Microbiology Exam Iv - Summer 2011

229 Questions  I  By Stephens
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  • 1. 
    Which type of infection can be caused by septicemia?
    • A. 

      Systemic infection

    • B. 

      Focal infection

    • C. 

      Local infection

    • D. 

      Bacteremia

    • E. 

      Septicemia


  • 2. 
    Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota because transient microbiota
    • A. 

      Are present for a relatively short time

    • B. 

      Cause diseases

    • C. 

      Are found in a certain location on the host

    • D. 

      Are acquired by direct contact

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 3. 
    Which of the following definitions is incorrect?
    • A. 

      Pandemic - a disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time

    • B. 

      Endemic - a disease that is constantly present in a population

    • C. 

      Epidemic - a fraction of the population having a disease at a specified time

    • D. 

      Sporadic - a disease that affects a population occasionally

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 4. 
    Which of the following is a fomite?
    • A. 

      Insects

    • B. 

      Droplets from a sneeze

    • C. 

      Water

    • D. 

      A hypodermic needle

    • E. 

      Pus


  • 5. 
    A commensal bacterium
    • A. 

      Does not receive any benefit from its host

    • B. 

      Is beneficial to its host

    • C. 

      May be an opportunistic pathogen

    • D. 

      Does not infect its host

    • E. 

      B and d only


  • 6. 
    A nosocomial infection is
    • A. 

      Only a result of surgery

    • B. 

      Acquired during the course of hospitalization

    • C. 

      always present but inapparent at the time of hospitalization

    • D. 

      Always caused by medical personnel

    • E. 

      Always caused by pathogenic bacteria


  • 7. 
    The major significance of Koch's work was that
    • A. 

      Microorganisms are present in a diseased animal.

    • B. 

      Diseases can be transmitted from one animal to another

    • C. 

      Microorganisms can be cultured

    • D. 

      Microorganisms are the result of disease.

    • E. 

      Microorganisms cause disease.


  • 8. 
    The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called
    • A. 

      Ecology

    • B. 

      Epidemiology

    • C. 

      Communicable disease

    • D. 

      Morbidity and mortality

    • E. 

      Public health


  • 9. 
    Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms
    • A. 

      Always occur as part of a syndrome

    • B. 

      Are changes felt by the patient

    • C. 

      Are changes observed by the physician

    • D. 

      Are specific for a particular disease

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 10. 
    All of the following are communicable diseases except
    • A. 

      Tyhphoid fever

    • B. 

      Tuberculosis

    • C. 

      Tetanus

    • D. 

      Malaria

    • E. 

      AIDS


  • 11. 
    Which of the following does NOT contribute to a pathogen's invasiveness?
    • A. 

      Cell wall

    • B. 

      Capsule

    • C. 

      Toxins

    • D. 

      Ligands

    • E. 

      Hyaluronidase


  • 12. 
    A needlestick is an example of which portal of entry?
    • A. 

      Skin

    • B. 

      Paranaternal route

    • C. 

      Mucous membranes

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 13. 
    All of the following are types of exotoxins EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Lipid A

    • B. 

      Membrane disrupting toxins

    • C. 

      AB toxins

    • D. 

      Superantigens

    • E. 

      All of the above are types of exotoxins


  • 14. 
    Which of the following statements about exotoxins is generally NOT true?
    • A. 

      They are composed of proteins

    • B. 

      They are not required in high concentrations to be effective

    • C. 

      They are not destroyed by heat

    • D. 

      They have specific methods of action

    • E. 

      They are more potent than endotoxins


  • 15. 
    Cytopathic effects are changes in host cells due to
    • A. 

      Viral infections

    • B. 

      Protozoan and helminthic infections

    • C. 

      Bacterial infections

    • D. 

      Fungal infections

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 16. 
    All of the following are methods of penetrating and/or avoiding the host EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Antigenic changes

    • B. 

      Membrane-disrupting toxins

    • C. 

      Hyaluronidase

    • D. 

      IgA proteases

    • E. 

      Invasins


  • 17. 
    Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with animal
    • A. 

      White blood cells

    • B. 

      Transferrins

    • C. 

      Antibodies

    • D. 

      Red blood cells

    • E. 

      Ferrodoxins


  • 18. 
    Endotoxins are
    • A. 

      Required only in minute amounts

    • B. 

      Excreted from the cell

    • C. 

      Associated with Gram-positive bacteria

    • D. 

      Specific in their mode of action

    • E. 

      Part of the Gram-negative cell wall


  • 19. 
    The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the
    • A. 

      Mucous membranes of the respiratory tract

    • B. 

      Mucous membranes of the genitourinary tract.

    • C. 

      Skin

    • D. 

      Parenteral route

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 20. 
    Botulism is caused by an exotoxin, therefore it could be easily prevented by
    • A. 

      Administering antibiotics to patients.

    • B. 

      Boiling food prior to consumption

    • C. 

      Including antibiotics in the canning process

    • D. 

      Preventing fecal contamination of food

    • E. 

      Just not eating canned food


  • 21. 
    Which of the following is involved in specific resistance (immunity)?
    • A. 

      Monocyte

    • B. 

      Basophil

    • C. 

      Neutrophil

    • D. 

      Lymphocyte

    • E. 

      Eosinophil


  • 22. 
    All of the following are associated with complement fixation EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Inflammation

    • B. 

      Cell lysis

    • C. 

      Membrane attack complex

    • D. 

      Increased phagocytic activity

    • E. 

      Fever


  • 23. 
    Which of the following is involved in fighting parasitic infections?
    • A. 

      Eosinophil

    • B. 

      Basophil

    • C. 

      Lymphocyte

    • D. 

      Neutrophil

    • E. 

      Monocyte


  • 24. 
    All of the following occur during inflammation.  What is the first step?
    • A. 

      Vasodilation

    • B. 

      Diapedesis

    • C. 

      Repair

    • D. 

      Phagocyte migration

    • E. 

      Margination


  • 25. 
    Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of inflammation?
    • A. 

      Fever

    • B. 

      Local heat

    • C. 

      Pain

    • D. 

      Swelling

    • E. 

      Redness


  • 26. 
    Which of the following exhibits the highest phagocytic activity?
    • A. 

      Erythrocytes

    • B. 

      Eosinophils

    • C. 

      Lymphocytes

    • D. 

      Neutrophils

    • E. 

      Basophils


  • 27. 
    Which of the following is NOT a chemical factor to protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection?
    • A. 

      Gastric juices

    • B. 

      Ciliary escalator

    • C. 

      Lysozyme

    • D. 

      Mucus

    • E. 

