

    • D. 

      D. Aggregatable Global.


  • 37. 
    (206) What Unicast address scope is publicly accessible with the Network ID portion of the address broken up into different areas allowing for hierarchical design and allocation?
    • A. 

      A. Site-local.

    • B. 

      B. Link-local.

    • C. 

      C. Aggregatable Local.

    • D. 

      D. Aggregatable Global.


  • 38. 
    (207) The computing part of the computer is the central processing unit, also called the
    • A. 

      A. control unit.

    • B. 

      B. minicomputer.

    • C. 

      C. microprocessor.

    • D. 

      D. arithmetic logic unit.


  • 39. 
    (207) What two main components make up the central processing unit?
    • A. 

      A. Control unit and read-only memory.

    • B. 

      B. Control unit and arithmetic logic unit.

    • C. 

      C. Arithmetic logic unit and read-only memory.

    • D. 

      D. Arithmetic logic unit and random access memory.


  • 40. 
    (207) What is the type of memory that retains data after power is removed or lost?
    • A. 

      A. Volatile.

    • B. 

      B. Nonvolatile.

    • C. 

      C. Secured.

    • D. 

      D. Unsecured.


  • 41. 
    (207) Which landline transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications?
    • A. 

      A. Twisted pair cable.

    • B. 

      B. Fiber optic cable.

    • C. 

      C. Coaxial cable.

    • D. 

      D. Twinax cable.


  • 42. 
    (207) An optical communications system is comprised of a
    • A. 

      A. transmitter, cable, and receiver.

    • B. 

      B. transmitter, cable, and logic analyzer.

    • C. 

      C. transmitter, transmission medium, and logic analyzer.

    • D. 

      D. transmitter, transmission medium, and protocol analyzer.


  • 43. 
    (207) Which of the following is not one of the three advantages to using wireless technology?
    • A. 

      A. Ease of installation.

    • B. 

      B. Lower Cost.

    • C. 

      C. Safety.

    • D. 

      D. Mobility.


  • 44. 
    (207) The ability to move about without being tethered by wires in wireless technology is called
    • A. 

      A. mobility.

    • B. 

      B. ease of installations.

    • C. 

      C. war driving.

    • D. 

      D. motion capture technology.


  • 45. 
    (207) Which of the following is not one the four security threats to Wireless Local Area Network?
    • A. 

      A. Rogue Access Points.

    • B. 

      B. Direct Connections.

    • C. 

      C. War Drivers.

    • D. 

      D. Hackers.


  • 46. 
    (207) Who is an authorized client that may unknowingly or maliciously help outside parties gain access to a network?
    • A. 

      A. Auditor.

    • B. 

      B. Employee.

    • C. 

      C. War Driver.

    • D. 

      D. Hacker.


  • 47. 
    (207) What organization developed several wireless standards to meet the demands of security, speed, and flexibility of today’s wireless networks?
    • A. 

      A. Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers.

    • B. 

      B. International Organization for Standardization.

    • C. 

      C. Internet assigned numbers authority.

    • D. 

      D. National Science Foundation network.


  • 48. 
    (208) How many peripherals can a Universal Serial Bus handle at once?
    • A. 

      A. 127.

    • B. 

      B. 128.

    • C. 

      C. 227.

    • D. 

      D. 228.


  • 49. 
    (208) How many devices can connect to a FireWire bus?
    • A. 

      A. 63.

    • B. 

      B. 64.

    • C. 

      C. 65.

    • D. 

      D. 66.


  • 50. 
    (209) What do you apply across Liquid Crystal Display material to change the alignment and light polarizing property?
    • A. 

      A. Current.

    • B. 

      B. Voltage.

    • C. 

      C. Resistance.

    • D. 

      D. Inductance.


  • 51. 
    (210) What is a Data Link layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?
    • A. 

      A. Hub.

    • B. 

      B. Bridge.

    • C. 

      C. Switch.

    • D. 

      D. Router.


  • 52. 
    (210) What rule establishes the percent of data that should be local to a segment and the percentage of data that should be destined to traverse a bridge to the other segment?
    • A. 

      A. 90/10 rule.

    • B. 

      B. 80/20 rule.

    • C. 

