Microbiology Lab Exam 3
For the micro lab exam 3
Questions and Answers
- 1.
___ ___ is an example of an enriched, differential media that contains trypticase soy agar with 5 or 10% ___ ___ added to the agar
Explanation
Blood agar is an example of an enriched, differential media that contains trypticase soy agar with 5 or 10% sheep blood added to the agar. Blood agar is commonly used in microbiology laboratories to culture and differentiate various types of bacteria. The addition of sheep blood provides essential nutrients and factors that support the growth of a wide range of bacteria. The differential aspect of blood agar is that it allows for the identification of bacteria based on their ability to hemolyze or break down red blood cells.Rate this question:
- 2.
This is the change of appearance of the agar surrounding individual colonies when bacteria are able to utilize RBCs
Explanation
Hemolysis refers to the change in appearance of the agar surrounding individual colonies when bacteria are able to utilize red blood cells (RBCs). This process involves the breakdown of RBCs by the bacteria, resulting in a change in the color or texture of the agar surrounding the colonies. Hemolysis can be categorized into three types: alpha, beta, and gamma, each indicating different levels of RBC breakdown.Rate this question:
- 3.
The COMPLETE destruction ofhemoglobin within the RBCs, the media may look yellow
Explanation
Beta hemolysis refers to the complete destruction of hemoglobin within the red blood cells (RBCs). When this occurs, the media surrounding the RBCs may appear yellow. This is because the breakdown of hemoglobin releases a yellow pigment called bilirubin. Beta hemolysis is a characteristic of certain bacteria, such as Streptococcus pyogenes, which produce enzymes that completely lyse the RBCs. This can be observed on blood agar plates, where a clear zone of hemolysis is formed around the bacterial colonies, indicating beta hemolysis.Rate this question:
- 4.
The PARTIAL destruction of the hemoglobin within the RBC's, the media appears green/brown around the individual colonies
Explanation
Alpha hemolysis refers to the partial destruction of hemoglobin within red blood cells (RBCs). In this type of hemolysis, the media surrounding the bacterial colonies appears green or brown. This indicates that the RBCs have been partially lysed, resulting in the release of hemoglobin. The incomplete destruction of hemoglobin distinguishes alpha hemolysis from other types of hemolysis, such as beta and gamma hemolysis.Rate this question:
- 5.
NO destruction of the hemoglobin within the RBC's, the media appears red around the individual colonies
Explanation
Gamma hemolysis refers to a type of hemolysis where there is no destruction of the hemoglobin within the red blood cells (RBCs). In this case, the media around the individual colonies appears red, indicating that there is no lysis of the RBCs. This is in contrast to alpha and beta hemolysis, where there is partial or complete destruction of the hemoglobin within the RBCs, respectively. Therefore, the correct answer for this question is gamma hemolysis.Rate this question:
- 6.
True or False: both Staphylococcus and Streptococcus species have the ability to break down hemoglobin, thus other methods ofdifferentiation of these species are required.
Explanation
Both Staphylococcus and Streptococcus species have the ability to break down hemoglobin, which means that this characteristic alone cannot be used to differentiate between the two species. Therefore, other methods of differentiation are required to distinguish between Staphylococcus and Streptococcus species.Rate this question:
- 7.
E.Focalis is an example of
Explanation
E. Focalis is an example of Streptococcus. Streptococcus is a genus of bacteria that are spherical in shape and form chains or pairs. E. Focalis is a specific species within this genus. Streptococcus bacteria are known to cause various infections in humans, including strep throat, pneumonia, and skin infections.Rate this question:
- 8.
In a bile esculin test, a black color represents a ___ reaction while a yellow color represents a ___ reaction
Explanation
In a bile esculin test, a positive reaction is indicated by the presence of a black color, while a negative reaction is indicated by a yellow color. This test is commonly used to determine the ability of an organism to hydrolyze esculin in the presence of bile. The black color is formed when esculin is hydrolyzed and reacts with iron in the medium, producing a dark precipitate. A yellow color indicates that esculin has not been hydrolyzed, and therefore, no reaction with iron has occurred.Rate this question:
- 9.