      Sebum


  • 28. 
    Macrophages arise from which of the following?
    • A. 

      Neutrophil

    • B. 

      Lymphocyte

    • C. 

      Monocyte

    • D. 

      Eosinophil

    • E. 

      Basophil


  • 29. 
    Nonspecific resistance is
    • A. 

      The body's ability to ward off diseases.

    • B. 

      The body's defenses against any kind of pathogen

    • C. 

      The body's defenses against a specific pathogen

    • D. 

      The lack of resistance

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 30. 
    Bacteria have siderophores to capture iron; humans counter this by
    • A. 

      Producing iron

    • B. 

      Producing sulfur dioxide

    • C. 

      Transferrins

    • D. 

      Iron-degrading enzymes

    • E. 

      Toxin production


  • 31. 
    In which organism were phagocytes first reported?
    • A. 

      Bacteria

    • B. 

      Amoeba

    • C. 

      Red blood cells

    • D. 

      Starfish larvae


  • 32. 
    Which is not a component of innate immunity?
    • A. 

      Skin

    • B. 

      Inflammation

    • C. 

      Fever

    • D. 

      Antibody


  • 33. 
    Which of the following is a phagocytic cell found in the human body?
    • A. 

      Erythrocyte

    • B. 

      Neutrophil

    • C. 

      B cell

    • D. 

      T cell


  • 34. 
    The leukocyte described as having a small amount of cytpolasm surrounding a round nucleus is the
    • A. 

      Lymphocyte

    • B. 

      Monocyte

    • C. 

      Basophil

    • D. 

      Neutrophil


  • 35. 
    Skin and mucous membranes
    • A. 

      Are the first line of innate immunity

    • B. 

      Are the first line of adaptive immunity

    • C. 

      Act as physical barriers to infection

    • D. 

      Contain antimicrobial secretions

    • E. 

      A, c and d


  • 36. 
    A group of interacting serum proteins that provide a nonspecific defense mechanism is
    • A. 

      Complement

    • B. 

      Interferon

    • C. 

      Glycoprotein

    • D. 

      Lysozome


  • 37. 
    The first host response to a nonspecific tissue injury is described as
    • A. 

      Inflammation

    • B. 

      Reaction

    • C. 

      Antibodies

    • D. 

      Trauma


  • 38. 
    Following digestion of a microorganism by phagocytes, the debris is excreted by
    • A. 

      Ingestion

    • B. 

      Exocytosis

    • C. 

      Extrusion

    • D. 

      Budding


  • 39. 
    Which of the following cytokines is most antiviral in its action?
    • A. 

      Interleukin-1 (IL-1)

    • B. 

      Interleukin-2 (IL-2)

    • C. 

      Interferon

    • D. 

      Lysozyme


  • 40. 
    Pyrogens are
    • A. 

      Fever-inducing substances

    • B. 

      Fever-inhibiting substances

    • C. 

      Phagocytosis-enhancing substances

    • D. 

      Complement activators


  • 41. 
    The hypersensitivity treatment that stimulates an increase of IgG and T suppressor cells, and a decrease in IgE is known as
    • A. 

      Desensitization

    • B. 

      Immunity

    • C. 

      Sensitization

    • D. 

      Exposure

    • E. 

      Anaphylaxis


  • 42. 
    A transfusion reaction primarily involves
    • A. 

      Leukocytes

    • B. 

      Phagocytes

    • C. 

      Platelets

    • D. 

      Erythrocytes


  • 43. 
    Regarding a mismatch of either the Rh antigen or the AB antigen both
    • A. 

      Result in destruction of red blood cells

    • B. 

      Utilize complement to destroy red blood cells

    • C. 

      Utilize antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity to destroy the red blood cells

    • D. 

      Result in destruction of only leukocytes


  • 44. 
    Antibodies that have arisen in the blood plasma without any obvious or deliberate stimulus are called
    • A. 

      Natural

    • B. 

      Acquired

    • C. 

      Injurious

    • D. 

      Active


  • 45. 
    The cell type responsible for Type II hypersensitivity is the
    • A. 

      Mast cell

    • B. 

      B cell

    • C. 

      Macrophage

    • D. 

      Platelet

    • E. 

      Neutrophils


  • 46. 
    Delayed type hypersensitivity primarily involves
    • A. 

      Erythrocytes

    • B. 

      B cells

    • C. 

      T cells

    • D. 

      Mast cells


  • 47. 
    Type IV hypersensitivity reactions typically peak within
    • A. 

      Minutes

    • B. 

      Hours

    • C. 

      12 hours

    • D. 

      2-3 days


  • 48. 
    Which of the following is associated with contact dermatitis?
    • A. 

      Poison ivy

    • B. 

      Latex

    • C. 

      Tuberculin skin test

    • D. 

      Hay fever

    • E. 

      A, b and c


  • 49. 
    Allografts
    • A. 

      Are normally rejected within hours

    • B. 

      Are normally rejected within 10-14 days

    • C. 

      Are grafts between non-identical members of the same species

    • D. 

      Would include the fetus

    • E. 

      B, c and d


  • 50. 
    If the thymus fails to develop,
    • A. 

      Functional T cells are absent

    • B. 

      Functional B cells are absent

    • C. 

      Di George's syndrome exists

    • D. 

      Complement deficiencies exist

    • E. 

      A and c


  • 51. 
    Which of the following is not a granulocyte?
    • A. 

      Eosinophil

    • B. 

      Macrophage

    • C. 

      Basophil

    • D. 

      Neutrophil


  • 52. 
    The leukocyte that contains histamine is the
    • A. 

      Lymphocyte

    • B. 

      Monocyte

    • C. 

      Macrophage

    • D. 

      Basophil


  • 53. 
    In humans, the stem cells from which all blood cells arise are found in the
    • A. 

      Peripheral circulation

    • B. 

      Lymphatic vessels

    • C. 

      Lymph nodes

    • D. 

      Bone marrow


  • 54. 
    Allergic reactions mainly involve
    • A. 

      Macrophages

    • B. 

      Monocytes

    • C. 

      Neutrophils

    • D. 

      Mast cells


  • 55. 
    Which of the following is a phagocytic cell found in the human body?
    • A. 

      Erythrocyte

    • B. 

      Neutrophil

    • C. 

      B cell

    • D. 

      T cell


  • 56. 
    Which of the following are referred to as mononuclear phagocytes?
    • A. 

      Lymphocytes and basophils

    • B. 

      Mast cells and eosinophils

    • C. 

      Basophils and eosinophils

    • D. 

