2a553c CDC Volume 4 Ure
Questions and Answers
- 1.
) Which of these devices did not contribute to increased tuning speeds for the ALR–20 Panoramic Receiver System?
- A.
Traveling wave tubes.
- B.
Backward wave oscillators.
- C.
Frequency sensitive channel filters.
- D.
Magnetically tuned bandpass filters.
Correct Answer
C. Frequency sensitive channel filters.Explanation
Frequency sensitive channel filters did not contribute to increased tuning speeds for the ALR-20 Panoramic Receiver System. The other three devices, traveling wave tubes, backward wave oscillators, and magnetically tuned bandpass filters, all played a role in increasing tuning speeds.Rate this question:
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- 2.
When the ALR–20 Panoramic Receiver System is in manual mode which option cannot be evaluated?
- A.
Frequency.
- B.
Direction of threat.
- C.
Type of modulation.
- D.
PRF.
Correct Answer
B. Direction of threat.Explanation
In manual mode, the ALR-20 Panoramic Receiver System allows the user to manually control and adjust certain parameters. However, the system does not have the capability to evaluate the direction of threat in this mode. The other options, such as frequency, type of modulation, and PRF (Pulse Repetition Frequency), can still be evaluated and adjusted by the user.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The ALR–20 Panoramic Receiver System is self-tested using
- A.
An RF test.
- B.
A video test.
- C.
An analog test.
- D.
RF and video tests.
Correct Answer
D. RF and video tests.Explanation
The ALR-20 Panoramic Receiver System undergoes self-testing using both RF and video tests. This means that the system is evaluated for its performance and functionality in terms of both radio frequency signals and video signals. By conducting RF tests, the receiver system can ensure that it is able to accurately receive and process radio frequency signals. Additionally, video tests are performed to assess the system's ability to handle and display video signals effectively. The combination of RF and video tests allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the ALR-20 Panoramic Receiver System's capabilities.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What control do you adjust to put the ALR–20 Panoramic Receiver System into the AUTO tuning mode?
- A.
MAN FREQ control to MAX.
- B.
MAN FREQ control to AUDIO.
- C.
SWEEP WIDTH control to MAX.
- D.
SWEEP WIDTH control to AUDIO.
Correct Answer
C. SWEEP WIDTH control to MAX.Explanation
To put the ALR-20 Panoramic Receiver System into the AUTO tuning mode, you need to adjust the SWEEP WIDTH control to MAX. This control determines the width of the frequency sweep, and setting it to the maximum value ensures that the receiver system scans a wide range of frequencies automatically. Adjusting the MAN FREQ control to MAX or AUDIO does not activate the AUTO tuning mode.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What ALR–20 Panoramic Receiver System control adjusts the sensitivity and gain of the receiver?
- A.
SWEEP WIDTH.
- B.
MAN FREQ.
- C.
RF LEVEL.
- D.
MAX.
Correct Answer
C. RF LEVEL.Explanation
The RF LEVEL control adjusts the sensitivity and gain of the ALR-20 Panoramic Receiver System. This control allows the user to adjust the level of the received radio frequency signal, which in turn affects the sensitivity and gain of the receiver. By adjusting the RF LEVEL, the user can optimize the receiver's performance and ensure accurate reception of the desired signals.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The ALR–20 Panoramic Receiver System jammer control unit allows the operator to look through
- A.
Received threat packages.
- B.
Onboard system receivers.
- C.
Certain transmitter outputs.
- D.
Any internally generated noise on the displayed traces.
Correct Answer
C. Certain transmitter outputs.Explanation
The ALR-20 Panoramic Receiver System jammer control unit allows the operator to look through certain transmitter outputs. This means that the operator can view and analyze specific signals or frequencies that are being transmitted by potential threats. By being able to monitor these transmitter outputs, the operator can identify and respond to any potential threats more effectively.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which statement describes a self-test function in the ALR–20 Panoramic Receiver System?
- A.
RF test activates a pulse generator in the indicator.
- B.
Video test activates a pulse generator in the indicator.
- C.
RF test activates test oscillators in the individual tuners.
- D.
Video test activates test oscillators in the individual tuners.
Correct Answer
C. RF test activates test oscillators in the individual tuners.Explanation
The self-test function in the ALR-20 Panoramic Receiver System is described as RF test activating test oscillators in the individual tuners. This means that when the self-test function is initiated, it triggers the test oscillators in each individual tuner to generate signals for testing and calibration purposes. This allows the system to check the performance and functionality of each tuner independently.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which control is not located under the protective panel on the front of the ALR–20 Panoramic Receiver System indicator?
