2t2 CDC Vol 1 Edit 3

100 Questions  I  By Bananagrenade
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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

  
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  • 1. 
    If you are performing duties in afsc 2t251, which title describes you best
    • A. 

      Air transportation apprentice

    • B. 

      Air transportation journeyman

    • C. 

      Traffic management apprentice

    • D. 

      Traffic management journeyman


  • 2. 
    If you are performing anti hijack inspections, which function are you performing
    • A. 

      Air freight

    • B. 

      Fleet service

    • C. 

      Ramp operations

    • D. 

      Passenger service


  • 3. 
    If you are coordinating with other work centers to ensure the loading process runs smoothly and on time, which function are you performing
    • A. 

      Fleet service

    • B. 

      Ramp operations

    • C. 

      Passenger service

    • D. 

      Air terminal operations center


  • 4. 
    If you are part of the traffic management specialty in the transportation career field, which duties would you perform
    • A. 

      Ensuring maximum utilization and providing oversight to all other work centers

    • B. 

      Packaging, classifying, and arranging personal property for shipment or storage

    • C. 

      Managing the inspection and repair of the vehicle and equipment fleet

    • D. 

      Organizing vehicle transportation to support operational mission


  • 5. 
    Which specialty does NOT fall under the transportation and vehicle management career field
    • A. 

      Air transportation

    • B. 

      Air traffic control

    • C. 

      Vehicle operations

    • D. 

      Traffic management


  • 6. 
    Which term refers to the movement of personnel, units, supplies, and equipment from deployed positions within or between areas of responsibility
    • A. 

      Deployment

    • B. 

      Sustainment

    • C. 

      Employment

    • D. 

      Redeployment


  • 7. 
    Which command provides common user and commercial air, land, and sea transportion
    • A. 

      Air mobility command (AMC)

    • B. 

      Military sealift command (MSC)

    • C. 

      Us transportation command (USTRANSCOM)

    • D. 

      Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC)


  • 8. 
    Which command is the link between DOD shippers and the commercial transportation carrier industry
    • A. 

      Air Mobility Command (AMC)

    • B. 

      MIlitary Sealift Command (MSC)

    • C. 

      US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)

    • D. 

      Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC)


  • 9. 
    Which command is the US Transportation Commands single component command for air mobility and provides airlift, air refueling, special air mission, and aeromedical evacuation services
    • A. 

      AMC

    • B. 

      Mobility airlift command (MAC)

    • C. 

      Air Transportation Mobility Command (ATMC)

    • D. 

      Air Deployment and Mobility Command (ADMC)


  • 10. 
    Which agency serves as air mobility commands strategic air operations hub and plans, directs, schedules and tracks aircraft operations worldwide? 
    • A. 

      Wing operations center (woc)

    • B. 

      Wing airlift control center (wacc)

    • C. 

      Tanker airlift control center (tacc)

    • D. 

      Aerial port operations center (apoc)


  • 11. 
    Through which system does the airforce provide rapid global mobility to the defense transportation system (dts)
    • A. 

      Sustainment mobility system (sms)

    • B. 

      National air mobility system (nams)

    • C. 

      Mobility traffic management system (mtms)

    • D. 

      Global deployment and mobility system (gdms)


  • 12. 
    Which is a station that serves as an authorized port to process and clear aircraft and traffic for entrance into the country in which it is located ?
    • A. 

      Aerial port of inspection

    • B. 

      Aerial port of mobility

    • C. 

      Aerial port of debarkation

    • D. 

      Aerial port of embarkation


  • 13. 
    The coordinated use, synchronization, and sharing of two or more military departments logistics forces is called
    • A. 

      Joint forces

    • B. 

      Joint mission

    • C. 

      Joint logistics

    • D. 

      Joint command


  • 14. 
    Which type of organization is created to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and is dissolved when no longer needed? 
    • A. 

      Unified force

    • B. 

      Joint task force

    • C. 

      Specifiedforce

    • D. 

      Lead nation force


  • 15. 
    How many pallets can the c17 hold in its aerial delivery system and its logistics rail system respectively
    • A. 