      Monocytes and macrophages


  • 57. 
    Which of the following are antigen-presenting cells?
    • A. 

      Dendritic cells

    • B. 

      T cells

    • C. 

      Erythrocytes

    • D. 

      Basophils


  • 58. 
    The leukocyte responsible for adaptive immunity is the
    • A. 

      Lymphocyte

    • B. 

      Monocyte

    • C. 

      Eosinophil

    • D. 

      Neutrophil


  • 59. 
    The "voices" of a cell are
    • A. 

      Surface receptors

    • B. 

      Platelets

    • C. 

      Cytokines

    • D. 

      Antigens


  • 60. 
    Normal flora
    • A. 

      Are the organisms that typically reside on your body

    • B. 

      Protect against infection by pathogens

    • C. 

      Enhance infection by pathogens

    • D. 

      Play no role in affecting pathogen growth

    • E. 

      A and b


  • 61. 
    The first step in the establishment of infection is that the organism must
    • A. 

      Invade host tissues

    • B. 

      Attach to host cells

    • C. 

      Evade phaogcytes

    • D. 

      Produce toxins


  • 62. 
    The complex resulting from complement activity that leads to cell lysis is the
    • A. 

      Prostaglandin complex

    • B. 

      Leukotriene activating complex

    • C. 

      Membrane attack complex

    • D. 

      Histamine complex


  • 63. 
    Diseases that can be transmitted from one person to another are termed
    • A. 

      Symptomatic

    • B. 

      Clinical

    • C. 

      Acute

    • D. 

      Latent

    • E. 

      Communicable


  • 64. 
    Opportunists or opportunistic pathogens
    • A. 

      Are usually saprophytes

    • B. 

      Take advantage of special circumstances

    • C. 

      Are usually mutalistic

    • D. 

      Always cause disease


  • 65. 
    A relationship in which one partner benefits and the other is unaffected is termed
    • A. 

      Commensalism

    • B. 

      Parasitism

    • C. 

      Independence

    • D. 

      Mutualism


  • 66. 
    All of the following are involved in Type II hypersensitivity except
    • A. 

      IgM

    • B. 

      IgG

    • C. 

      IgE

    • D. 

      Complement

    • E. 

      Foreign cells


  • 67. 
    The humoral immune response involves the manufacture and use of 
    • A. 

      Antibodies

    • B. 

      T cells

    • C. 

      Lymphokines

    • D. 

      Antigens


  • 68. 
    A person with O type blood
    • A. 

      Lacks all the alleles for ABO blood type

    • B. 

      Lacks A and B antigens

    • C. 

      Could not have the Rh factor

    • D. 

      Is called a universal recipient

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct


  • 69. 
    The complement pathway that requires antibodies to be activated is the
    • A. 

      Alternate pathway

    • B. 

      Classical pathway

    • C. 

      Properdin pathway

    • D. 

      Inflammatory pathway


  • 70. 
    The microorganisms that are regularly found in or on the body, yet do no apparent  harm are called
    • A. 

      Abnormal flora

    • B. 

      Transient flora

    • C. 

      Variant flora

    • D. 

      Normal flora


  • 71. 
    The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when
    • A. 

      Maternal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- fetus

    • B. 

      Fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- mother

    • C. 

      Maternal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ fetus

    • D. 

      Fetal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ mother

    • E. 

      Fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh+ mother


  • 72. 
    T cells and B cells are manufactured in the
    • A. 

      Bone marrow

    • B. 

      Thymus

    • C. 

      Peyer's Patches

    • D. 

      Nervous tissue


  • 73. 
    Which of the following is a phagocytic cell found in the human body?
    • A. 

      Erythrocyte

    • B. 

      Neutrophil

    • C. 

      B cell

    • D. 

      T cell


  • 74. 
    An epidemic that spreads worldwide is called a(n)
    • A. 

      Epidemical

    • B. 

      Endemic

    • C. 

      Pandemic

    • D. 

      Syndemic


  • 75. 
    Allergic reactions mainly involve
    • A. 

      Macrophages

    • B. 

      Monocytes

    • C. 

      Neutrophils

    • D. 

      Mast cells


  • 76. 
    Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis?
    • A. 

      Neutralization

    • B. 

      Opsonization

    • C. 

      Complement fixation

    • D. 

      Agllutination

    • E. 

      Anamnestic response


  • 77. 
    MHC molecules are found on each of the following cells except
    • A. 

      Leukocytes

    • B. 

      Eosinophils

    • C. 

      Epithelial cells

    • D. 

      Red blood cells

    • E. 

      Islet of langerhans cells


  • 78. 
    Delayed type hypersensitivity primarily involves
    • A. 

      Erythrocytes

    • B. 

      B Cells

    • C. 

      T cells

    • D. 

      Mast cells


  • 79. 
    Organisms that are found together and interact on a more or less permanent basis are in a relationship termed
    • A. 

      Mutualism

    • B. 

      Parasitism

    • C. 

      Symbiosis

    • D. 

      Commensalism


  • 80. 
    Interferons function to make cells
    • A. 

      Resistant to viral replication

    • B. 

      Lyse when exposed to virus

    • C. 

      Non-motile when infected with virus

    • D. 

      Resistant to phagocytosis


  • 81. 
    The major categories of hypersensitivities that typically involve a B-cell immunoglobulin response is/are
    • A. 

      Type I only

    • B. 

      Type I and Type IV

    • C. 

      Type IV only

    • D. 

      Type I, Type II, Type III

    • E. 

      Type I, Type II, Type III, and Type IV


  • 82. 
    T cells primarily are responsible for
    • A. 

      Humoral immunity

    • B. 

      Cell-mediated immunity

    • C. 

      Anamnestic immunity

    • D. 

      Producing haptens


  • 83. 
    The series of steps used to connect an organism to a disease are known as
    • A. 

      Pasteur's postulates

    • B. 

      Lister's aseptics

    • C. 

      Linnaeus taxonomics

    • D. 

      Koch's postulates


  • 84. 
    Macrophages and dendritic cells are
    • A. 

      T cells

    • B. 

      B cells

    • C. 

      Antigen-presenting cells

    • D. 

      Antibody-presenting cells


  • 85. 
    A disease-causing microorganism or virus is referred to as a(n)
    • A. 

      Avirulent infection

    • B. 

      Colony

    • C. 

      Commensal

    • D. 

      Pathogen


  • 86. 
    Which is not a component of innate immunity?
    • A. 

      Skin

    • B. 

      Inflammation

    • C. 

      Fever

    • D. 

      Antibody


  • 87. 
    Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby disrupting their activity?
    • A. 

      Neutralization

    • B. 