- A.
Focus.
- B.
Intensity.
- C.
Positioning.
- D.
Scale illumination.
Correct Answer
D. Scale illumination.Explanation
The control that is not located under the protective panel on the front of the ALR-20 Panoramic Receiver System indicator is scale illumination. This means that the scale illumination control is located elsewhere on the device, outside of the protective panel.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The power supply of the ALR–20 Panoramic Receiver System DC VOLTAGE MONITOR panel provides
- A.
Precise voltage indicator.
- B.
Precise current indicator.
- C.
General voltage indicator.
- D.
General current indicator.
Correct Answer
C. General voltage indicator.Explanation
The power supply of the ALR-20 Panoramic Receiver System DC VOLTAGE MONITOR panel provides a general voltage indicator. This means that it is able to display the voltage level of the power supply in a general sense, giving a rough indication of the voltage being supplied. It does not provide precise measurements or specific details about the voltage, but rather gives a general idea of its level.Rate this question:
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- 10.
How many of the ALR–69 Radar Warning Receiver indicator control unit’s lamp switches control modes of operation?
- A.
4
- B.
6.
- C.
8.
- D.
10.
Correct Answer
B. 6.Explanation
The ALR-69 Radar Warning Receiver indicator control unit has 6 lamp switches that control different modes of operation.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which ALR–69 Radar Warning Receiver component makes accurate amplitude and frequency measurements of detected radar signals?
- A.
FSRS receiver.
- B.
Signal processor.
- C.
Receiver controller.
- D.
Compass sail amplifier detector.
Correct Answer
A. FSRS receiver.Explanation
The correct answer is FSRS receiver. The FSRS receiver component of the ALR-69 Radar Warning Receiver is responsible for making accurate amplitude and frequency measurements of detected radar signals. It is designed to receive and process incoming radar signals, providing essential information about the detected signals to the overall radar warning system. The FSRS receiver plays a crucial role in accurately detecting and analyzing radar signals, ensuring effective radar warning capabilities for the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The ALR–69 Radar Warning Receiver component that has blanking circuits which allow it to distinguish TACAN output pulses and friendly radar to prevent their display on the azimuth indicator is the
- A.
FSRS receiver.
- B.
Signal processor.
- C.
Receiver controller.
- D.
Compass sail amplifier detector.
Correct Answer
D. Compass sail amplifier detector.Explanation
The ALR-69 Radar Warning Receiver component that has blanking circuits which allow it to distinguish TACAN output pulses and friendly radar to prevent their display on the azimuth indicator is the compass sail amplifier detector.Rate this question:
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- 13.
) What is the maximum number of threats displayed in the PRIORITY mode of the ALR–69 Radar Warning Receiver System?
- A.
3
- B.
5
- C.
11
- D.
16
Correct Answer
B. 5Explanation
The maximum number of threats displayed in the PRIORITY mode of the ALR-69 Radar Warning Receiver System is 5.Rate this question:
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- 14.
) When the ALR–69 Radar Warning Receiver System is in PRIORITY mode, how is the operator notified when six or more high priority threats exist?
- A.
The OPEN legend flashes.
- B.
The PRIORITY legend flashes.
- C.
The OPEN and PRIORITY legends alternately flash.
- D.
The system automatically returns to the OPEN mode.
Correct Answer
C. The OPEN and PRIORITY legends alternately flash.Explanation
When the ALR-69 Radar Warning Receiver System is in PRIORITY mode and there are six or more high priority threats, the operator is notified by the flashing of the OPEN and PRIORITY legends alternately. This flashing pattern alerts the operator to the presence of multiple high priority threats, allowing them to prioritize and respond accordingly.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which ALR–69 Radar Warning Receiver System indicator-control lamp switch permits better viewing of obscured threat symbols?
- A.
MODE.
- B.
TGT SEP.
- C.
SEARCH.
- D.
HANDOFF
Correct Answer
B. TGT SEP.Explanation
The TGT SEP switch allows for better viewing of obscured threat symbols on the ALR-69 Radar Warning Receiver System indicator-control lamp. This switch likely adjusts the display or mode of the system to separate or highlight individual threats, making them more visible even when they are partially obscured.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The displayed symbol that indicates that a signal’s parameters do not meet the requirements programmed into the ALR–69 Radar Warning Receiver System is the
- A.