In a 6.5% NaCL test (salt) purple indicates ___ while yellow indicates ___
Explanation
In a 6.5% NaCL test, purple indicates a negative result while yellow indicates a positive result. This means that when the solution turns purple, it indicates the absence of a particular reaction or substance being tested for. On the other hand, when the solution turns yellow, it indicates the presence of the reaction or substance being tested for.Rate this question:
- 10.
In a coagulase test, a clot indicates___ while a liquid indicates ___
Explanation
In a coagulase test, the formation of a clot indicates a positive result, indicating the presence of coagulase enzyme. This enzyme is produced by certain bacteria, such as Staphylococcus aureus, and is responsible for the formation of clots in blood plasma. A positive result suggests that the tested organism has the ability to coagulate plasma. On the other hand, a liquid or lack of clot formation indicates a negative result, suggesting that the organism does not possess the coagulase enzyme.Rate this question:
- 11.
In Mannitol Salt agar, yellow indicates a ___ use of mannitol while pink indicates a ___ use of mannitol
Explanation
In Mannitol Salt agar, yellow indicates a positive use of mannitol, meaning that the bacteria can ferment mannitol and produce acid as a byproduct. On the other hand, pink indicates a negative use of mannitol, suggesting that the bacteria cannot ferment mannitol and do not produce acid. The color change is a result of the pH indicator present in the agar, which turns yellow under acidic conditions and remains pink under alkaline conditions.Rate this question:
- 12.
Mannitol Salt Agar inhibits gram ___
Explanation
Mannitol Salt Agar is a selective medium used to isolate and differentiate Staphylococcus species. It contains a high concentration of salt, which inhibits the growth of most bacteria, including gram-negative bacteria. Therefore, the correct answer is negative, indicating that Mannitol Salt Agar inhibits gram-negative bacteria.Rate this question:
- 13.
Mannitol Salt Agar is ___/___ that inhibits the growth of gram ___
Explanation
Mannitol Salt Agar is a type of agar that has selective properties, meaning it inhibits the growth of certain types of bacteria while allowing others to grow. It is also differential, meaning it allows for the differentiation of different types of bacteria based on their ability to ferment mannitol. In this case, Mannitol Salt Agar inhibits the growth of gram-negative bacteria specifically.Rate this question:
- 14.
The high salt content in Mannitol Salt Agar selects for ___
Explanation
The high salt content in Mannitol Salt Agar creates a hypertonic environment, which inhibits the growth of most bacteria except for halotolerant organisms like Staphylococcus. Staphylococcus can tolerate high salt concentrations and is able to grow on this selective medium.Rate this question:
- 15.
Biochemical testing can only be done on ___ cultures
Explanation
Biochemical testing can only be done on pure cultures because it requires the isolation of a single type of microorganism. Pure cultures are free from contamination by other microorganisms, allowing for accurate and reliable results during biochemical testing. In mixed cultures, the presence of different microorganisms can interfere with the interpretation of test results, making it difficult to identify specific biochemical characteristics of individual organisms. Therefore, the use of pure cultures is essential for conducting effective biochemical testing.Rate this question:
- 16.
This breaks down hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen
Explanation
The catalase test is used to determine the presence of the enzyme catalase in a substance. Catalase is responsible for breaking down hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen. Therefore, if the catalase test is positive, it indicates that the substance being tested contains catalase, which can break down hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen.Rate this question:
- 17.
___ produce catalase, but ___ do not
Explanation
Staphylococcus bacteria produce catalase, while streptococcus bacteria do not. Catalase is an enzyme that helps to break down hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen. Staphylococcus bacteria produce catalase as a defense mechanism to protect themselves from the toxic effects of hydrogen peroxide, which can be produced by immune cells during an infection. On the other hand, streptococcus bacteria do not produce catalase, making them more susceptible to the toxic effects of hydrogen peroxide. This difference in catalase production is one of the factors that distinguish between these two types of bacteria.Rate this question:
- 18.