      Opsonization

    • C. 

      Complement fixation

    • D. 

      Agglutination

    • E. 

      Anamnestic response


  • 88. 
    An infection acquired during hospitalization is reffered to as
    • A. 

      Antibiotic-induced

    • B. 

      Therapeutic

    • C. 

      Medication-stimulated

    • D. 

      Nosocomial


  • 89. 
    Inanimate objects capable of transferring infectious disease agents are
    • A. 

      Vectors

    • B. 

      Fomites

    • C. 

      Vehicles

    • D. 

      Reservoirs


  • 90. 
    The leukocyte responsible for adaptive immunity is the
    • A. 

      Lymphocyte

    • B. 

      Monocyte

    • C. 

      Eosinophil

    • D. 

      Neutrophil


  • 91. 
    Diseases that cause long-term or permanent damage leave
    • A. 

      Latent

    • B. 

      Sequelae

    • C. 

      Directly

    • D. 

      Indirectly

    • E. 

      Chronically


  • 92. 
    A __________ is an infection indigenous to animals that can, on occasion, be transmitted to humans
    • A. 

      Secondary infection

    • B. 

      Sequelae

    • C. 

      Nosocomial infection

    • D. 

      Zoonosis

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct


  • 93. 
    The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the
    • A. 

      Skin

    • B. 

      Respiratory tract

    • C. 

      Digestive tract

    • D. 

      Urinary tract

    • E. 

      Eyes


  • 94. 
    Which is mismatched?
    • A. 

      Fibriae - adherence to substrate

    • B. 

      Capsultes - antiphagocytic factor

    • C. 

      Coagulase - dissolve fibrin clots

    • D. 

      Leukocidins - damage white blood cells

    • E. 

      Hemolysins - damage red blood cells


  • 95. 
    A symptom is a(n)
    • A. 

      Objective indication of disease

    • B. 

      Subjective indication of disease

    • C. 

      Measurable by health care personnel

    • D. 

      Temperature

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct


  • 96. 
    Which event is the process of releasing chemical mediators?
    • A. 

      Degranulation

    • B. 

      Bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils

    • C. 

      Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils

    • D. 

      Histamine acts on smooth muscle

    • E. 

      Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability


  • 97. 
    Nosocomial infections involve all the following except:
    • A. 

      Are only transmitted by medical personnel

    • B. 

      Often involve the patient's urinary tract and surgical incisions

    • C. 

      The patient's resident biota can be the infectious agent

    • D. 

      Escherichia coli and staphylococci are common infectious agents

    • E. 

      Medical and surgical asepsis help lower their occurrence


  • 98. 
    Pathogenic microbes that cause disease in healthy people are called
    • A. 

      Opportunistic pathogens

    • B. 

      Normal biota

    • C. 

      Indigenous biota

    • D. 

      True pathogens

    • E. 

      Micropathogens


  • 99. 
    When an individual's immune system comes into contact with an appropriate antigenic stimulus during the course of daily activities, this is called
    • A. 

      Naturally acquired passive immunity

    • B. 

      Naturally acquired active immunity

    • C. 

      Artificially acquired active immunity

    • D. 

      Artificially acquired passive immunity


  • 100. 
    Under normal circumstances, the microbiota of the skin is kept in check by
    • A. 

      A high pH (>8)

    • B. 

      A slightly acidic pH

    • C. 

      Phagocytic activity

    • D. 

      Excessive moisture


  • 101. 
    All blood cells originate from the
    • A. 

      Erythrocyte

    • B. 

      Leukocytic stem cell

    • C. 

      Eosinophilic stem cell

    • D. 

      Hematopoietic stem cell


  • 102. 
    The initial encounter with an allergen is called the
    • A. 

      Sensitizing dose

    • B. 

      Provocative dose

    • C. 

      Allergic dose

    • D. 

      Hypersensitivity dose

    • E. 

      Densensitizing dose


  • 103. 
    __________ carriers are shedding and transmitting pathogen while they are recovering from an infectious disease.
    • A. 

      Asymptomatic

    • B. 

      Passive

    • C. 

      Incubation

    • D. 

      Chronic

    • E. 

      Convalescent


  • 104. 
    Each of the following are physical barriers to pathogens except
    • A. 

      Unbroken skin

    • B. 

      Mucous

    • C. 

      Hairs

    • D. 

      Tears

    • E. 

      T Cells


  • 105. 
    Which of the following is the endotoxin?
    • A. 

      Hemolysin

    • B. 

      Hyaluronidase

    • C. 

      Toxinosis

    • D. 

      Collagenase

    • E. 

      Lipopolysaccharide


  • 106. 
    The transfer of antibodies in colostrum is a good example of
    • A. 

      Naturally acquired passive immunity

    • B. 

      Naturally acquired active immunity

    • C. 

      Artificially acquired active immunity

    • D. 

      Artificially acquired passive immunity


  • 107. 
    In multiple sclerosis, autoantibodies attack
    • A. 

      Myelin sheath cells of the nervous system

    • B. 

      Acetylcholine receptors on smooth muscle

    • C. 

      Acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle

    • D. 

      Sodium pump proteins in the cell membrane

    • E. 

      Cells in thyroid follicles


  • 108. 
    Substances that are recognized as foriegn and provoke immune responses are called
    • A. 

      Antibodies

    • B. 

      Antigens

    • C. 

      Infective agents

    • D. 

      Inducers


  • 109. 
    Exotoxins
    • A. 

      Are secreted by pathogenic organisms

    • B. 

      Are bound to the membrane of pathogenic organisms

    • C. 

      Are bound to the cell wall of pathogenic organisms

    • D. 

      Cause more damage than endotoxins

    • E. 

      Are host specific


  • 110. 
    The complement pathway that is activated by mannan binding lectins is the 
    • A. 

      Classical pathway

    • B. 

      Alternate pathway

    • C. 

      C3 pathway

    • D. 

      Lectin pathway


  • 111. 
    A properly functioning immune system is responsible for
    • A. 

      Surveillance of the body

    • B. 

      Recognition of foreign material

    • C. 

      Destruction of foreign material

    • D. 

      B and C

    • E. 

      A, B, and C


  • 112. 
    Each of the following are inoculation of normal biota to a newborn except
    • A. 

      The birth process through the birth canal

    • B. 

      Bottle feeding

    • C. 

      Breast feeding

    • D. 

      Contact with hospital staff

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct


  • 113. 
    Which type of hypersensitivity is IgE?
    • A. 

      Type IV

    • B. 

      Type III

    • C. 

      Type II

    • D. 