      9 and 18

    • B. 

      11 and 18

    • C. 

      18 and 9

    • D. 

      18 and 11


  • 16. 
    Which aircraft can hold up to six pallets and is capable of landing on dirt strips
    • A. 

      C5

    • B. 

      C17

    • C. 

      C130

    • D. 

      Kc135


  • 17. 
    Which pallet position on a c130h requite safety aisles
    • A. 

      3 4 and 6 only

    • B. 

      4 5 and 8 only

    • C. 

      3 and 4 only

    • D. 

      4 and 5 only


  • 18. 
    Which pallet does a c130j require safety aisles
    • A. 

      3 4 and 6 only

    • B. 

      4 5 and 8 only

    • C. 

      3 4 only

    • D. 

      4 5 only


  • 19. 
    A single pallet loaded in pallet position 5 on a c130h can be a maximum of how many pounds? 
    • A. 

      4664

    • B. 

      5000

    • C. 

      7500

    • D. 

      8500


  • 20. 
    What is the civil reserve air fleet designed to do
    • A. 

      Enable dod to bypass federal aviation admin. rules during a president declared emergency

    • B. 

      Augment dod airlift capability in times of war or during declared emergencies

    • C. 

      Reduce the cost of air transportation for personnel in TDY status

    • D. 

      Support commercial carriers during times of economic crisis


  • 21. 
    Which stage of civil reserve fleet activation supports major regional conflicts or a major theater war
    • A. 

      Stage 1 commited expansion

    • B. 

      Stage 2 defense airlift emergency

    • C. 

      Stage 3 national emergency

    • D. 

      Stage 4 global expansion


  • 22. 
    If you are wearing eyeglasses and bulky uniform items with cord and strings, what must you do before working around moving parts and machinery
    • A. 

      Secure them to minimize the hazard

    • B. 

      Take them off to eliminate the hazard

    • C. 

      Report them to make your supervisor aware of the hazard

    • D. 

      Wear your PPE to reduce the hazard


  • 23. 
    If you accidentally damage the halvorsen loader by running into the concrete  barrier on your way to load an aircraft, to whom should you report the damage and when
    • A. 

      Your supervisor immediately

    • B. 

      Your supervisor at the end of your shift

    • C. 

      Your supervisor after you finish loading the aircraft

    • D. 

      The aircraft loadmaster immediately upon your arrival at the aircraft


  • 24. 
    If you are driving a special purpose vehicle within 25 feet of an aircraft, what is the maximum miles per hour you can drive
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      15

    • D. 

      20


  • 25. 
    If you are driving on the flightline, when is it authorized to come between a taxiing aircraft and its follow me guide
    • A. 

      Never

    • B. 

      Anytime, as long as there is room

    • C. 

      Only with proper permission from the tower

    • D. 

      Only with proper permission from ATOC


  • 26. 
    If you need to leave your vehicly unattended on the flightline, other than leaving the keys in the ignition with vehicle unlocked, what other actions are required
    • A. 

      Turn of the ignition, place it in reverse or park, set the parking brake and chock the front and back of the rear wheel

    • B. 

      Turn off the ignition, place it in neutral with the parking brake set, and chock the front and back of both rear wheels

    • C. 

      Leave the vehicle running, place it in neutral with the parking brake set, and chock one front and one rear wheel

    • D. 

      Leave the vehicle running, place it in reverse or park and chock the front and back of one front wheel


  • 27. 
    If you are stopped on the flight line at night and your headlights are on, what should you do if an aircraft is taxiing towards your area
    • A. 

      Get out of the way

    • B. 

      Turn your vehicle around and face the opposite directions

    • C. 

      Turn your headlights off and your emergency flashers on instead

    • D. 

      Maintain a minimum distance of at least 25 feet in all directions of the aircraft.


  • 28. 
    If you are crossing the active runway and see a flashing white light signal, what action should you take
    • A. 

      Clear runwya

    • B. 

      Return to starting point

    • C. 