___ is a common component of our skin flora
Explanation
Staphylococcus epidermis is a common component of our skin flora. It is a type of bacteria that naturally resides on the skin and is considered a normal part of the skin's microbiota. Staphylococcus epidermis is typically harmless and does not cause infections or diseases in healthy individuals. However, it can become opportunistic and cause infections in individuals with weakened immune systems or those who have undergone invasive medical procedures. Overall, staphylococcus epidermis plays a role in maintaining the balance of microorganisms on the skin.Rate this question:
- 19.
___ is an enzyme that causes fibrin in plasma to clot
Explanation
Coagulase is an enzyme that is responsible for causing the fibrin in plasma to clot. Fibrin is a protein involved in the blood clotting process, and coagulase plays a crucial role in promoting the formation of blood clots. By activating the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin, coagulase helps in the formation of a stable clot, which is important for wound healing and preventing excessive bleeding.Rate this question:
- 20.
___ ___ is the only staphylococcus species that produces coagulase
Explanation
Staphylococcus aureus is the correct answer because it is the only species within the Staphylococcus genus that produces coagulase. Coagulase is an enzyme that causes blood plasma to clot, and it is a key characteristic used to differentiate S. aureus from other staphylococcal species. This ability to produce coagulase is an important virulence factor of S. aureus, as it helps the bacterium evade host immune responses and establish infections.Rate this question:
- 21.
A coagulase test is used to differentiate ___ from ___
Explanation
A coagulase test is used to differentiate between Staphylococcus epidermis and Staphylococcus aureus. Coagulase is an enzyme produced by Staphylococcus aureus, which causes the formation of a clot when added to plasma. Staphylococcus epidermis, on the other hand, does not produce coagulase. Therefore, if a clot forms in the coagulase test, it indicates the presence of Staphylococcus aureus, while the absence of a clot suggests Staphylococcus epidermis.Rate this question:
- 22.
The sugar ___ gives mannitol salt agar its differential properties
Explanation
Mannitol is the sugar that gives mannitol salt agar its differential properties. Mannitol salt agar is a selective and differential medium used to isolate and differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from other staphylococci. Mannitol fermentation by S. aureus leads to the production of acid, causing a pH drop and turning the agar yellow. Other staphylococci do not ferment mannitol and do not cause a color change. Therefore, the presence or absence of mannitol fermentation helps in the identification of S. aureus.Rate this question:
- 23.
When mannitol is fermented (utilized by bacteria) microorganisms release acidic byproducts that change the PH of the surrounding media. The PH change is indicated by a change in the PH indicator ___ ___ from pink to yellow
Explanation
When bacteria ferment mannitol, they produce acidic byproducts that cause a change in the pH of the surrounding media. This change in pH can be detected using a pH indicator called phenol red. Phenol red changes color from pink to yellow in an acidic environment, indicating the presence of acidic byproducts from the fermentation of mannitol by microorganisms.Rate this question:
- 24.
___ is used to identify Group A strep, the cause of strept throat. Group A strep are the only species group that aresensitive to this antibiotic and can be detected by a zone of inhibition around the __ __ __
Explanation
Bacitracin is used to identify Group A strep, the cause of strept throat. Group A strep is the only species group that is sensitive to this antibiotic and can be detected by a zone of inhibition around the taxo A disc.Rate this question:
- 25.
___ ___ testing is used to identify ___ which can cause urinary tract as well as opportunist infections
Explanation
Bile esculin testing is used to identify enterococcus, which can cause urinary tract as well as opportunistic infections.Rate this question:
- 26.
True or false: bile esculin testing incorporates two tests: the ability to grow in 40% bile and the ability to hydrolyze esculin that then combines with Fe+3 to form a black precipitate
Explanation
The given statement is true. Bile esculin testing does indeed incorporate two tests. The first test involves the ability of the organism to grow in the presence of 40% bile. Bile salts are inhibitory to many organisms, so if an organism is able to grow in the presence of 40% bile, it indicates that it has the ability to tolerate bile. The second test involves the ability of the organism to hydrolyze esculin, a glycoside, which then reacts with Fe+3 to form a black precipitate. This black precipitate is a positive result for esculin hydrolysis, indicating the presence of certain enzymes in the organism.Rate this question:
- 27.