      Type I


  • 114. 
    All the following are events of early inflammation except
    • A. 

      Macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis

    • B. 

      Chemical mediators and cytokines are released

    • C. 

      Brief vasoconstriction is followed by vasodilation

    • D. 

      Exudate and pus can accumulate

    • E. 

      Capillaries become more permeable resulting in edema


  • 115. 
    Which of the following is not an event of phagocytosis?
    • A. 

      Diapedesis

    • B. 

      Chemotaxis

    • C. 

      Phagolysosome formation

    • D. 

      Destruction

    • E. 

      Ingestion


  • 116. 
    Autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all the following diseases except
    • A. 

      Rheumatoid arthritis

    • B. 

      Myasthenia gravis

    • C. 

      Graves' disease

    • D. 

      Tuberculin reaction

    • E. 

      Multiple Sclerosis


  • 117. 
    A systemic, sometimes fatal reaction with airway obstruction and circulatory collapse is
    • A. 

      Delayed

    • B. 

      T cell mediated

    • C. 

      Atopic

    • D. 

      Antibody-mediated

    • E. 

      Anaphylaxis


  • 118. 
    Each of the following can result in acquired immune deficiencies except
    • A. 

      Malnutrition

    • B. 

      Stress

    • C. 

      Pregnancy

    • D. 

      Bacterial infection

    • E. 

      Radiation treatment


  • 119. 
    Which lymphocytes lack specificity for antigen and are cells that attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells?
    • A. 

      Helper T cells

    • B. 

      Suppressor T cells

    • C. 

      Cytotoxic T cells

    • D. 

      Delayed hypersensitivity T cells

    • E. 

      Natural Killer (NK) cells


  • 120. 
    Fever
    • A. 

      Enhances bacterial growth

    • B. 

      Inhibits bacterial growth

    • C. 

      Speeds up the body's reactions

    • D. 

      Triggers complement

    • E. 

      Inhibits bacterial growth AND speeds up the body's reactions


  • 121. 
    The response of the immune system the second time an invader is encountered is called
    • A. 

      The anamnestic response

    • B. 

      The effector response

    • C. 

      The enhanced response

    • D. 

      None of the choices


  • 122. 
    The virulence factors of a pathogen are established by how strong or weak a patient's body defenses are at the time of infection.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 123. 
    During phagocytosis, intracellular digestion begins as soon as the phagosome is formed
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 124. 
    Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 125. 
    The production of interferon will protect the host cell from a viral infection.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 126. 
    After secreting antibodies during an immune response, plasma cells then differentiate into memory cells.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 127. 
    A person who is Rh- will have anti-Rh antibodies in their serum from early infancy.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 128. 
    When an infected person is in the incubation period, that person cannot transmit the pathogen to others.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 129. 
    Eczema is an autoimmune disorder.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 130. 
    The secondary response to an antigen is faster and bigger than the primary response.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 131. 
    Inflammation responses are orchestrated by the immune system and are part of the body's third line of defense.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 132. 
    Which class of antibody accounts for the bulk of the circulating antibody?
    • A. 

      IgA

    • B. 

      IgD

    • C. 

      IgG

    • D. 

      IgE


  • 133. 
    The beauty of specific immunity is the production of __________ that provides long-lasting protection.
    • A. 

      Antibodies

    • B. 

      Plasma cells

    • C. 

      T helper cells

    • D. 

      Memory cells

    • E. 

      Phagocytotic cells


  • 134. 
    The cytokine produced by animal cells in response to viral infections
    • A. 

      Complement

    • B. 

      Lysozyme

    • C. 

      Histamine

    • D. 

      Interferon


  • 135. 
    Which is the first antibody class made during the primary response to an antigen?
    • A. 

      IgA

    • B. 

      IgM

    • C. 

      IgG

    • D. 

      IgE


  • 136. 
    When an infectious disease cannot spread in a population because it lacks a significant number of susceptible hosts, the phenomenon is referred to as
    • A. 

      Protected population

    • B. 

      Active immunity

    • C. 

      Passive immunity

    • D. 

      Herd immunity


  • 137. 
    Diseases constantly present in a population are
    • A. 

      Epidemic

    • B. 

      Chronic

    • C. 

      Latent

    • D. 

      Endemic


  • 138. 
    The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all the following except
    • A. 

      Redness

    • B. 

      Warmth

    • C. 

      Swelling

    • D. 

      Pain

    • E. 

      Chills


  • 139. 
    The only class of antibody that can cross the placenta is
    • A. 

      IgA

    • B. 

      IgD

    • C. 

      IgG

    • D. 

      IgE


  • 140. 
    Diapedesis is the
    • A. 

      Loss of blood due to hemorrhaging

    • B. 

      Production of only red blood cells

    • C. 

      Production of white blood cells, red blood cells and platelets

    • D. 

      Plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding

    • E. 

      Migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues


  • 141. 
    Which white blood cells comprise 3-7% of circulating WBC's, are phagocytic and can migrate out into body tissues to differentiate into macrophages?
    • A. 

      Basophils

    • B. 

      Eosinophils

    • C. 

      Neutrophils

    • D. 

      Monocytes

    • E. 

      Lymphocytes


  • 142. 
    Which of the following is not a method of adhesion?
    • A. 

      Fibriae

    • B. 

      Surface proteins

    • C. 

      Specialized receptors

    • D. 

      Adhesive slime or capsules

    • E. 

      Cilia


  • 143. 
    The immunoglobulin that is important in hypersensitivity reactions is
    • A. 

      IgA

    • B. 

      IgD

    • C. 

      IgD

    • D. 

      IgE


  • 144. 
    How long after initiation of a primary response do signifiant amounts of antibody appear in the blood?
    • A. 

      One day

    • B. 

      10-14 days

    • C. 

      4 weeks

    • D. 

      6 weeks


  • 145. 
    The chemical nature of exotoxins is that of a
    • A. 

      Protein

    • B. 

      Carbohydrate

    • C. 

      Lipid

    • D. 

      Lipopolysaccharide


  • 146. 
    The chemical nature of endotoxins is that of a
    • A. 

      Protein

    • B. 

      Nucleic acid

    • C. 

      Lipid

    • D. 

      Lipopolysaccharide


  • 147. 
    Which immunoglobulin class/es can fix complement?
    • A. 

      IgM only

    • B. 

      IgG only

    • C. 

      IgD only

    • D. 

      IgM and IgG

    • E. 

      IgE and IgA


  • 148. 
    The immunoglobulin/s found on the surface of B cells is/are
    • A. 

      IgM only

    • B. 

      IgG only

    • C. 