      Stop! your vehicle will not be moved

    • D. 

      General warning, exercise extreme caution


  • 29. 
    If you are crossing the active runway and see a flashing red light signal, what action should you take
    • A. 

      Clear the active runway

    • B. 

      Return to starting point

    • C. 

      Stop, your vehicle will not be moved

    • D. 

      General warning, exercise extreme caution


  • 30. 
    If you are crossing the active runway and see a steady red light signal, what action should you take
    • A. 

      Clear the active runway

    • B. 

      Return to the starting point

    • C. 

      Stop your vehicle will not be moved

    • D. 

      General warning, exercise extreme caution.


  • 31. 
    If you are crossing the active runway and see a red and green light signal, what action should you take
    • A. 

      Clear active runway

    • B. 

      Return to starting point

    • C. 

      Stop you will not move

    • D. 

      General warning, exercise extreme caution


  • 32. 
    When planning and scheduling work assignments and priorities, what must youdo when you discover a piece of equipment is out of commission and it will affect your ability to perform the mission
    • A. 

      Find out what is wrong, when it shall be fixed, and notify chain of command

    • B. 

      Annotate teh discrepancy on the shift log and verify when the equipment will be fixed

    • C. 

      Check your email and phone messages to see if it was fixed ahead of the schedule

    • D. 

      Annotate the discrepancy in the shift log and verify the date it was turned in


  • 33. 
    When assigning personnel to work crews, which of the following is not a consideration
    • A. 

      Knowing your people and the work centers current and future needs

    • B. 

      Communicating your expectations to work crews

    • C. 

      Assigning them to the same duties every day

    • D. 

      Considering their safety and security


  • 34. 
    Once you have assigned people to various work crews, you must ensure that they
    • A. 

      Do not take too much time on any task

    • B. 

      Report to you every 30 minutes on progress

    • C. 

      Know exactly who is filling which role and what you expect from each member

    • D. 

      Keep a running log of their activities so they can report back to you every detail


  • 35. 
    Your supervisor referred you to the DTR to look up information about joint inspection procedures, after locating the DTR through the AF portal, in which part of the DTR do you look
    • A. 

      Part 1

    • B. 

      Part 2

    • C. 

      Part 3

    • D. 

      Part 4


  • 36. 
    You are working in the passenger terminal helping a customer determine if he and his family are eligible to fly space available on a DOD aircraft, in which publication would you look
    • A. 

      Dod 4515.13-R air trans eligibility

    • B. 

      DOD 4500.54-M foreign clearance guide

    • C. 

      Air mobility command instruction 24-101

    • D. 

      DTR 4500.9R defense transportation regulation


  • 37. 
    You are searching for the publication titled preparing hazardous materials for military air shipment and are at the  menu of AF publications where they are functionally grouped, now you select the 
    • A. 

      11 series publications link and locate af manual

    • B. 

      24 series and select af manual

    • C. 

      11 series publication and AF instruction

    • D. 

      24 series and locate af instruction


  • 38. 
    A coworker wants help determinintg if tow pieces of haz. cargo are compatible with each other. in which publication would you look? 
    • A. 

      Af instruction 24-101

    • B. 

      Air force manual 24-204(I)

    • C. 

      Air mobility command instruction 24-101

    • D. 

      Air mobility command pamphlet 24-204


  • 39. 
    You want to find out if the 36m2-3-45 technical order is still current, in which TO would you look
    • A. 

      General TO

    • B. 

      Air force TO catalog

    • C. 

      Methods and procedures TO

    • D. 

      Operations and maintenance TO


  • 40. 
    You are loading tanks on a c17 aircraft and want to find specific laoding procedures for these items. which section of teh 1c-17a-9 TO would you refer to first? 
    • A. 

      Section 2

    • B. 

      Section 4

    • C. 

      Section 5

    • D. 

      Section 6


  • 41. 
    In the aircraft-9 series TO, the loading procedures in which section have precedence over instruction in section 4
    • A. 

      Section 2

    • B. 

      Section 3

    • C. 

      Section 5

    • D. 