      C. 70/30 rule.

    • D. 

      D. 60/40 rule.


  • 53. 
    (210) This type of bridge is used to convert one Data Link layer protocol to another.
    • A. 

      A. Cross route.

    • B. 

      B. Transparent.

    • C. 

      C. Translational.

    • D. 

      D. Source route.


  • 54. 
    (211) What is the method called when the entire frame is received and placed into the buffer, an error check is performed, and the frame is sent to the proper port for delivery?
    • A. 

      A. Store-and-forward.

    • B. 

      B. Cross-over.

    • C. 

      C. Fragment-free.

    • D. 

      D. Adaptive.


  • 55. 
    (211) What forwarding method is also known as runtless switching?
    • A. 

      A. Store-and-forward.

    • B. 

      B. Cut-through.

    • C. 

      C. Fragment-free.

    • D. 

      D. Adaptive.


  • 56. 
    (212) What layer of the open system interconnection model do routers operate?
    • A. 

      A. Layer 2.

    • B. 

      B. Layer 3.

    • C. 

      C. Layer 4.

    • D. 

      D. Layer 5.


  • 57. 
    (212) What do routing algorithms initialize and maintain to aid the process of path determination?
    • A. 

      A. Routing times.

    • B. 

      B. Routing tables.

    • C. 

      C. Longest routes.

    • D. 

      D. shortest routes.


  • 58. 
    (212) Which of these is an example of an Exterior Gateway Protocol?
    • A. 

      A. Open Shortest Path First.

    • B. 

      B. Border Gateway Protocol.

    • C. 

      C. Routing Information Protocol.

    • D. 

      D. Enhanced Gateway Routing Protocol.


  • 59. 
    (212) Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?
    • A. 

      A. 2.

    • B. 

      B. 3.

    • C. 

      C. 4.

    • D. 

      D. 5.


  • 60. 
    (213) What encryption device may you rarely see due to its lower maximum data rate?
    • A. 

      A. TSEC/KIV–7.

    • B. 

      B. TSEC/KIV–19.

    • C. 

      C. TSEC/KG–84.

    • D. 

      D. TSEC/KG–194.


  • 61. 
    (213) What encryption device is certified to secure all classification levels and categories and is able to encrypt trunk-level high-speed circuits?
    • A. 

      A. TSEC/KIV–7.

    • B. 

      B. TSEC/KIV–7HS.

    • C. 

      C. TSEC/KIV–7HSA.

    • D. 

      D. TSEC/KIV–19.


  • 62. 
    (213) What encryption device is capable of loading up to 500 keys?
    • A. 

      A. AN/CYZ–10 /DTD.

    • B. 

      B. AN/CYZ–20 /DTD.

    • C. 

      C. Secure DTD1000 System.

    • D. 

      D. Secure DTD2000 System.


  • 63. 
    (213) The classification of a fill device is
    • A. 

      A. classified when taken out of a safe.

    • B. 

      B. classified as SECRET when the key has been unloaded.

    • C. 

      C. unclassified when put back in the safe after a key has been loaded into it.

    • D. 

      D. classified as soon as a key is loaded, and holds the classification of the loaded key.


  • 64. 
    (214) A modem is a device that modulates
    • A. 

      A. analog data onto an analog carrier for transmission over an analog medium.

    • B. 

      B. analog data onto a digital carrier for transmission over a digital medium.

    • C. 

      C. digital data onto an analog carrier for transmission over an analog medium.

    • D. 

      D. digital data onto a digital carrier for transmission over an analog medium.


  • 65. 
    (214) Analog modems are used over the voice band range of
    • A. 

      A. 10 Hz to 20 MHz.

    • B. 

      B. 20 Hz to 20 kHz.

    • C. 

      C. 30 Hz to 40 MHz.

    • D. 

      D. 40 Hz to 40 kHz.


  • 66. 
    (214) The main function of the Data Service Unit is to
    • A. 

      A. provide buffering and data flow control.

    • B. 

      B. manage timing errors and signal regeneration.

    • C. 

      C. provide the proper electrical termination for the transmission line.

    • D. 

      D. adapt the digital data stream produced by the customer equipment to the signaling standards of the telephone carrier equipment.