      IgD only

    • D. 

      IgM and IgD

    • E. 

      IgD and IgE


  • 149. 
    Which of the following statements is true?
    • A. 

      Evolution selects for the most virulent pathogens

    • B. 

      A successful pathogen never kills its host

    • C. 

      The primary goal of a pathogen is to kill its host

    • D. 

      A successful pathogen does not kill its host before it is transmitted


  • 150. 
    A vaccination is a good example of
    • A. 

      Naturally acquired passive immunity

    • B. 

      Naturally acquired active immunity

    • C. 

      Artificially acquired active immunity

    • D. 

      Artificially acquired passive immunity


  • 151. 
    The affect of "good" microbes against invading microbes is called
    • A. 

      Microbial antagonism

    • B. 

      Endogenous infection

    • C. 

      Infectious disease

    • D. 

      Axenic

    • E. 

      Gnotobiotism


  • 152. 
    The most numerous WBC's that have multilobed nuclei and are very phatocytic are
    • A. 

      Basophils

    • B. 

      Eosinophils

    • C. 

      Neutrophils

    • D. 

      Monocytes

    • E. 

      Lymphocytes


  • 153. 
    A person who has anti A and anti B serum antibodies will have blood type
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      AB

    • D. 

      O

    • E. 

      Rh


  • 154. 
    Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen?
    • A. 

      Neutralization

    • B. 

      Opsonization

    • C. 

      Complement fixation

    • D. 

      Agglutination

    • E. 

      Amnamnestic response


  • 155. 
    Which of the following antibodies is a pentamer?
    • A. 

      IgA

    • B. 

      IgD

    • C. 

      IgM

    • D. 

      IgE


  • 156. 
    Tears protect the eyes by
    • A. 

      Flushing and lysozyme

    • B. 

      Inflammation

    • C. 

      Vasodilation

    • D. 

      Stimulating opsonization

    • E. 

      Flushing and lysozyme and vasodilation


  • 157. 
    The initial, brief period of early, general symptoms such as fatigue and muscle aches is the
    • A. 

      Prodromal period

    • B. 

      Period of convalescent

    • C. 

      Incubation period

    • D. 

      Period of illness

    • E. 

      Period of decline


  • 158. 
    Which of the following is one of the body's first lines of defense against infection?
    • A. 

      Increased production of certain hormones and changes in the blood circulation

    • B. 

      Several nonspecific amino acid toxins

    • C. 

      Several nonspecific antibodies

    • D. 

      Several nonspecific obstacles such as skin and mucous membranes

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 159. 
    A substance that can elicit an immune response is called a(n)
    • A. 

      Complement

    • B. 

      Antibody

    • C. 

      Histamine

    • D. 

      Antigen

    • E. 

      Interferon


  • 160. 
    Which of the following cell types is specifically responsible for cell-mediated immunity?
    • A. 

      B Cells

    • B. 

      Macrophages

    • C. 

      T cells

    • D. 

      Neutrophils

    • E. 

      Natural killer (NK) cells


  • 161. 
    Antibodies are __________.
    • A. 

      Proteins

    • B. 

      Nucleic acids

    • C. 

      Amino acids

    • D. 

      Lipids

    • E. 

      Carbohydrates


  • 162. 
    Which of the following statements about antibodies is NOT true?
    • A. 

      Antibodies recognize and bind to particular antigens

    • B. 

      Antibodies assist in destroying particular antigenic particles

    • C. 

      The body can produce only a very limited number of different antibodies

    • D. 

      All of the polypeptide chains of an antibody molecule have both a V region and a C region

    • E. 

      Antibody molecules are constructed from four molecular chains


  • 163. 
    The basic function of T cells is to identify and destroy invaders in our __________.
    • A. 

      Immune system

    • B. 

      Blood or lymph

    • C. 

      Brain

    • D. 

      Interstitial fluid

    • E. 

      Cells


  • 164. 
    Which of the following cell types is specifically responsible for humoral immunity?
    • A. 

      B Cells

    • B. 

      Macrophages

    • C. 

      T cells

    • D. 

      Neutrophils

    • E. 

      Natural killer (NK) cells


  • 165. 
    Which type of immune response is always disadvantageous to a person?
    • A. 

      Inflammatory

    • B. 

      Autoimmune

    • C. 

      Cell-mediated

    • D. 

      Humoral-mediated

    • E. 

      All immune responses are advantageous


  • 166. 
    A researcher detects interferon in a laboratory rat and concludes that __________.
    • A. 

      Cancerous cells are present in the rat

    • B. 

      The rat's diet is deficient in calcium

    • C. 

      The complement system is activated by exposure to an antigen

    • D. 

      The rat has, or recently had, a viral infection

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 167. 
    Which of the following triggers our nonspecific defense system?
    • A. 

      Inflammation

    • B. 

      Passive immunity

    • C. 

      Cell-mediated immunity

    • D. 

      Movement of erythrocytes to the affected site

    • E. 

      Active immunity


  • 168. 
    The transfer of antibodies from breast milk to an infant is an example of __________ immunity.
    • A. 

      Passive

    • B. 

      Humoral

    • C. 

      Cell-mediated

    • D. 

      Active

    • E. 

      Nonspecific


  • 169. 
    Anaphylactic shock is an example of an __________.
    • A. 

      Immunodeficiency disease

    • B. 

      Acquired autoimmune disease

    • C. 

      Acquired immunodeficiency disease

    • D. 

      Allergic response

    • E. 

      Autoimmune disease


  • 170. 
    Complement proteins assist the immune response by __________.
    • A. 

      Coating the surface of microbes, thus making it easier for macrophages to phagocytize them

    • B. 

      Reducing inflammation

    • C. 

      Enhancing the effects of antibiotics

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 171. 
    Which of the following substances does a cytotoxic T cell secrete to destroy a target cell?
    • A. 

      Pyrogen

    • B. 

      Perforin

    • C. 

      Complement

    • D. 

      Interferon

    • E. 

      Antibodies


  • 172. 
    Which of the following is a major function of natural killer (NK) cells?
    • A. 

      To attack virus-infected cells in a nonspecific way

    • B. 

      To phagocytize microorganisms that have been tagged with antibodies

    • C. 

      To tag pathogenic microorganisms with antibodies

    • D. 

      To attack virus-infected cells in an antigen-specific way

    • E. 

      To attack and kill pathogenic microorganisms in a nonspecific way


  • 173. 
    What kinds of cells wander the interstitial fluid eating whatever bacteria and virus-infected cells they encounter and recognize?
    • A. 

      Leukocytes

    • B. 

      Macrophages

    • C. 