____ ____ is the only strept species that is sensitive to the drug ____ This can be detected by a zone of inhibition around a ___ ___ ___
Explanation
Streptococcus pneumoniae is the only strept species that is sensitive to the drug optochin. This sensitivity can be detected by a zone of inhibition around a Taxo P disc.Rate this question:
- 28.
One can determine whether a culture is positive for Streptococcus pyogenes because streptococcus has cocci and its sensitivity to ___ ___ ___
Explanation
One can determine whether a culture is positive for Streptococcus pyogenes by testing its sensitivity to bacitracin, an antibiotic that inhibits the growth of this bacterium. Additionally, Streptococcus pyogenes is known to produce beta-hemolysis, which can be observed by the complete lysis of red blood cells surrounding the bacterial colonies on blood agar plates.Rate this question:
- 29.
If you wanted to differentiate Enterococcus faecalis and Streptococcus bovis which test would you use?
Explanation
To differentiate Enterococcus faecalis and Streptococcus bovis, the 6.5% NaCl test can be used. This test helps in determining the ability of bacteria to grow in a high salt concentration environment. Enterococcus faecalis is able to grow in 6.5% NaCl, while Streptococcus bovis cannot. Therefore, if the bacteria can grow in this high salt concentration, it is likely Enterococcus faecalis, and if it cannot, it is likely Streptococcus bovis.Rate this question:
- 30.
Lysis of RBCs, total utilization of hemoglobin, yellow color of media around colony
Explanation
Beta hemolysis refers to the complete lysis of red blood cells (RBCs) by certain bacteria. This process involves the total utilization of hemoglobin present in the RBCs, resulting in the release of a yellow pigment. The yellow color of the media around the bacterial colony indicates the presence of beta hemolysis.Rate this question:
- 31.
Lysis of RBCs, partial utilization of hemoglobin, green brown color of media around colony
Explanation
Alpha hemolysis refers to a type of hemolysis where there is partial lysis of red blood cells (RBCs) and the hemoglobin is only partially utilized. This can result in the formation of a green-brown color around the colony on the media. Therefore, the given characteristics of lysis of RBCs, partial utilization of hemoglobin, and the green-brown color of the media around the colony indicate that the correct answer is alpha hemolysis.Rate this question:
- 32.
No lysis of RBCs, no utilization of hemoglobin, red around colonies
Explanation
Gamma hemolysis refers to a type of hemolysis where there is no lysis of red blood cells (RBCs) and no utilization of hemoglobin. In this case, the colonies appear red around them. This type of hemolysis indicates that the organism does not possess the ability to lyse RBCs or utilize the released hemoglobin. Therefore, the correct answer is gamma hemolysis.Rate this question:
- 33.
This sugar makes mannitol salt agar differential
Explanation
Mannitol is a type of sugar that is commonly used in microbiology to make Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA), which is a selective and differential medium. MSA contains a high concentration of salt, which inhibits the growth of most bacteria except for those that can tolerate high salt levels, such as Staphylococcus species. Additionally, mannitol in MSA serves as a differential component. Some bacteria, like Staphylococcus aureus, can ferment mannitol, causing a pH change in the medium and turning it yellow. Other bacteria, like Staphylococcus epidermidis, cannot ferment mannitol and do not cause a color change. Therefore, the presence of mannitol in MSA helps differentiate between different bacterial species based on their ability to ferment it.Rate this question:
- 34.
This has a gamma hemolysis reaction, a positive bile esculin reaction, and a positive 6.5% NaCl reaction
Explanation
The given information states that the microorganism exhibits gamma hemolysis, a positive bile esculin reaction, and a positive 6.5% NaCl reaction. Enterococcus faecalis is a bacterium that fits this description. Gamma hemolysis refers to the lack of hemolysis on blood agar, which is characteristic of Enterococcus species. A positive bile esculin reaction indicates the ability of the bacterium to hydrolyze esculin in the presence of bile, another characteristic of Enterococcus faecalis. Lastly, a positive 6.5% NaCl reaction suggests the bacterium can grow in a high salt concentration, which is also a feature of Enterococcus faecalis.Rate this question:
- 35.
