What Do You Know About Human Genetics? Quiz

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What Do You Know About Human Genetics? Quiz - Quiz

Human genetics is the art in which scientists try to understand how traits and characteristics are inherited in human beings. From your biology class, just how much do you think you know about human genetics? Do you know how to explain and show their probability of occurrence? Take up the test below and see how knowledgeable you are. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Sequencing of the first three human genomes revealed that the percent of our SNPs likely to influence our phenotypes is

    • A.

      0

    • B.

    • C.

      About 2

    • D.

      About 10

    Correct Answer
    B.
  • 2. 

    The strategy that was ultimately the most successful in sequencing the human genome was

    • A.

      The clone-by-clone technique.

    • B.

      The recombinant DNA approach.

    • C.

      The epigenesis approach.

    • D.

      The whole genome shotgun approach.

    Correct Answer
    D. The whole genome shotgun approach.
  • 3. 

    Two technologies that sped progress of the human genome project in 1991 were

    • A.

      Recombinant DNA technology and PCR.

    • B.

      Amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling.

    • C.

      Screening for sickle cell disease and FISH to identify aneuploidy.

    • D.

      Expressed sequence tags and microarrays.

    Correct Answer
    D. Expressed sequence tags and microarrays.
  • 4. 

      Sequencing the yeast genome received priority because

    • A.

      Yeast causes infections in humans.

    • B.

      Yeast is essential in baking and brewing.

    • C.

      Yeast is the simplest organism to have a nucleus.

    • D.

      the number of yeast genes is a round number - 6,000.

    Correct Answer
    C. Yeast is the simplest organism to have a nucleus.
  • 5. 

    Positional cloning

    • A.

      Seeks regions of the genome shared by the members of large families who have the same Mendelian disorder.

    • B.

      scans and then sequences the human genome chromosome by chromosome, in size order.

    • C.

      Determines the sequence of protein-encoding genes on a chromosome.

    • D.

      identifies expressed sequence tags in genes of interest.

    Correct Answer
    A. Seeks regions of the genome shared by the members of large families who have the same Mendelian disorder.
  • 6. 

    The basis of Sanger DNA sequencing is to

    • A.

      identify ESTs and place them in order based on their function to derive the overall sequence.

    • B.

      collect all of the mRNAs of a given cell type, make cDNAs from them, align the cDNAs, and derive the overall sequence.

    • C.

      Break several copies of a genome into 3-base codons, and align them to derive the overall sequence.

    • D.

      . generate a series of fragments from an overall DNA sequence that differ by the end base of each. Overlap the pieces and read off the overhangs to derive the sequence.

    Correct Answer
    D. . generate a series of fragments from an overall DNA sequence that differ by the end base of each. Overlap the pieces and read off the overhangs to derive the sequence.
  • 7. 

    The term genome was first used by

    • A.

      H. Winkler in 1920.

    • B.

      Francis Crick in 1962.

    • C.

      Francis Collins in 1992.

    • D.

      J. Craig Venter in 1990.

    Correct Answer
    A. H. Winkler in 1920.
  • 8. 

    Research has been identifying the genes that cause inherited disease for

    • A.

      A century.

    • B.

      Half a century.

    • C.

      A decade.

    • D.

      Since completion of the human genome project in 2000.

    Correct Answer
    B. Half a century.
  • 9. 

    DNA sequencing can reveal

    • A.

      Mutations that do not alter phenotype.

    • B.

      Mutations that do not alter genotype.

    • C.

      Which tissues express a gene.

    • D.

      How many genes a person has.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mutations that do not alter phenotype.
  • 10. 

    The original impetus to sequence the human genome was to investigate

    • A.

      How the four nitrogenous bases encode information.

    • B.

      How people vary.

    • C.

      the effects of exposure to low-level radiation on the genetics of populations.

    • D.

      how inherited diseases are related to non-inherited diseases, such as infections, degenerative diseases, and autoimmune diseases.