S.
- B.
U.
- C.
Flashing diamond.
- D.
Floating diamond.
Correct Answer
B. U.Explanation
The correct answer is "U." The "U" symbol indicates that a signal's parameters do not meet the requirements programmed into the ALR-69 Radar Warning Receiver System. This symbol is used to alert the operator that the signal may not be reliable or accurate.Rate this question:
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- 17.
) When the PRI of a displayed emitter changes, what determines the PRI of the tone heard from the ALR–69 Radar Warning Receiver System?
- A.
The signal processor.
- B.
The PRI of the threat.
- C.
The amplifier detector.
- D.
The frequency selective receiver.
Correct Answer
B. The PRI of the threat.Explanation
The correct answer is "The PRI of the threat." The PRI (Pulse Repetition Interval) of the tone heard from the ALR-69 Radar Warning Receiver System is determined by the PRI of the threat itself. The ALR-69 system detects and analyzes radar signals, including their PRI, in order to provide warnings to the pilot. Therefore, when the PRI of a displayed emitter changes, the system adjusts the tone accordingly based on the PRI of the threat being detected.Rate this question:
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- 18.
When a displayed emitter changes to a launch state, what determines the frequency of the audio heard from the ALR–69 Radar Warning Receiver System?
- A.
The PRI of the threat.
- B.
The frequency selective receiver.
- C.
The amplifier detector.
- D.
The signal processor.
Correct Answer
D. The signal processor.Explanation
The frequency of the audio heard from the ALR-69 Radar Warning Receiver System is determined by the signal processor. The signal processor is responsible for processing the received signals and converting them into audible sounds. It analyzes the frequency content of the signals and generates the corresponding audio output. Therefore, the signal processor plays a crucial role in determining the frequency of the audio heard from the system.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which option is not a threat file of the ALR–69 Radar Warning Receiver System?
- A.
Sea.
- B.
Land.
- C.
Training.
- D.
Airborne
Correct Answer
D. AirborneExplanation
The ALR-69 Radar Warning Receiver System is designed to detect and identify threats in various environments. The options provided in the question are Sea, Land, Training, and Airborne. The correct answer is Airborne because the ALR-69 is specifically designed to detect airborne threats, such as enemy aircraft or missiles, and not threats that are related to sea, land, or training activities.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which threat file is selected when power is first applied to the ALR–69 Radar Warning Receiver System?
- A.
Sea.
- B.
Land.
- C.
Training.
- D.
Airborne.
Correct Answer
B. Land.Explanation
When power is first applied to the ALR-69 Radar Warning Receiver System, the threat file that is selected is "Land". This suggests that the system is initially configured to detect and identify threats specifically related to land-based environments. This could include threats such as surface-to-air missiles or radar-guided artillery systems that are commonly found in land warfare scenarios.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What B–2 flight management system component controls and manages the data on the three primary MUX buses for the avionics functions?
- A.
PSLU.
- B.
AVIP.
- C.
SMRT.
- D.
FMCP.
Correct Answer
D. FMCP.Explanation
The FMCP (Flight Management Control Panel) is a component of the B-2 flight management system that controls and manages the data on the three primary MUX buses for the avionics functions. It is responsible for inputting and managing flight plans, navigation data, and other critical information necessary for the aircraft's operation.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The B–2 flight management system component that is the repository for all on-board test system data is the
- A.
FMCP.
- B.
SMRT.
- C.
AVIP.
- D.
OBMP.
Correct Answer
C. AVIP.Explanation
The AVIP (Avionics Vibration Isolation Panel) is the correct answer because it is the B-2 flight management system component that serves as the repository for all on-board test system data. The AVIP is responsible for isolating avionics equipment from vibrations and shocks, ensuring the reliability and accuracy of the test system data.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What component converts analog signals into digital data for use by the B–2 fight management system computers?
- A.
DDU.
- B.
DEP.
- C.
AVIP.
- D.
SMRT.
Correct Answer
D. SMRT.Explanation
The SMRT component converts analog signals into digital data for use by the B-2 fight management system computers.Rate this question:
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- 24.
How many B–2 flight management system multifunction display units are used to display system information to the aircrew?
- A.
2.
- B.
4.
- C.
6.
- D.
8.
Correct Answer
D. 8.Explanation
The correct answer is 8 because the question asks how many B-2 flight management system multifunction display units are used to display system information to the aircrew. Therefore, the aircrew uses 8 units to display the necessary information.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which B–2 flight management system multifunction display unit page provides warnings, cautions, and advisories to the aircrew?
