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Anatomy: The Vertebral Column

60 Questions
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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    • A. 

      31

    • B. 

      33

    • C. 

      35

    • D. 

      37

  • 2. 
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      6

  • 3. 
    Which region of the vertebral column contains 5 vertebrae?
    • A. 

      Cervical

    • B. 

      Thoracic

    • C. 

      Lumbar

    • D. 

      Sacal

    • E. 

      Coccyx

    • F. 

      A&C

    • G. 

      C&D

    • H. 

      C&E

    • I. 

      A,C&D

  • 4. 
    • A. 

      Height differences between anterior and posterior parts of vertebrae

    • B. 

      Thickness differences between anterior and posterior parts of vertebrae

    • C. 

      Height differences between anterior and posterior IVDs

    • D. 

      Thickness differences between anterior and posterior IVDs

  • 5. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 6. 
    • A. 

      Height differences between anterior and posterior parts of vertebrae

    • B. 

      Thickness differences between anterior and posterior parts of vertebrae

    • C. 

      Height differences between anterior and posterior IVDs

    • D. 

      Thickness differences between anterior and posterior IVDs

  • 7. 
    When does the primary curvature occur?
    • A. 

      When baby beings to hold head up

    • B. 

      When baby can sit without support

    • C. 

      When baby beings to crawl

    • D. 

      When baby starts to walk

  • 8. 
    When does the secondary curvature occur?
    • A. 

      When baby beings to hold head up

    • B. 

      When baby can sit without support

    • C. 

      When baby beings to crawl

    • D. 

      When baby starts to walk

  • 9. 
    A patient arrives at your clinic with a dowager’s hump what is the clinical name for this abnormal curvature?
    • A. 

      Kyphosis

    • B. 

      Lordosis

    • C. 

      Scoliosis

    • D. 

      Crooked Back

  • 10. 
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      7

    • D. 

      8

  • 11. 
    • A. 

      Ligaments

    • B. 

      Processes

    • C. 

      Laminae

    • D. 

      Pedicles

  • 12. 
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 13. 
    The vertebrae are interlocked via their:
    • A. 

      Articular processes

    • B. 

      Spinous processes

    • C. 

      Transverse processes

    • D. 

      Body

  • 14. 
    • A. 

      Vertebral foramen

    • B. 

      Intervetebral foramen

    • C. 

      Intravertebral foramen

    • D. 

      IVD foramen

  • 15. 
    IVDs consist of:
    • A. 

      Anulus fibrosus

    • B. 

      Anulus pulposus

    • C. 

      Nucleus fibrosus

    • D. 

      Nucleus pulposus

    • E. 

      A & C

    • F. 

      A & D

    • G. 

      B & C

    • H. 

      B & D

  • 16. 
    • A. 

      L4

    • B. 

      L5

    • C. 

      L6

    • D. 

      S1

  • 17. 
    Disc hernitation of L4/L5 damages
    • A. 

      L4 process

    • B. 

      L4 root

    • C. 

      L5 process

    • D. 

      L5 root

  • 18. 
    What is a key feature of a typical cervical vertebrae?
    • A. 

      Transverse foramen

    • B. 

      Transverse ridges

    • C. 

      Mamillary process

    • D. 

      Costal facets

  • 19. 
    What is a key feature of a typical thoracic vertebrae
    • A. 

      Transverse foramen

    • B. 

      Transverse ridges

    • C. 

      Mamillary process

    • D. 

      Costal facets

  • 20. 
    What is a key feature of a typical lumbar vertebrae
    • A. 

      Transverse foramen

    • B. 

      Transverse ridges

    • C. 

      Mamillary process

    • D. 

      Costal facets

  • 21. 
    • A. 

      Ligamentum nuchae

    • B. 

      Posterior atlanto-occipital

    • C. 

      Alar ligament

    • D. 

      Apical ligament

    • E. 

      Transverse ligament of atlas

  • 22. 
    Which cervical vertebrae are atypical?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

    • E. 

      5

    • F. 