    Correct Answer
    C. the effects of exposure to low-level radiation on the genetics of populations.
  • 11. 

    Three percent of the human genome project budget was set aside to address issues of

    • A.

      Agriculture as it relates to cattle breeds.

    • B.

      inherited susceptibilities to infectious diseases, such as tuberculosis and malaria.

    • C.

      Ethics, the law, and society.

    • D.

      Developing technologies from genetic discoveries.

    Correct Answer
    C. Ethics, the law, and society.
  • 12. 

    Once people began to have their genomes sequenced, it became clear that we vary more than had been thought. This is because the way that the genome was initially sequenced did not account for

    • A.

      Mutations.

    • B.

      Copy number variants.

    • C.

      Copy number variants.

    • D.

      Ethnic differences.

    Correct Answer
    B. Copy number variants.
  • 13. 

    True or False. The Human Genome Project is limited to the study of humans.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
  • 14. 

    Funding for the Human Genome Project comes from _____.

    • A.

      The National Institutes of Health

    • B.

      The Department of Energy

    • C.

      the National Institutes of Health and the Department of Energy

    • D.

      The National Institutes of Health, the Department of Energy, and ELSI

    Correct Answer
    C. the National Institutes of Health and the Department of Energy
  • 15. 

    The field of ____ uses conserved sequences to identify biologically important genome regions.

    • A.

      Positional cloning

    • B.

      Sanger method

    • C.

      Comparative genomics

    • D.

      Gene expression

    Correct Answer
    C. Comparative genomics
  • 16. 

    Some cases of male infertility are due to immature sperm or sperm that cannot readily penetrate an oocyte. For these individuals, fertilization can still be accomplished using

    • A.

      CVS.

    • B.

      IVF.

    • C.

      ICSI.

    • D.

      GIFT.

    Correct Answer
    C. ICSI.
  • 17. 

    A procedure that places an oocyte and sperm in a culture dish, allows a few cell divisions, and then places the resulting very early embryo in the oocyte donor's uterus is

    • A.

      IVF.

    • B.

      Intrauterine insemination.

    • C.

      Surrogate insemination.

    • D.

      GIFT.

    Correct Answer
    A. IVF.
  • 18. 

    The fact that the live birth rate from older mothers using oocytes in IVF from much younger women is much higher than from older mothers using their own oocytes indicates that the age effects on reproductive success reflect

    • A.

      the oocyte source.

    • B.

      The uterus source.

    • C.

      The age of the father.

    • D.

      The sperm count.

    Correct Answer
    A. the oocyte source.
  • 19. 

      A surrogate mother can help couples have a child when the woman does not have a functional

    • A.

      Uterine tube.

    • B.

      Vagina.

    • C.

      Cervix.

    • D.

      Uterus.

    Correct Answer
    D. Uterus.
  • 20. 

    Which of the following contributes to subfertility?

    • A.

      Regular menstrual cycles

    • B.

      High sperm counts

    • C.

      Being under 30 years of age

    • D.

      Oligospermia.

    Correct Answer
    D. Oligospermia.
  • 21. 

    Zach undergoes a sperm analysis and is upset to learn that he has oligospermia. This means that

    • A.

      He has a sexually transmitted disease.

    • B.

      he has cancer of the spermatogonia, and his sperm will never mature.

    • C.

      He makes too many sperm, and they will crowd and kill each other.

    • D.

      He makes too few sperm, lowering the probability of one sperm successfully reaching and fertilizing an oocyte.

    Correct Answer
    D. He makes too few sperm, lowering the probability of one sperm successfully reaching and fertilizing an oocyte.
  • 22. 

      A woman who has a baby via embryo adoption is her child's

    • A.

      Genetic mother only.

    • B.

      Gestational mother only.

    • C.

      Genetic and gestational mother.

    • D.

      Gestational and surrogate mother.

    Correct Answer
    B. Gestational mother only.
  • 23. 

    Excess tissue growing in the uterine lining is called

    • A.

      Hemorrhoids.

    • B.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease.