      Monocytes

    • D. 

      Natural killer (NK) cells

    • E. 

      Interferons


  • 174. 
    Which of the following kinds of protein circulates in the blood and coats the surfaces of microbes to make them more susceptible to engulfment by macrophages?
    • A. 

      Antigen

    • B. 

      Complement

    • C. 

      Pyrogen

    • D. 

      Interferon

    • E. 

      Prostaglandin


  • 175. 
    Which of the following types of cells does HIV preferentially infect?
    • A. 

      Cytotoic T cells

    • B. 

      Memory cells

    • C. 

      Helper T cells

    • D. 

      Macrophages

    • E. 

      Natural killer (NK) cells


  • 176. 
    Which of the following diseases is NOT thought to be an autoimmune disease?
    • A. 

      Systemic lupus erythematosus

    • B. 

      Cancer of the bone marrow

    • C. 

      Multiple sclerosis

    • D. 

      Insulin-dependent diabetes

    • E. 

      Rheumatoid arthritis


  • 177. 
    Why do diseases involving widespread infection usually result in a fever?
    • A. 

      The microorganisms trick the brain's temperature control center (hypothalamus) into creating a hot environment that favors their growth.

    • B. 

      The inflammatory and immune responses result in extra heat production

    • C. 

      The rapid multiplication of the invading microorganisms results in extra heat production

    • D. 

      The brain's temperature control center responds to inflammation by creating a hot environment unfavorable to microorganisms

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct


  • 178. 
    What is a primary immune response?
    • A. 

      The immune response elicited by the primary antigen of a disease-causing microorganism

    • B. 

      The immune response elicited by the first exposure of memory cells to a particular antigen

    • C. 

      The immune response elicited by the first exposure of lymphocytes to a particular antigen

    • D. 

      The immune response elicited by the primary antibody of a disease-causing microorganism

    • E. 

      The production of primary-type antibody in the first day of exposure to a microorganism


  • 179. 
    Which of the following is NOT an activity of antibodies?
    • A. 

      Neutralization of the invader

    • B. 

      Physically blocking antigens

    • C. 

      Phagocytosis of invaders

    • D. 

      Clumping of invader cells

    • E. 

      Activation of complement proteins


  • 180. 
    Which of the following compounds are mast cells specialized to secrete?
    • A. 

      Interferon

    • B. 

      Perforin

    • C. 

      Histamine

    • D. 

      Complement

    • E. 

      Allergens


  • 181. 
    When you cut yourself, the damaged cells immediately release which of the following chemical alarm signals?
    • A. 

      Anti-interferon

    • B. 

      Histamine

    • C. 

      Pyrogens

    • D. 

      Complement

    • E. 

      Interferon


  • 182. 
    Which of the following cell types initiates a secondary immune response?
    • A. 

      Immature leukocytes

    • B. 

      Memory cells

    • C. 

      Plasma cells

    • D. 

      Natural killer (NK) cells

    • E. 

      Effector cells


  • 183. 
    The symbiotic relationship wherein both partners benefit is termed
    • A. 

      Commensalism

    • B. 

      Parasitism

    • C. 

      Independence

    • D. 

      Mutualism


  • 184. 
    The idea that communicable diseases were caused by the passage of living things from one person to another was first put forth by
    • A. 

      Fracastorius

    • B. 

      Pasteur

    • C. 

      Thucydides

    • D. 

      Leeuwenhoek


  • 185. 
    The interaction of all organisms within a biological community is called a(n)
    • A. 

      Dialogue

    • B. 

      Chat room

    • C. 

      Ecosystem

    • D. 

      Relationship


  • 186. 
    A relationship in which one partner benefits and the other is harmed is termed
    • A. 

      Commensalism

    • B. 

      Parasitism

    • C. 

      Independence

    • D. 

      Mutualism


  • 187. 
    The resident microbial population of the human fetus is
    • A. 

      Zero

    • B. 

      Sparse

    • C. 

      Complex

    • D. 

      Symbiotic


  • 188. 
    Which of the following is true about the role normal flora play in maintaining host health?
    • A. 

      They provide a surface that is incompatible for attachment of an invader

    • B. 

      They establish a competition for nutrients and vitamins

    • C. 

      They produce antimicrobial substances

    • D. 

      They stimulate the immune system

    • E. 

      All of the above are true


  • 189. 
    Which of the following members of the normal flora inhibits the growth of Corynebacterium diphtheriae by producing hydrogen peroxide?
    • A. 

      E. coli

    • B. 

      Streptococcus species

    • C. 

      Staphylococci species

    • D. 

      Propionibacterium species


  • 190. 
    Which of the following members of the normal flora inhibits the growth of bacteria by production of fatty acids from lipids?
    • A. 

      E. coli

    • B. 

      Streptococcus pyogenes

    • C. 

      Staphylococcus epidermidis

    • D. 

      Propionibacterium species

    • E. 

      C and d


  • 191. 
    Which of the following may inhibit the activity of normal flora and allow pathogens to become established?
    • A. 

      Peroxides

    • B. 

      Acids

    • C. 

      Fatty acids

    • D. 

      Antibiotics


  • 192. 
    A diet high in meat leads to a population of normal flora with an increased number of
    • A. 

      E. coli

    • B. 

      Streptococci pyogenes

    • C. 

      Staphylococci epidemidis

    • D. 

      Bacteroides species

    • E. 

      C and D


  • 193. 
    Growth of a parasitic organism in or on the host is referred to as
    • A. 

      Colonization

    • B. 

      Infection

    • C. 

      Pathogenism

    • D. 

      Mutualism


  • 194. 
    A member of the normal flora that becomes an opportunist if it invades the urinary bladder is
    • A. 

      P. vulgaris

    • B. 

      C. diptheria

    • C. 

      S. typhimurium

    • D. 

      E. coli


  • 195. 
    An obligate intracellular pathogen may
    • A. 

      Only survive outside the cell

    • B. 

      Survive inside or outside the cell

    • C. 

      Survive in the interstitial tissue

    • D. 

      May only survive and grow inside a cell


  • 196. 
    Attributes of an organism that promote pathogenicity are called
    • A. 

      Disease factors

    • B. 

      Colonization factors

    • C. 

      Mutualistic

    • D. 

      Virulence factors


  • 197. 
    Avirulent organisms are
    • A. 

      More likely to cause disease

    • B. 

      More likely to cause severe disease

    • C. 

      Unable to cause disease

    • D. 

      Pathogenic


  • 198. 
    Which of the following may be considered virulence factors?
    • A. 

      Adhesins

    • B. 