      Section 6


  • 42. 
    Which volume of the usaf war and mobilization plan provides the basis for planning and pre-positioning of war reserve material
    • A. 

      Wmp 1

    • B. 

      Wmp 3

    • C. 

      Wmp 4

    • D. 

      Wmp 5


  • 43. 
    JOPES is both a process and a collection of automated computer systems used to develop
    • A. 

      Joint planning and execution community regulations and deployment work centers

    • B. 

      Joint inspection standards and global air mobility support system tasking

    • C. 

      Operational plans and time phased force and deployment data

    • D. 

      Installation deployment officers and air expeditionary force tempo bands


  • 44. 
    Which important part of the  TPFDD is identified by a five digit alphanumeric code and is simply a capability? 
    • A. 

      Unit type code

    • B. 

      Document identifier

    • C. 

      Transportation account code

    • D. 

      Transportation control number


  • 45. 
    War reserve material is equipment and other resources authorized for wartime to maximize war fighting capabiliy, that are positioned as
    • A. 

      Daily operating stock and starter stock or a combo of both

    • B. 

      Daily operating stock and swing stock of a combo of both

    • C. 

      Swing stock and starter stock or a combo of both

    • D. 

      Daily operating stock only


  • 46. 
    The benefit of pre positioning war reserve material is to 
    • A. 

      Reduce the amount of time resources and effort it takes to transport equipment to the necessary locations during combat ops

    • B. 

      Provide staging bases an opportunity to freely use their WRM stocks for authorized indirect support

    • C. 

      Allow the installation deployment officer to use it for installation deployment training

    • D. 

      Facilitate installation to installation rotation to integrate into their daily operating stocks


  • 47. 
    Which 463l pallets and nets are designated as WRM
    • A. 

      Only 463l pallets and nets that are AMC units

    • B. 

      Only ones required for the movement of other WRM assets

    • C. 

      All servicable 463l pallets and nets in inventory

    • D. 

      No 463l pallets and nets are designated as WRM


  • 48. 
    If you are tasked to manifest, transport and load passengers, to which deployment work center would you be assigned
    • A. 

      Deployment control center

    • B. 

      Cargo deployment function

    • C. 

      Personnel deployment function

    • D. 

      Arrival departure airfield control group


  • 49. 
    If many passengers are departing form their own home station or the installation is designated as an aggregation aerial port of emabarkation, the personnel deployment function can establish what to manifest, transport and load passengers
    • A. 

      Air passenger terminal

    • B. 

      Installation passenger readiness cell

    • C. 

      Passenger deployment control center

    • D. 

      Arrival/departure passenger control group


  • 50. 
    If you, as a cargo deployment function representative have directed the deploying unit to move from the marshalling area, to which area will they move
    • A. 

      Call forward area

    • B. 

      Alert holding area

    • C. 

      Frustrated cargo area

    • D. 

      Ready line/loading ramp area


  • 51. 
    If you as a CDF rep, have directed the deploying unit to move from the alert holding area, to which area will they move/ 
    • A. 

      Marshalling area

    • B. 

      Call forward area

    • C. 

      Frustrated cargo area

    • D. 

      Ready line/loading ramp area


  • 52. 
    If you are performing a joint inspection in the cargo deployment function, in which area of activity are you working?
    • A. 

      Marshalling area

    • B. 

      Call forward area

    • C. 

      Alert holding area

    • D. 

      Ready line/loading ramp area


  • 53. 
    During a joint inspection, the the deploying unit cannot corrct descrepancies with their cargo right away, to what area will you send the cargo until it is corrected
    • A. 

      Marshalling area

    • B. 

      Alert holding area

    • C. 

      Frustrated cargo area

    • D. 

      Ready line/loading ramp area


  • 54. 
    If you are directing aircraft loading and supervising load team members in the cargo deployment funtion, in which area of activity are you working
    • A. 

      Marshalling area

    • B. 

      Call forward area

    • C. 

      Alert holding area

    • D. 