- A.
Status.
- B.
Initiated BIT.
- C.
Avionics information.
- D.
TSD.
Correct Answer
A. Status.Explanation
The correct answer is "Status" because the Status page on the B-2 flight management system multifunction display unit provides warnings, cautions, and advisories to the aircrew. This page displays important information about the aircraft's systems and alerts the crew to any potential issues or concerns that may require their attention. It is a crucial tool for monitoring the overall status and health of the aircraft during flight.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which B–2 flight management system LRU reads the operational flight program and the mission data software and then transfers it to the aircraft computers?
- A.
DDU.
- B.
DEP.
- C.
AVIP.
- D.
FMCP.
Correct Answer
A. DDU.Explanation
The correct answer is DDU. The DDU (Display Drive Unit) is a component of the B-2 flight management system that reads the operational flight program and the mission data software. It then transfers this information to the aircraft computers. The DDU plays a crucial role in ensuring that the necessary data is properly communicated and utilized by the aircraft systems during flight operations.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What B–2 flight management system component records the RDIs of failed LRUs?
- A.
FMCP.
- B.
AVIP.
- C.
OBMP.
- D.
DDU.
Correct Answer
C. OBMP.Explanation
The OBMP (Onboard Maintenance Processor) is the B-2 flight management system component responsible for recording the RDIs (Recorded Diagnostic Information) of failed LRUs (Line Replaceable Units). This component is designed to monitor and diagnose any failures or malfunctions in the LRUs and store the relevant information for maintenance purposes. The FMCP (Flight Management Control Panel), AVIP (Avionics Interface Processor), and DDU (Data Display Unit) are not specifically involved in recording the RDIs of failed LRUs.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What B–2 defensive management system components couple RF from the environment into the EWS?
- A.
Antennas.
- B.
HIAC cables.
- C.
Preamplifiers.
- D.
Cable compensation units.
Correct Answer
A. Antennas.Explanation
Antennas are the B-2 defensive management system components that couple RF (radio frequency) from the environment into the EWS (Electronic Warfare System). Antennas are responsible for receiving and transmitting RF signals, allowing the EWS to detect and analyze threats in the environment. They play a crucial role in gathering information and providing situational awareness to the defensive management system.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What B–2 defensive management system antennas provide backlobe suppression?
- A.
Band 1.
- B.
Band 2.
- C.
Band 3.
- D.
Band 4.
Correct Answer
D. Band 4.Explanation
The B-2 defensive management system antennas that provide backlobe suppression are Band 4.Rate this question:
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- 30.
How many preamplifiers does the B–2 DMS have?
- A.
3.
- B.
6.
- C.
9.
- D.
12.
Correct Answer
C. 9.Explanation
The B-2 DMS has 9 preamplifiers.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Converting RF inputs into digital beam reports is the primary purpose of the B–2 DMS’s
- A.
TELS processor.
- B.
Receiver/processor.
- C.
Preprocessor.
- D.
Preamplifier.
Correct Answer
B. Receiver/processor.Explanation
The B-2 DMS's TELS processor is primarily responsible for converting RF inputs into digital beam reports. This implies that the TELS processor acts as both a receiver and a processor, receiving the RF inputs and then processing them into digital beam reports. Therefore, the correct answer is receiver/processor.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What B–2 DMS component compiles the digital beam reports into emitter reports for further processing?
- A.
Preprocessor.
- B.
Receiver/processor.
- C.
DMP.
- D.
TELS processor.
Correct Answer
A. Preprocessor.Explanation
The B-2 DMS component that compiles the digital beam reports into emitter reports for further processing is the Preprocessor.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which B–2 DMS component performs electronic order-of-battle correlation?
- A.
Preprocessor.
- B.
Receiver/processor.
- C.
DMP.
- D.
TELS processor.
Correct Answer
D. TELS processor.Explanation
The TELS processor is the B-2 DMS component that performs electronic order-of-battle correlation. This means that it analyzes and correlates electronic signals to determine the enemy's order of battle, which includes information about their military units, equipment, and capabilities. The TELS processor is specifically designed for this purpose and is responsible for processing and interpreting the electronic signals received by the B-2 DMS system.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What is the B–52 aircraft’s only totally manual transmitter system?
- A.
ALT–6B.
- B.
ALT–16A.
- C.
ALT–28.
- D.
ALT–32A.