This has a gamma hemolysis reaction, a positive bile esculin reaction, and a negative 6.5% NaCl reaction
Explanation
This answer is correct because Streptococcus bovis exhibits gamma hemolysis, which means it does not cause any hemolysis on blood agar. It also shows a positive bile esculin reaction, indicating its ability to hydrolyze esculin in the presence of bile. However, it gives a negative reaction to 6.5% NaCl, indicating that it does not grow in high salt concentrations. Therefore, all the given characteristics match with Streptococcus bovis.Rate this question:
- 36.
This has a beta hemolysis reaction, and is sensitive to Taxo A bacitrin
Explanation
Streptococcus pyogenes is the correct answer because it exhibits a beta hemolysis reaction, which means it completely lyses red blood cells and produces a clear zone around the bacterial colony. Additionally, it is sensitive to Taxo A bacitracin, which is a type of antibiotic. These characteristics are unique to Streptococcus pyogenes and help differentiate it from other bacteria.Rate this question:
- 37.
This has a alpha hemolysis reaction, and is sensitive to Taxo P optochin
Explanation
This answer is correct because Streptococcus pneumoniae is known to exhibit alpha hemolysis, which is a partial breakdown of red blood cells. Additionally, it is sensitive to the antibiotic optochin, which is indicated by the mention of "Taxo P optochin" in the question. Therefore, based on these characteristics, the correct answer is Streptococcus pneumoniae.Rate this question:
- 38.
For a surface to be ___ there must be destruction of all life forms: vegetative cells,spores,and viruses.
Explanation
A surface is considered sterile when all forms of life, including vegetative cells, spores, and viruses, have been completely destroyed. This means that there are no living organisms present on the surface. Sterility is often achieved through processes such as sterilization, which involves the use of heat, chemicals, or radiation to eliminate all microbial life. The absence of any living organisms ensures that the surface is free from potential contamination or infection.Rate this question:
- 39.
Sterilization can be easily accomplished with the use of an ___
Explanation
Sterilization can be easily accomplished with the use of an autoclave. An autoclave is a device that uses steam and high pressure to kill bacteria, viruses, and other microorganisms. It is commonly used in medical and laboratory settings to sterilize equipment, instruments, and materials. The high temperature and pressure in the autoclave effectively destroy any potential pathogens, ensuring a thorough sterilization process. Therefore, using an autoclave is a reliable and efficient method for achieving sterilization.Rate this question:
- 40.
The destruction of pathogens on inanimate objects is the job of a
Explanation
A disinfectant is a substance that is used to destroy or kill pathogens, which are disease-causing microorganisms, on inanimate objects. It works by disrupting the structure or function of these pathogens, preventing them from causing infections or diseases. Disinfectants are commonly used in healthcare settings, as well as in households, to ensure a clean and safe environment. They are different from antiseptics, which are used on living tissues, as disinfectants are specifically designed for non-living surfaces.Rate this question:
- 41.
Disinfectants ___ achieve total killing of all life forms (always, never, rarely)
Explanation
Disinfectants rarely achieve total killing of all life forms. Disinfectants are designed to kill or inactivate a wide range of microorganisms, but it is difficult for them to completely eliminate all forms of life. Some resilient microorganisms may survive or develop resistance to disinfectants, making it rare for disinfectants to achieve total eradication of all life forms.Rate this question:
- 42.
If a chemical is given the term ___ it should be able to inhibit or destroy microorganisms on living tissue in an attempt to prevent infection.
Explanation
An antiseptic is a type of chemical that is capable of inhibiting or destroying microorganisms on living tissue in order to prevent infection. It is specifically designed to be used on living tissue, such as skin or wounds, to kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms that could cause infection. Antiseptics are commonly used in medical settings, such as hospitals or clinics, to clean and disinfect wounds or prepare the skin for medical procedures. They are different from disinfectants, which are used on inanimate objects or surfaces.Rate this question:
- 43.