  • 67. 
    (215) Software is generally divided into
    • A. 

      A. systems software and applications software.

    • B. 

      B. operating systems software and systems software.

    • C. 

      C. operating systems software and applications software.

    • D. 

      D. systems software, operating systems software, and applications software.


  • 68. 
    (215) Which one is not a category of the operating system’s task categories?
    • A. 

      A. User interface.

    • B. 

      B. Memory management.

    • C. 

      C. Troubleshoot interface.

    • D. 

      D. Processor management.


  • 69. 
    (215) The path between the operating system and virtually all hardware not on the computer’s motherboard goes through a special program called a
    • A. 

      A. director.

    • B. 

      B. deliver.

    • C. 

      C. driver.

    • D. 

      D. sender.


  • 70. 
    (215) The core operating-system function is the management of the computer system which resides with the
    • A. 

      A. shell.

    • B. 

      B. kernel.

    • C. 

      C. device manager.

    • D. 

      D. processor manager.


  • 71. 
    (215) Applications are software programs designed to perform what type of tasks?
    • A. 

      A. specific.

    • B. 

      B. general.

    • C. 

      C. special.

    • D. 

      D. broad.


  • 72. 
    (215) What are two anti-virus programs that the Air Force uses?
    • A. 

      A. Norton and Horton.

    • B. 

      B. Horton and McAfee.

    • C. 

      C. Norton and McAfee.

    • D. 

      D. McAfee and Lotus Pro.


  • 73. 
    (216) Windows operating systems traditionally function in one of two network models. Which model does not operate using centralized user accounts?
    • A. 

      A. Workgroup.

    • B. 

      B. Domain.

    • C. 

      C. Active Directory.

    • D. 

      D. User Group.


  • 74. 
    (216) Which system provides support for features such as Windows System Resource Manager and Metadirectory Services?
    • A. 

      A. AERO.

    • B. 

      B. Enterprise Edition.

    • C. 

      C. Standard Edition.

    • D. 

      D. Datacenter Edition.


  • 75. 
    (216) One of the Windows Server Editions operating systems provides support for high-end, high traffic applications servers. Which Operating system is it?
    • A. 

      A. Web Edition.

    • B. 

      B. Datacenter Edition.

    • C. 

      C. NT.

    • D. 

      D. AERO.


  • 76. 
    (217) What was the first disk operating system developed to operate on a wide range of computer systems?
    • A. 

      A. C-Plus.

    • B. 

      B. UNIX.

    • C. 

      C. Fortran.

    • D. 

      D. Windows.


  • 77. 
    (217) What is the name of the standard all-purpose shell most commonly used?
    • A. 

      A. Restricted shell.

    • B. 

      B. Bourne shell.

    • C. 

      C. Korn shell.

    • D. 

      D. C shell.


  • 78. 
    (217) What directory is always identified by the slash symbol (/) and is in the “a” partition?
    • A. 

      A. root.

    • B. 

      B. user.

    • C. 

      C. binary.

    • D. 

      D. device.


  • 79. 
    (217) Which pathnames begin at the current working directory?
    • A. 

      A. Absolute.

    • B. 

      B. Relative.

    • C. 

      C. Complex.

    • D. 

      D. Simple.


  • 80. 
    (218) This component of the Global Information Grid consists of those items that are necessary to directly connect the warfighter to the global network
    • A. 

      A. Global applications.

    • B. 

      B. Warrior component.

    • C. 

      C. Network operations.

    • D. 

      D. Information management.


  • 81. 
    (218) This characteristic of the Global Information Grid ensures seamless transmission of information between different service branches
    • A. 

      A. Joint architecture.

    • B. 

      B. Unity of command.

    • C. 

      C. Information services.

    • D. 

      D. Common policy and standards.


  • 82. 
    (219) Who bears the responsibility for maintenance of the sustaining base portion of the Defense Information System Network?
    • A. 

      A. The service that owns the installation.

    • B. 

      B. Defense Information System Agency.

    • C. 

      C. Infrastructure technicians.

    • D. 

      D. Deployed warfighters.


  • 83. 
    (219) Who bears the responsibility for maintenance of the sustaining base portion of the Defense Information System Network?
    • A. 

      A. The service that owns the installation.

    • B. 