    • C.

      Endometriosis.

    • D.

      An ectopic pregnancy.

    Correct Answer
    C. Endometriosis.
  • 24. 

    _______ was the first "test tube baby."

    • A.

      Louise Joy Brown

    • B.

      Adam Nash

    • C.

      J. Craig Venter

    • D.

      Lauren Woodward

    Correct Answer
    A. Louise Joy Brown
  • 25. 

    A normal sperm count is ____ sperm per ejaculate.  

    • A.

      10,000 - 50,000

    • B.

      100,000 - 500,000

    • C.

      1-2 million

    • D.

      20 to 200 million

    Correct Answer
    D. 20 to 200 million
  • 26. 

      Lisa and Jack Nash obtained compatible stem cells that cured their young daughter Molly's Fanconi anemia by

    • A.

      Allowing Molly to undergo gene therapy on the affected cells.

    • B.

      Allowing Molly to undergo gene therapy on her germ cells.

    • C.

      Using umbilical cord stem cells from an unrelated donor.

    • D.

      Using umbilical cord stem cells from a younger sibling, who was conceived and selected for this purpose.

    Correct Answer
    D. Using umbilical cord stem cells from a younger sibling, who was conceived and selected for this purpose.
  • 27. 

      _______ uses a blastomere biopsy to obtain a cell to test for genetic and chromosomal abnormalities.

    • A.

      Cytoplasmic donation

    • B.

      Intrauterine insemination

    • C.

      Oocyte donation

    • D.

      Preimplantation genetic diagnosis

    Correct Answer
    D. Preimplantation genetic diagnosis
  • 28. 

    Male infertility can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Antibodies against his sperm.

    • B.

      Endometriosis.

    • C.

      A varicose vein in the scrotum.

    • D.

      A malfunctioning prostate.

    Correct Answer
    B. Endometriosis.
  • 29. 

      In vitro fertilization takes place ____ hours prior to analysis of the embryo in preimplantation genetic testing procedures

    • A.

      24

    • B.

      45

    • C.

      52

    • D.

      78

    Correct Answer
    B. 45
  • 30. 

      For ____, drugs are used to control timing of ovulation in order to perform a particular procedure.

    • A.

      GIFT

    • B.

      ICSI

    • C.

      Ovulation induction

    • D.

      Surrogate motherhood

    Correct Answer
    C. Ovulation induction
  • 31. 

    Rita has been diagnosed with Her2 breast cancer, and is prescribed Herceptin. The approach of basing a drug prescribing decision on the results of a single-gene test is called

    • A.

      Pharmacogenetics.

    • B.

      Pharmacophenetics.

    • C.

      Pharmacogenomics.

    • D.

      Pharmacology.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pharmacogenetics.
  • 32. 

      Gene therapy to treat muscular dystrophy targets the gene that encodes

    • A.

      Actin.

    • B.

      Dystrophin.

    • C.

      Collagen.

    • D.

      Myoglobin.

    Correct Answer
    B. Dystrophin.
  • 33. 

    A test offered on the Web by a direct-to-consumer genetic testing company genotypes a gene for ability to taste bitter substances. This test is not regulated by the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) because

    • A.

      The test is not expensive.

    • B.

      The test provides information, not a diagnosis.

    • C.

      He test is offered in a state of the U.S. not covered by these regulations.

    • D.

      the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act outlawed CLIA.

    Correct Answer
    B. The test provides information, not a diagnosis.
  • 34. 

      Gene therapy for Leber's congenital amaurosis II consists of

    • A.

      Replacing an enzyme that restores the function of T and B cells.

    • B.

      injecting wild type alleles of the RPE64 gene into affected cells of the retina.

    • C.

      Injecting wild type alleles of the dystrophin gene into affected muscle cells.

    • D.

      Inhaling viruses that have been modified to carry the wild type CFTR gene

    Correct Answer
    B. injecting wild type alleles of the RPE64 gene into affected cells of the retina.
  • 35. 