___ are less antimicrobial than other chemicals
Explanation
Antiseptics are less antimicrobial than other chemicals. This means that while antiseptics have some antimicrobial properties, there are other chemicals that are more effective at killing microorganisms. Antiseptics are typically used on living tissues, such as skin, to prevent infection and promote healing. They are generally milder and less toxic than other antimicrobial chemicals, such as disinfectants, which are used on surfaces and objects. Antiseptics work by inhibiting the growth and development of microorganisms, but they may not completely eliminate all types of bacteria or viruses.Rate this question:
- 44.
When preparing a culture, the process of rolling broth culture into three directions with overlapping strokes is called making a ___ ___ ___
Explanation
The process of rolling broth culture into three directions with overlapping strokes is called making a lawn of growth. This technique helps to evenly distribute the culture on the agar surface, promoting uniform growth of the microorganisms. By rolling the culture in multiple directions, it ensures that all areas of the agar are covered, creating a "lawn" of growth. This method is commonly used in microbiology to assess the susceptibility of microorganisms to antimicrobial agents or to observe the effects of different treatments on microbial growth.Rate this question:
- 45.
True or False: Over incubating will often result in in overgrowth of the microorganism and show no zone of inhibition
Explanation
Over incubating refers to keeping the culture for a longer period of time in an incubator than necessary. This can lead to excessive growth of the microorganism, which can result in overcrowding and competition for resources. As a result, the microorganism may not show any zone of inhibition when subjected to antimicrobial agents. Therefore, the statement that over incubating will often result in overgrowth of the microorganism and show no zone of inhibition is true.Rate this question:
- 46.
Zone of inhibition is measured in
Explanation
The zone of inhibition refers to the area around a bacterial colony where no bacterial growth is observed. It is measured in millimeters because it provides a quantitative measure of the effectiveness of an antimicrobial agent. The larger the zone of inhibition, the more effective the agent is in inhibiting bacterial growth. By measuring the diameter of the zone in millimeters, it allows for standardized comparisons between different antimicrobial agents and their effectiveness against different bacterial strains.Rate this question:
- 47.
Rolling the bacteria out in 3 different directions until the plate is covered is called ___ the plate
Explanation
Rolling the bacteria out in 3 different directions until the plate is covered is called "seeding" because this term refers to the process of evenly distributing microorganisms onto a growth medium, such as an agar plate. By rolling the bacteria out in different directions, it ensures that the plate is adequately covered with the bacteria, allowing for their growth and analysis.Rate this question:
- 48.
This is a zone of no apparent growth
Explanation
The term "zone of inhibition" refers to an area around a substance, such as an antibiotic or disinfectant, where the growth of microorganisms is inhibited. In this context, the statement "This is a zone of no apparent growth" suggests that the given zone is an area where the growth of microorganisms is visibly inhibited. This could be due to the presence of an antimicrobial agent or other inhibitory factors.Rate this question:
- 49.
Does it mean that the bacteria are dead in a zone of inhibition? (Yes or No)
Explanation
The answer is "no" because the presence of a zone of inhibition indicates that the bacteria are not able to grow or survive in that particular area. However, it does not necessarily mean that the bacteria are dead. The zone of inhibition is formed due to the antimicrobial activity of a substance, such as an antibiotic, which inhibits the growth of bacteria. The bacteria may still be alive, but they are unable to multiply or cause an infection within the zone of inhibition.Rate this question:
- 50.
The disinfectants we used in lab were found to be more effective in gram ___ bacteria
Explanation
The disinfectants used in the lab were found to be more effective in gram-positive bacteria. This means that the disinfectants were able to effectively kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria that retain the crystal violet stain in the Gram stain test, indicating a thick peptidoglycan layer in their cell wall. Gram-positive bacteria have a simpler cell wall structure compared to gram-negative bacteria, making them more susceptible to the action of disinfectants.Rate this question:
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