      B. Defense Information System Agency.

    • C. 

      C. Infrastructure technicians.

    • D. 

      D. Deployed warfighters.


  • 84. 
    (219) Which segment of the Defense Information System Network (DISN) may be a person in the deployed Area of Responsibility or a person sitting in a fixed location thousands of miles from combat?
    • A. 

      A. Long-haul transport infrastructure.

    • B. 

      B. Deployed warfighter.

    • C. 

      C. Theater Battle Management Core System terminal.

    • D. 

      D. Sustaining base.


  • 85. 
    (220) What is the difference between a hub router and a premise router?
    • A. 

      A. Operated and managed as a base communications asset.

    • B. 

      B. Considered one of the primary components of the Defense Information Systems Network.

    • C. 

      C. Interconnected via the Defense Information Systems Agency Asynchronous Transfer Mode network.

    • D. 

      D. Completely protected by encryption devices.


  • 86. 
    (221) How are non-internet protocols sent across the Secret Internet Protocol Router Network?
    • A. 

      A. Protocols cannot be sent across the SIPRNET.

    • B. 

      B. Transmitted from sender to user unchanged.

    • C. 

      C. Encapsulated by the internet protocol before being transmitted across the SIPRNET.

    • D. 

      D. Encrypted by a TACLANE before being transmitted across the SIPRNET.


  • 87. 
    (221) Which is an internet protocol encryption device that can be directly connected to Red local area networks?
    • A. 

      A. KG–84.

    • B. 

      B. KG–194.

    • C. 

      C. KIV–7.

    • D. 

      D. KG175.


  • 88. 
    (222) What provides conduit for Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communication System data transmission from one location to another?
    • A. 

      A. DISN backbone.

    • B. 

      B. JDISS terminal.

    • C. 

      C. SIPRNET.

    • D. 

      D. NIPRNET.


  • 89. 
    (223) What concerns slowed the military’s adoption of wireless network technology?
    • A. 

      A. Speed and reliability.

    • B. 

      B. Security and reliability.

    • C. 

      C. Reliability and maintenance.

    • D. 

      D. Certification and interoperability.


  • 90. 
    (223) What is the first step in merging voice, data and video networks into one integrated network within the Air Force?
    • A. 

      A. Adding more traditional time division multiplexing voice switches to handle additional data traffic.

    • B. 

      B. Integrating traditional TDM switches with voice over IP systems.

    • C. 

      C. Complete replacement of TDM switches with VoIP technology.

    • D. 

      D. Managing TDM switches in the same way we manage data networks.


  • 91. 
    (223) Besides limiting connections to the Global Information Grid, what other Combat Information Transport Systems initiative will help increase network security?
    • A. 

      A. Establishing a Network Operation and Security Center at each base.

    • B. 

      B. Creating a security baseline across all MAJCOM areas of responsibility.

    • C. 

      C. Fielding standardized tools to all of the MAJCOM Network Operating Security Centers to establish a baseline security model.

    • D. 

      D. Eliminating the MAJCOM NOSC concept and integrating the functions into two Integrated NOSCs.


  • 92. 
    (224) Which organization is responsible for the design, acquisition, and single systems management of the Defense Switched Network?
    • A. 

      A. Defense Logistics Agency.

    • B. 

      B. Communications Squadron.

    • C. 

      C. Air Force Communications Agency.

    • D. 

      D. Defense Information Systems Agency.


  • 93. 
    (224) How is responsiveness provided in the Defense Switched Network?
    • A. 

      A. End offices are multiple-homed.

    • B. 

      B. End offices do not interoperate with allied networks.

    • C. 

      C. The DSN offers precedence access thresholding.

    • D. 

      D. The DSN offers single level precedence and preemption.


  • 94. 
    (224) What type of Defense Switched Network precedence call cannot be preempted?
    • A. 

      A. Flash.

    • B. 

      B. Priority.

    • C. 

      C. Intermediate.

    • D. 

      D. Flash Override.


  • 95. 
    (225) What is the maximum asynchronous data rate for the Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN)?
    • A. 

      A. 9.6 Kbps.

    • B. 

      B. 14.4 Kbps.

    • C. 

      C. 19.2 Kbps.

    • D. 