Correct Answer
D. ALT–32A.Explanation
The correct answer is ALT–32A. This is the only option that mentions a transmitter system, indicating that it is the correct choice. The other options do not provide any information about being a transmitter system, so they can be eliminated.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Providing two independently selectable and individually tunable RF signals is the primary function of the ALT–32A’s
- A.
Spot noise circuit.
- B.
Noise barrage circuit.
- C.
Automatic gain control.
- D.
Common functional circuit.
Correct Answer
A. Spot noise circuit.Explanation
The primary function of the ALT-32A's spot noise circuit is to provide two independently selectable and individually tunable RF signals. This circuit generates random noise signals that can be used for testing and calibration purposes in various applications. It allows the user to adjust the frequency and amplitude of the noise signals independently, providing flexibility and versatility in signal generation.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What type of antenna does the ALQ–172(V)2 Countermeasures Set use?
- A.
Horn.
- B.
Blade.
- C.
Spiral.
- D.
Phase array.
Correct Answer
D. Phase array.Explanation
The ALQ-172(V)2 Countermeasures Set uses a phase array antenna. A phase array antenna is a type of antenna that uses multiple radiating elements and phase shifters to create a beam of radio waves that can be electronically steered in different directions. This allows for a more precise and flexible control of the antenna's radiation pattern, making it ideal for applications such as radar and communication systems.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which ALQ–172(V) Countermeasures Set unit performs high-level amplification of a pulsed radar signal?
- A.
Receiver.
- B.
Transmitter.
- C.
Transceiver.
- D.
Signals controller.
Correct Answer
B. Transmitter.Explanation
The ALQ-172(V) Countermeasures Set unit is used to counteract radar signals. In order to do this, it needs to transmit signals that interfere with the radar system. Therefore, the unit that performs high-level amplification of a pulsed radar signal is the transmitter.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Direction finding in the ALQ–172(V)1 Countermeasures Set is accomplished by the
- A.
Receiver.
- B.
RF switch.
- C.
Transmitter.
- D.
Signals controller.
Correct Answer
B. RF switch.Explanation
In the ALQ-172(V)1 Countermeasures Set, direction finding is achieved through the use of the RF switch. The RF switch is responsible for controlling the flow of radio frequency signals within the system. It allows the receiver to select and process the desired signals while blocking out unwanted signals. By manipulating the RF switch, the system can effectively determine the direction of incoming signals and take appropriate countermeasures. The transmitter, receiver, and signals controller are not directly involved in the direction finding process.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Temperature status, mode control, and initiation of self-test of the ALQ–172(V) Countermeasures Set is performed by the
- A.
Converter.
- B.
Control monitor.
- C.
Control indicator.
- D.
Signals controller.
Correct Answer
C. Control indicator.Explanation
The control indicator is responsible for performing temperature status, mode control, and initiation of self-test of the ALQ-172(V) Countermeasures Set. It is the device that displays and controls the various functions and settings of the countermeasures set. The converter, control monitor, and signals controller are not mentioned in relation to these specific tasks.Rate this question:
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- 40.
How many ALQ–161A ACU complex computers are dedicated for navigation, weapons delivery, controls and displays, and time-critical (backup) operations?
- A.
2.
- B.
4.
- C.
6.
- D.
8.
Correct Answer
B. 4.Explanation
The correct answer is 4. This means that there are four ALQ-161A ACU complex computers dedicated for navigation, weapons delivery, controls and displays, and time-critical (backup) operations.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Signal processing and data transfer between the terrain following ALQ–161A avionics control computer and other aircraft subsystems is performed by the
- A.
Data transfer set.
- B.
Data link terminals.
- C.
Mass storage device.
- D.
Signal data converters.
Correct Answer
D. Signal data converters.Explanation
Signal processing and data transfer between the terrain following ALQ-161A avionics control computer and other aircraft subsystems is performed by signal data converters. These converters are responsible for converting the signals from one form to another, ensuring compatibility between different systems. They enable the transfer of data between the control computer and other subsystems, facilitating communication and coordination within the aircraft. The use of signal data converters ensures efficient and accurate data transfer, allowing for effective operation of the avionics system.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What ALQ–161A ACU complex component allows rapid loading and storing of software programs for the avionics control computers?
- A.
Data transfer set.
- B.
Data link terminal.
- C.
Mass storage device.
- D.
Radar data terminal.