      Ready line/loading ramp area


  • 55. 
    If the deploying unit can no longer make changes to the cargo, in which CDF area of activity is it located
    • A. 

      Marshalling area

    • B. 

      Call forward area

    • C. 

      Alert holding area

    • D. 

      Ready line/loading ramp area


  • 56. 
    After a joint inspection is complete, copies of the DD form 2133, joint airlift inspection record, are distributed to all of the following except the 
    • A. 

      Deploying unit rep

    • B. 

      Mobility force inspector for inclusion in the station file

    • C. 

      Installation deployment officer for review and approval

    • D. 

      Aircraft loadmaster with the cargo manifest and other documentation


  • 57. 
    Before a deploying unit can claim their cargo is exempt form inspection due to sight sensitivity, they must first receive approval from
    • A. 

      Their group or higher level commander

    • B. 

      USTRANSCOM

    • C. 

      The service of major command having operational control fo the aircraft

    • D. 

      The airfield management commander or the highest ranking member of the aircrew


  • 58. 
    When completing the heading information on the dd form 2133, joint airlift inspection record, what information will you enter in block 6 "start time"
    • A. 

      The local time the JI started

    • B. 

      The local time the JI is scheduled to start

    • C. 

      GMT the JI started

    • D. 

      The GMT teh JI is scheduled


  • 59. 
    During a JI after the deploying unit rep corrects and item previously found to have discrepancies, you will identify that on the dd form 2133 by
    • A. 

      Erasing the x

    • B. 

      Circling the x

    • C. 

      Erasing the check mark

    • D. 

      Circling the check mark


  • 60. 
    Before a vehicle can be accepted for c17 airlift with 3/4 tank of fuel the unit must have
    • A. 

      Ch 3 authorization

    • B. 

      Attachment 3 authorization

    • C. 

      Unit commander authorization

    • D. 

      Installation deployment officer authorization


  • 61. 
    Before a vehicle can be accepted for airlift on a kc10 with 3/4 tank of fuel the unit must have
    • A. 

      Ch 3 authorization

    • B. 

      Attachment 3 authorization

    • C. 

      Headquarters amc authorizatino

    • D. 

      Vehicles on kc10 are never allowed 3/4 fuel


  • 62. 
    Before any department of transportation 5l jerricans can be accepted for airlift, they must be
    • A. 

      Drained of fuel

    • B. 

      Authorized under ch 3

    • C. 

      Palletized using belly bands

    • D. 

      Placed in performance oriented fiberboard boxes and strapped securely inside a vehicle


  • 63. 
    Before a vehiclewith an accompanying load can be accepted for airlift during a JI, its cargo must be restrained with a minimum of
    • A. 

      1/2" diameter rope

    • B. 

      1/2" diameter nylon rope

    • C. 

      1/2" bungee cords

    • D. 

      Straps of any size form a commercial source


  • 64. 
    During a JI, if a pallet is dirty and the dirt cannot be swept off, what must occur before the pallet can be accepted for lift
    • A. 

      Cdf personnel must steam clean or power wash it

    • B. 

      Deploying unit must wrap the pallet in a plastic cover and re palletize the cargo

    • C. 

      The deploying unit must call us customs to clean and power wash it

    • D. 

      Unit must steam clean and power wash it


  • 65. 
    During a JI, before a pallet can be accepted for airlift, what must you ensure in terms of dunnage requirements
    • A. 

      No dunnage requirements for pallets

    • B. 

      Three pieces of any size and made of the proper material accompanies each pallet

    • C. 

      Two pieces, each measuring 4"x4"x88" and made of the proper material, accompanies each pallet

    • D. 

      Three pieces, each 4x4x88 and made of the proper material, accompanies each pallet


  • 66. 
    After a JI is complete, who signs the DD form 2133, Joint airlift inspection record
    • A. 

      Deploying unit rep and the troop commander

    • B. 

      The troop commander and aircraft laodmaster/boom operator

    • C. 

      The deploying unit rep and qualified mobility force inspector

    • D. 

      The qualified mobility force inspector and the aircraft loadmaster/boom operator.