      D. 28.8 Kbps.


  • 96. 
    (225) While you are using the Red Switch, what feature lets you know that you have dialed the correct number at the proper level of security?
    • A. 

      A. Recorded voice message.

    • B. 

      B. Punched computer cards.

    • C. 

      C. Liquid crystal display.

    • D. 

      D. Punched paper tape.


  • 97. 
    (226) What is the purpose of the standardized tactical entry point terminal?
    • A. 

      A. To provide a foxhole to National Command Authority link for commanders.

    • B. 

      B. To lessen the amount of traffic transmitted through the gateway terminals.

    • C. 

      C. To provide one-way communication access for deployed locations.

    • D. 

      D. To replace the old tactical satellite communications system.


  • 98. 
    (227) The Global Positioning System program is responsible for maintaining GPS time to within how many seconds of universal time code?
    • A. 

      A. 2 microseconds.

    • B. 

      B. 2 seconds.

    • C. 

      C. 1 microsecond.

    • D. 

      D. 1 second.


  • 99. 
    (228) Which security program is covered under AFI 10–701?
    • A. 

      A. OPSEC.

    • B. 

      B. EMSEC.

    • C. 

      C. COMSEC.

    • D. 

      D. COMPUSEC.


  • 100. 
    (228) Which of the following security programs is defined as a process of identifying critical information and subsequently analyzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and other activities?
    • A. 

      A. OPSEC.

    • B. 

      B. EMSEC.

    • C. 

      C. COMSEC.

    • D. 

      D. COMPUSEC.


  • 101. 
    (229) Providing a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the DOD best describes which mandatory item of a Privacy Act Statement?
    • A. 

      A. Purpose.

    • B. 

      B. Authority.

    • C. 

      C. Disclosure.

    • D. 

      D. Routine use.


  • 102. 
    (229) What form is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material?
    • A. 

      A. AF Form 2327.

    • B. 

      B. AF Form 3217.

    • C. 

      C. AF Form 3227.

    • D. 

      D. AF Form 3327.


  • 103. 
    (229) Guidance for posting information on Air Force web sites is outlined in
    • A. 

      A. AFI 33–119.

    • B. 

      B. AFI 33–129.

    • C. 

      C. AFI 33–219.

    • D. 

      D. AFI 33–329.


  • 104. 
    (229) Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified information can be found in
    • A. 

      A. AFI 31–301.

    • B. 

      B. AFI 31–401.

    • C. 

      C. AFI 31–501.

    • D. 

      D. AFI 31–601.


  • 105. 
    (229) Disclosure of information that would result in the loss, misuse, modification or unauthorized access that might adversely affect national security would best be described as
    • A. 

      A. secret.

    • B. 

      B. confidential.

    • C. 

      C. for official use only.

    • D. 

      D. sensitive but unclassified.


  • 106. 
    (230) What is the COMSEC program designed to do?
    • A. 

      A. Relocate classified material to strengthen security.

    • B. 

      B. Conduct assessments to evaluate compromise of national security.

    • C. 

      C. Deflect unauthorized interception and analysis of compromising emanations.

    • D. 

      D. Detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information.


  • 107. 
    (230) What reference would you use for guidance on Air Force messaging?
    • A. 

      A. AFI 33–119.

    • B. 

      B. AFI 33–129.

    • C. 

      C. AFI 33–219.

    • D. 

      D. AFI 33–329.


  • 108. 
    (230) Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package?
    • A. 

      A. SF 135.

    • B. 

      B. SF 153.

    • C. 

      C. SF 351.

    • D. 

      D. SF 531.


  • 109. 
    (230) Which form is used as a visitor register log to record visitors into restricted areas?
    • A. 

      A. AF Form 1019.

    • B. 

      B. AF Form 1109.

    • C. 

      C. AF Form 1119.

    • D. 

      D. AF Form 1190.


  • 110. 
    (231) An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurrence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information is best described as a COMSEC
    • A. 

      A. insecurity.

    • B. 

      B. deviation.

    • C. 

      C. incident.

    • D. 

      D. report.


  • 111. 
    (231) Which organization assigns communication security incident report case numbers?
    • A. 

      A. Air Force Communications Agency.

    • B. 