    The field of genetic counseling began when the term was coined

    • A.

      in 1986, when the human genome project was first suggested.

    • B.

      In 2001, when the first draft of the human genome was published.

    • C.

      In 1947, to help physicians explain inherited diseases to their patients.

    • D.

      In 1953, when Watson and Crick discovered the structure of DNA.

    Correct Answer
    C. In 1947, to help physicians explain inherited diseases to their patients.
  • 36. 

    Retrovirus is given a functional version of a gene that a patient lacks and used to infect the patient's skin cells growing in culture. Skin is grown from the altered cells and grafted onto the patient. If all works well, the graft will

    • A.

      Be viewed as immunologically foreign and destroyed.

    • B.

      Be accepted and secrete the inserted gene's protein product.

    • C.

      Turn on the abnormal gene in surrounding cells.

    • D.

      Be accepted, but not express the introduced gene.

    Correct Answer
    B. Be accepted and secrete the inserted gene's protein product.
  • 37. 

    Pharmacological chaperone therapy

    • A.

      Restores proper folding to a misfolded protein.

    • B.

      Restores the double helix to opened-up DNA.

    • C.

      Restores the sugar-phosphate background to the DNA of a specific gene.

    • D.

      Provides a drug that accompanies a specific mutation, correcting it.

    Correct Answer
    A. Restores proper folding to a misfolded protein.
  • 38. 

    Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency results in

    • A.

      Canavan disease

    • B.

      hereditary emphysema

    • C.

      Neurotransmitter imbalances.

    • D.

      Severe combined immune deficiency.

    Correct Answer
    D. Severe combined immune deficiency.
  • 39. 

    A serious limitation of using a retrovirus as a vector for gene therapy is that

    • A.

      The retrovirus may insert into a proto-oncogene, causing cancer.

    • B.

      a genetically modified retrovirus causes AIDS.

    • C.

      T cannot infect rapidly dividing cells.

    • D.

      It causes ADA accumulation.

    Correct Answer
    A. The retrovirus may insert into a proto-oncogene, causing cancer.
  • 40. 

    Macy has BRCA1 breast cancer. Her sister Philene is healthy, but wants to know if she has inherited the BRCA1 mutation that could make her develop cancer. She is a candidate for a

    • A.

      Newborn screen.

    • B.

      Carrier screen.

    • C.

      Genome screen.

    • D.

      Predisposition test.

    Correct Answer
    D. Predisposition test.
  • 41. 

    The liver is a good candidate for gene therapy because

    • A.

      it has only one function.

    • B.

      It is large.

    • C.

      It is both an organ and a gland.

    • D.

      only part of it need be corrected.

    Correct Answer
    D. only part of it need be corrected.
  • 42. 

    Enzyme replacement therapy treats

    • A.

      The genotype.

    • B.

      The genome.

    • C.

      Protein folding.

    • D.

      The phenotype.

    Correct Answer
    D. The phenotype.
  • 43. 

      Tyrone has Gaucher disease. He receives recombinant glucocerebrosidase every other week in an infusion to prevent the symptoms. This treatment is an example of

    • A.

      Gene therapy.

    • B.

      Gene transfer.

    • C.

      Enzyme replacement therapy.

    • D.

      Pharmacological chaperone therapy.

    Correct Answer
    C. Enzyme replacement therapy.
  • 44. 

    Which of the following is a vector used to deliver genes in human gene therapy?

    • A.

      Parvovirus

    • B.

      Rabies virus

    • C.

      Adeno-associated virus

    • D.

      Ebola virus

    Correct Answer
    C. Adeno-associated virus
  • 45. 

    Reginald receives a stem cell transplant to treat a blood cancer, multiple myeloma. His treatment is an example of

    • A.

      Germline gene therapy.

    • B.

      heritable gene therapy.

    • C.

      Constitutional gene therapy

    • D.

      Somatic gene therapy.

    Correct Answer
    D. Somatic gene therapy.

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  • Mar 21, 2022
    Quiz Edited by
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