  • 67. 
    Which type fo airdrop requires no parachute
    • A. 

      Freedrop

    • B. 

      Extraction

    • C. 

      Low-velocity

    • D. 

      High-velocity


  • 68. 
    Which type of airdrop requires stabilization parachutes to hold the loads upright
    • A. 

      Freedrop

    • B. 

      Low-velocity

    • C. 

      High-velocity

    • D. 

      Gravity method


  • 69. 
    Which method of airdrop begins with a15 foot drogue parachute deploying and ends with the main cargo parachute deploying after the platform exits the aircraft
    • A. 

      Type v

    • B. 

      Gravity

    • C. 

      Door load

    • D. 

      Extraction


  • 70. 
    What is the capacity of the a-7a cargo sling when three straps are used
    • A. 

      200lbs

    • B. 

      300lbs

    • C. 

      400lbs

    • D. 

      500lbs


  • 71. 
    What is the capacity of the a22 cargo bag
    • A. 

      200lbs

    • B. 

      1200lbs

    • C. 

      2200lbs

    • D. 

      3200lbs


  • 72. 
    What is the maximum and minimum drop weights fo the type v airdrop platform
    • A. 

      32000 and 1500 lbs

    • B. 

      42000 and 2500 lbs

    • C. 

      52000 and 3500 lbs

    • D. 

      62000 and 4500 lbs


  • 73. 
    Each ring on the type v platform can restrain up to how many lbs
    • A. 

      5000

    • B. 

      7500

    • C. 

      10000

    • D. 

      25000


  • 74. 
    Which parachute will support between 501 and 2200 pound drop weight
    • A. 

      G-11b

    • B. 

      G-12e

    • C. 

      G-14

    • D. 

      Extraction


  • 75. 
    Which parachute has a drop capacity of 200-500 lbs
    • A. 

      G-11b

    • B. 

      G-12e

    • C. 

      G-14

    • D. 

      Extraction


  • 76. 
    Which parachute can produce a drag of up to 28000 lbs
    • A. 

      G-11b

    • B. 

      G-12e

    • C. 

      G-14

    • D. 

      Extraction


  • 77. 
    Which form will you use as a guide throughout the entire vehicle inspection process
    • A. 

      Af form 1800

    • B. 

      Af form 1474

    • C. 

      Af form 1823

    • D. 

      Af form 2028


  • 78. 
    The purpose of the before operation inspection is to ensure
    • A. 

      The vehicle control officer is adhering to regulation

    • B. 

      No one has driven the vehicle since you last inspected it

    • C. 

      The vehicle is safe and in commission before you operate it

    • D. 

      All damage and malfunctions are recorded before you inspect it


  • 79. 
    Which information are you required to put in the designated shift signature block of the af form 1800 operators inspection guide and trouble report once you complete the inspection
    • A. 

      Full name only

    • B. 

      Last name only

    • C. 

      Laundry mark only

    • D. 

      Last name and rank only


  • 80. 
    Which forklift is handy when working in tight places because its short wheelbase allows you to make tight turns
    • A. 

      4k

    • B. 

      10k

    • C. 

      10k at

    • D. 

      50k


  • 81. 
    Which forklift has  a maximum lifting capacity of up to 10000 lbs and can lift up to 150 inches high
    • A. 

      4k

    • B. 

      10k

    • C. 

      10k at

    • D. 

      50k


  • 82. 
    When approaching the ramp for final positioning, what feature of the 10k forklift should you use to have smooth, positive control
    • A. 

      Inching pedal

    • B. 

      Rollerized tines

    • C. 

      Mast control lever

    • D. 

      Highest forward gear


  • 83. 
    How do you position the tines when parking the forklift
    • A. 

      Tilt the mast all the way back and lower the tines to the ground

    • B. 

      Tilt the mast all the way forward and lower the tines to the ground

    • C. 

      Tilt the mast so teh tines are level with the ground and lower the forks flat

    • D. 