      B. Air Force Office of Record.

    • C. 

      C. Central Office of Records.

    • D. 

      D. National Security Agency.


  • 112. 
    (231) Final reports of a communication security incident are due
    • A. 

      A. 10 days after the initial report is dated.

    • B. 

      B. 20 days after the initial report is signed.

    • C. 

      C. 30 days after the initial report is issued.

    • D. 

      D. 40 days after the initial report is approved.


  • 113. 
    (232) The Air Force Information Assurance Program is detailed in
    • A. 

      A. AFI 33–100.

    • B. 

      B. AFI 33–200.

    • C. 

      C. AFI 33–300.

    • D. 

      D. AFI 33–400.


  • 114. 
    (232) Which applied discipline applies measures and controls to protect data in computer systems against unauthorized, disclosure, modification, or destruction?
    • A. 

      A. OPSEC.

    • B. 

      B. EMSEC.

    • C. 

      C. COMSEC.

    • D. 

      D. COMPUSEC.


  • 115. 
    (233) What best describes an unintended signals or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment?
    • A. 

      A. Emulation.

    • B. 

      B. Emanation.

    • C. 

      C. Signature.

    • D. 

      D. Salutation.


  • 116. 
    (233) An unclassified term referring to technical investigations for compromising emanations from electrically operated data processing equipment is known as
    • A. 

      A. Emission security.

    • B. 

      B. Communication security.

    • C. 

      C. Telecommunications Electronic Material Protected from Emanating Spurious Transmissions.

    • D. 

      D. Computer security.


  • 117. 
    (234) Which condition exists when there is no apparent terrorist activity against computer networks?
    • A. 

      A. INFOCON 2.

    • B. 

      B. INFOCON 3.

    • C. 

      C. INFOCON 4.

    • D. 

      D. INFOCON 5.


  • 118. 
    (234) Which condition requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all network system activities when an increased risk of attack is present?
    • A. 

      A. INFOCON 2.

    • B. 

      B. INFOCON 3.

    • C. 

      C. INFOCON 4.

    • D. 

      D. INFOCON 5.


  • 119. 
    (234) When a risk of a network system attack has been identified, which condition requires all unclassified dial-up connections be disconnected?
    • A. 

      A. INFOCON 2.

    • B. 

      B. INFOCON 3.

    • C. 

      C. INFOCON 4.

    • D. 

      D. INFOCON 5.


  • 120. 
    (234) Which condition permits non-essential networks to be taken offline and substituted with alternate methods of communication?
    • A. 

      A. INFOCON 2.

    • B. 

      B. INFOCON 3.

    • C. 

      C. INFOCON 4.

    • D. 

      D. INFOCON 5.


  • 121. 
    (235) At which NETOPS level is responsibility for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure globally managed?
    • A. 

      A. Tier 1.

    • B. 

      B. Tier 2.

    • C. 

      C. Tier 3.

    • D. 

      D. Tier 4.


  • 122. 
    (235) At what level do regional operation centers perform Network Operations (NETOPS) to ensure operational and administrative control by implementing Systems and Network Management Information Assurance/Network Defense (IA/NetD), and Information Dissemination Management?
    • A. 

      A. Tier 1.

    • B. 

      B. Tier 2.

    • C. 

      C. Tier 3.

    • D. 

      D. Tier 4.


  • 123. 
    (235) An accreditation decision which allows a system to operate in an environment for which it was originally intended is known as
    • A. 

      A. a full accreditation.

    • B. 

      B. a type accreditation.

    • C. 

      C. a major accreditation.

    • D. 

      D. an interim accreditation.


  • 124. 
    (236) Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a significant degree of deterrence against hostile acts?
    • A. 

      A. “A”.

    • B. 

      B. “B”.

    • C. 

      C. “C”.

    • D. 

      D. “D”.


  • 125. 
    (236) Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts?
    • A. 

      A. “A”.

    • B. 

      B. “B”.

    • C. 

      C. “C”.

    • D. 

      D. “D”.


  • 126. 
    (236) Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing “confidential” information?
    • A. 

      A. SF 706.

    • B. 

      B. SF 707.

    • C. 

      C. SF 708.

    • D. 

      D. SF 710.


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