Correct Answer
C. Mass storage device.Explanation
The ALQ-161A ACU complex component that allows rapid loading and storing of software programs for the avionics control computers is the mass storage device. This device is designed to efficiently store large amounts of data, including software programs, and allows for quick access and retrieval of the stored information. It is an essential component in avionics systems as it enables the seamless transfer and management of software programs for the control computers.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which ALQ–161A ACU complex component provides basic programs loads and mission data information from magnetic tapes?
- A.
Data transfer set.
- B.
Data link terminal.
- C.
Mass storage device.
- D.
Radar data terminal.
Correct Answer
A. Data transfer set.Explanation
The ALQ-161A ACU complex component that provides basic program loads and mission data information from magnetic tapes is the data transfer set.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which ALQ–161A EMUX component functions as the interface between EMUX and aircraft systems being monitored?
- A.
CITS interface terminal.
- B.
DRT.
- C.
CT.
- D.
DLT.
Correct Answer
B. DRT.Explanation
The ALQ-161A EMUX component that functions as the interface between EMUX and aircraft systems being monitored is the DRT.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What ALQ–161A EMUX unit stores information from EMUX and passes it to the CITS for subsystem monitoring?
- A.
DLT.
- B.
CT.
- C.
CITS interface terminal.
- D.
DRT.
Correct Answer
C. CITS interface terminal.Explanation
The CITS interface terminal is responsible for storing information from the ALQ-161A EMUX unit and passing it to the CITS (Countermeasures Integration Test Set) for subsystem monitoring. This suggests that the CITS interface terminal acts as a bridge between the EMUX unit and the CITS, allowing for effective monitoring and analysis of the subsystem's performance.Rate this question:
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- 46.
The ALQ–161A LRU that controls and monitors the EMUX system and components is the
- A.
DLT.
- B.
CT.
- C.
DRT.
- D.
CITS interface terminal.
Correct Answer
B. CT.Explanation
The correct answer is CT, which stands for Control Terminal. The ALQ-161A LRU is responsible for controlling and monitoring the EMUX system and its components. The Control Terminal serves as the interface terminal for the system, allowing users to interact with and manage the EMUX system effectively.Rate this question:
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- 47.
During flight, the ALQ–161A CITS control and display panel displays aircraft systems status and malfunction information in the form of a
- A.
Fault code.
- B.
Near English message.
- C.
Reference designator indicator.
- D.
CITS maintenance codes.
Correct Answer
B. Near English message.Explanation
The ALQ-161A CITS control and display panel is designed to provide information about aircraft systems status and malfunctions. This information is displayed in the form of a near English message, which means that it is presented in a way that is easily understandable to the pilot or maintenance personnel. This allows for quick and effective troubleshooting and decision-making during flight.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What ALQ–161A CITS unit formats data from monitored systems for recording and display?
- A.
Digital computer.
- B.
DAU.
- C.
CITS maintenance recorder.
- D.
CITS control and display panel.
Correct Answer
B. DAU.Explanation
The ALQ-161A CITS unit formats data from monitored systems for recording and display using a DAU (Data Acquisition Unit). The DAU is responsible for collecting data from various sensors and systems, converting it into digital format, and transmitting it to the CITS unit for further processing and display. It acts as an interface between the monitored systems and the CITS unit, ensuring that the data is properly formatted and compatible for recording and display purposes.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which ALQ–161A CITS components issue power-on commands during the ground readiness test?
- A.
CITS control and display panel.
- B.
DCU.
- C.
DAU.
- D.
Digital computer.
Correct Answer
D. Digital computer.Explanation
The ALQ-161A CITS components issue power-on commands during the ground readiness test, and the digital computer is responsible for this task. The digital computer is a crucial component of the ALQ-161A CITS system, and it controls various functions, including issuing power-on commands during the ground readiness test. The CITS control and display panel, DCU, and DAU may have other important roles in the system, but they do not specifically handle power-on commands during the ground readiness test.Rate this question:
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- 50.
The ALQ–161A Defensive Avionic System is divided into how many major subsystems?
- A.
3.
- B.
4.
- C.
5.
- D.
6.
Correct Answer
C. 5.Explanation
The ALQ-161A Defensive Avionic System is divided into five major subsystems. This suggests that the system has multiple components or modules that work together to provide defensive capabilities. The division into five subsystems allows for efficient organization and management of the system, ensuring that each subsystem can be developed, maintained, and upgraded independently if necessary.Rate this question:
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Mar 19, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Nov 03, 2011Quiz Created by
Airmancollin
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