      There are no requirements for positioning the tines when parking a forklift


  • 84. 
    Which k loader has a deck range from 39 to 156 inches and can be used to load all aircraft except the kc10 and the main cargo deck of 747 and dc10
    • A. 

      25k

    • B. 

      40k

    • C. 

      Tunner loader`

    • D. 

      Halvorsen loader


  • 85. 
    Which cab controls on the tunner are used to operate the deck functions when on/offloading cargo
    • A. 

      Circuit braker panel

    • B. 

      Deck pitch control box

    • C. 

      Deck and conveyor control panel

    • D. 

      Primary deck control indicator light


  • 86. 
    Operating the starter continuously on the tunner for longer than a minimum of how many seconds will cause it to overheat
    • A. 

      20

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      60

    • D. 

      120


  • 87. 
    After cranking the starter on the tunner for 30 seconds without a successful start, allow the starter to cool down for how many minutes before trying again
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4


  • 88. 
    In case of an engine failure or hydraulic pump failure when driving, the halvorsen has an electrically powered pump within the hydraulic system taht instantly and automatically operates for how many seconds
    • A. 

      20

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      40

    • D. 

      60


  • 89. 
    In which part of a vehicle inspection on a bus would you check to make sure the emergency door is operational, including teh warning buzzer, and that nothing is blocking it
    • A. 

      Before inspection

    • B. 

      During inspection

    • C. 

      After operation

    • D. 

      Inspecting the emergency door is not necessary


  • 90. 
    In which part of a vehicle inspection will you clean and refuel the bus, if necessary, and ensure passengers did not damage any part of the bus interior
    • A. 

      Before operation

    • B. 

      During operation

    • C. 

      After operation

    • D. 

      Accomplishing this is not necessary


  • 91. 
    At least how far away from an aircraft should you adjust the staircase truck stairs to the desired height before proceeding
    • A. 

      5ft

    • B. 

      10ft

    • C. 

      5meters

    • D. 

      10meters


  • 92. 
    Which feature of the baggage conveyor is portable, allowing you to carry it into the belly of an aircraft, if necessary
    • A. 

      Guide rails

    • B. 

      Front control

    • C. 

      Conveyor belt

    • D. 

      Elevating linkage


  • 93. 
    Which feature of the baggage conveyor minimizes baggage from falling off the belt
    • A. 

      Guide rails

    • B. 

      Front control

    • C. 

      Conveyor belt

    • D. 

      Elevating linkage


  • 94. 
    How do you know when the waste tank on the LST is full
    • A. 

      Open the tank and look inside

    • B. 

      Look through the sight window

    • C. 

      Wait until the flow meter zeroes out

    • D. 

      Look at the gauge in the control panel


  • 95. 
    Which feature of the LST measures the amount of rinse-fill solution being pumped inside of an aircraft or ATGL
    • A. 

      Flow meter

    • B. 

      Dump meter

    • C. 

      Control panel

    • D. 

      Waste tank sight gauge


  • 96. 
    Which feature on the potable water truck pump compartment must you always make sure is zeroed out before use
    • A. 

      The meter

    • B. 

      Pump motor

    • C. 

      Control panel

    • D. 

      Water level gauge


  • 97. 
    Before operating the water pump on the potable water truck, you must ensure the tank contains at least how many gallons
    • A. 

      20

    • B. 

      40

    • C. 

      60

    • D. 

      80


  • 98. 
    What towing mistake can  easily bend or break trailer tongues and render the equipment untransportable
    • A. 

      Jack-knifing

    • B. 

      Stopping too gradually

    • C. 

      Accelerting gradually

    • D. 

      Driving too close to the edge of a dock


  • 99. 
    How fast you can tow equipment depends on what factors
    • A. 

      The type and height of the equipment and how many you are towing only

    • B. 

      The type of equipment and how many you are towing only

    • C. 

      How many you are towing only

    • D. 

      The type of equipment only


  • 100. 
    Which part of a pintle hook assembly will be used in all pintle hook towing operations
    • A. 

      Tow valve

    • B. 

      Support legs

    • C. 

      Safety/cotter pin

    • D. 

      Integral brake system


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