      Capsules

    • C. 

      Endotoxins

    • D. 

      Proteases

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 199. 
    Which of the following does S. pneumoniae use to survive in the host?
    • A. 

      Plasmids

    • B. 

      Pili

    • C. 

      Flagella

    • D. 

      Capsules


  • 200. 
    Which of the following would be considered a sign of a disease?
    • A. 

      Headache

    • B. 

      Pain

    • C. 

      Nausea

    • D. 

      Fever of 39°C


  • 201. 
    People who carry and may spread pathogenic organisms without any overt symptoms of illness are called
    • A. 

      Primary infections

    • B. 

      Secondary infections

    • C. 

      Mutualists

    • D. 

      Carriers


  • 202. 
    The spread of toxin via the circulation is called
    • A. 

      Septicemia

    • B. 

      Bacteremia

    • C. 

      Sepsis

    • D. 

      Toxemia


  • 203. 
    If a disease affects only a human and not an animal, then it would be difficult to fulfill Koch's postulate number ___.
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4


  • 204. 
    Transmission of an infectious disease by touching, handshaking, or kissing is considered
    • A. 

      Direct contact

    • B. 

      Indirect contact

    • C. 

      Infectious connection

    • D. 

      Communicable actions


  • 205. 
    Which of the following is considered an indirect mode of transmission?
    • A. 

      Sexual intercourse

    • B. 

      Touching

    • C. 

      Handshaking

    • D. 

      Insect bites


  • 206. 
    Fomites are involved in
    • A. 

      Direct contacts

    • B. 

      Indirect contacts

    • C. 

      Direct infectious connections

    • D. 

      Communicable actions


  • 207. 
    The number of organisms necessary to insure infection is termed the
    • A. 

      Infectious dose

    • B. 

      Fatal number

    • C. 

      Minimum lethal dose

    • D. 

      Pathogenic number


  • 208. 
    The portal of entry
    • A. 

      Has no effect on the establishment of an infection

    • B. 

      Plays a role in whether an infection will be established

    • C. 

      May be the skin or respiratory tract

    • D. 

      May be the same as the portal of exit

    • E. 

      B, c and d


  • 209. 
    Typically, adhesins
    • A. 

      Are found on the pili

    • B. 

      Help bacteria attach to host cells

    • C. 

      Are proteins

    • D. 

      Are found on host cells

    • E. 

      A, b and c


  • 210. 
    Density-dependent expression of virulence factors is called
    • A. 

      Pathogenicity

    • B. 

      Size dependency

    • C. 

      Key number

    • D. 

      Quorum sensing


  • 211. 
    C5a peptidase
    • A. 

      Is a virulence factor

    • B. 

      Synthesizes C5a

    • C. 

      Is produced by the host cell in response to infection

    • D. 

      Is a molecule promoting chemotaxis

    • E. 

      A and d


  • 212. 
    Which of the following is/are true about endotoxins?
    • A. 

      Lipid A is the toxic portion of the molecule

    • B. 

      The toxic effects depend on the bacteria from which it came

    • C. 

      The lipid A is immunogenic

    • D. 

      The O antigens are the same for all bacteria

    • E. 

      B and d


  • 213. 
    The lack of susceptibility to diseases of other species in humans may be due to the
    • A. 

      Secretion of exotoxins

    • B. 

      Presence of endotoxins

    • C. 

      Action of IL-2

    • D. 

      Lack of receptors that are recognized by adherence factors


  • 214. 
    Bacteria may survive phagocytosis by
    • A. 

      Preventing fusion of the lysosome with the phagosome

    • B. 

      Preventing acidification of the phagolysosome

    • C. 

      Producing comet tails

    • D. 

      Preventing fusion of two phagosomes

    • E. 

      A and b


  • 215. 
    Which is true about superantigens?
    • A. 

      They are a type of exotoxin

    • B. 

      They bind to MHC class II antigen on T cells

    • C. 

      They enhance specific antibody production

    • D. 

      They are processed intracellularly

    • E. 

      A and b


  • 216. 
    Which is/are true about viruses?
    • A. 

      They may suppress the production of MHC Class I protein

    • B. 

      They may produce an MHC Class I mimic protein

    • C. 

      They may prevent cell suicide

    • D. 

      They may bind to MHC class II antigens

    • E. 

      A, b and c


  • 217. 
    An example of genetic variation used in pathogen survival may be
    • A. 

      Production of a comet's tail

    • B. 

      Protease production

    • C. 

      Inhibition of MHC Class I antigen production

    • D. 

      Changing the pilus type

    • E. 

      A and b


  • 218. 
    Which is true about botox?
    • A. 

      It is an endotoxin

    • B. 

      It is produced by S. aureus

    • C. 

      It may cause botulism

    • D. 

      It is useful in treating conditions related to muscle contractions

    • E. 

      C and d


  • 219. 
    In Gram-negative bacteria, many of the genes required for pathogenicity are
    • A. 

      Located far from one another on the chromosome

    • B. 

      Individually transferred between bacteria

    • C. 

      Located close together on chromosomes in regions called pathogenicity islands

    • D. 

      Located on separate chromosomes

    • E. 

      B and c


  • 220. 
    Microbes may evade host defensive responses by
    • A. 

      Inhibiting genetic variation

    • B. 

      Mimicking host materials

    • C. 

      Taking over the cell's myosin

    • D. 

      Encouraging fusion of the phagosome with the lysosome

    • E. 

      A and c


  • 221. 
    Infection always leads to disease.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 222. 
    A disease is an infection that impairs the normal state of health.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 223. 
    During incubation and convalescence a person may still spread infectious organisms.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 224. 
    The infectious dose of most pathogens is about equal.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 225. 
    A strong attachment of a microorganism to a host cell automatically leads to disease.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 226. 
    High concentrations of some bacteria are necessary for successful invasion because only at high density are their virulence genes expressed.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 227. 
    Only Gram-positive bacteria produce exotoxins.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 228. 
    The two main functions of the lymphatic system are
    • A. 

      Returning tissue fluid to the circulatory system and coagulating blood

    • B. 

      Coagulating blood and fighting infections

    • C. 

      Returning tissue fluid to the circulatory system and fighting infections

    • D. 

      Producing hormones that regulate the immune system and coagulating blood

    • E. 

      Producing hormones that regulate the immune system and fighting infections


  • 229. 
    Antibodies
    • A. 

      Consist of three polypeptide chains

    • B. 

      Assist in destroying particular antigens

    • C. 

      Are generalists in that any antibody can bind to any antigen

    • D. 

      Are shaped like the letter B

    • E. 

      All of the above


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