      6

    • G. 

      7

  • 23. 
    Which are characteristics of the Atlas?
    • A. 

      2 lateral masses connected to 2 arches: ring like

    • B. 

      Very long spinous process, not bifid; Transverse formamen is smallest

    • C. 

      A pair of demi facets

    • D. 

      Dens with its ligaments; Transverse processes are the smallest

  • 24. 
    Which are characteristics of the Axis?
    • A. 

      2 lateral masses connected to 2 arches: ring like

    • B. 

      Very long spinous process, not bifid; Transverse formamen is smallest

    • C. 

      A pair of demi facets

    • D. 

      Dens with its ligaments; Transverse processes are the smallest

  • 25. 
    • A. 

      Cervical region

    • B. 

      Thoracic region

    • C. 

      Lumbar region

    • D. 

      At the thickest part of the IVD

  • 26. 
    In an automobile accident, a man has an undisplaced fracture of the dens with rupture of the ligaments attached to it: yet could move all 4 limbs and had function of his diaphragm. Which is the anatomical basis of this surprising presentation?
    • A. 

      Ligamentum nuchae is not attached to the dens and prevents certain movement of the atlas via attachment to the occipital bone and posterior axis

    • B. 

      Alar ligaments are not attached to the dens and prevents certain movement of the atlas via attachment to the occipital bone and posterior axis

    • C. 

      Transverse ligament of the atlas is not attached to the dens and prevents certain movement of the atlas via attachment to the occipital bone and posterior axis

    • D. 

      Anterior Longitudinal ligament is not attached to the dens and prevents certain movement of the atlas

  • 27. 
    If the transverse ligament of the atlas had been ruptured with the other ligaments in the previous example what would you expect?
    • A. 

      Damage to the medulla oblongata

    • B. 

      Damage to the spinal cord

    • C. 

      Death

    • D. 

      Quadriplegia

    • E. 

      Possibility of all the above

  • 28. 
    What does NOT travel through the transverse foramen of typical cervical vertebra?
    • A. 

      Vertebral artery

    • B. 

      Vertebral vein

    • C. 

      Supportive ligaments

    • D. 

      Plexus of sympathetic nerves

  • 29. 
    What is the most important feature of the thoracic vertebra?
    • A. 

      Long spinous process

    • B. 

      Large transverse process

    • C. 

      Heart-shaped body

    • D. 

      Costal facets

  • 30. 
    • A. 

      Absence of transverse foramen

    • B. 

      Mamillary process

    • C. 

      Accessory process

    • D. 

      Heart-shaped body

  • 31. 
    Which is an important clinical feature of the Sacrum?
    • A. 

      Sacral hiatus

    • B. 

      Transverse ridges

    • C. 

      Sacral foramina

    • D. 

      Sacral cornua

  • 32. 
    Sacral hiatus is foremed by:
    • A. 

      Space between the Sacral and Coccyx

    • B. 

      Absence of pedicles in S2 and S3

    • C. 

      Sacral foramen creating a posterior opening

    • D. 

      Absence of laminae and spinous process of S4 and S5

  • 33. 
    Sacral cornua is:
    • A. 

      Inferior articular processes of S5

    • B. 

      Transverse processes on sacral vertebra

    • C. 

      Superior articular processes of S1

    • D. 

      Spinous process of S5

  • 34. 
    The thinnest part of IVDs is:
    • A. 

      Anterior annulus fibrosus

    • B. 

      Posterior annulus fibrosus

    • C. 

      Anterior nucleus pulposus

    • D. 

      Posterior nucleus pulposus

  • 35. 
    The clinical significance of the lamellae of the annuli fibrosis becoming thinner and less numerous posteriorly is:
    • A. 

      Possibility for prolapse

    • B. 

      Irritation of the vertebral bodies rubbing against each other

    • C. 

      Slip discs wouldn’t occur if it wasn’t for this

    • D. 

      Creates a space to access CSF

  • 36. 
    Zygapophyseal are:
    • A. 

      Joints of the vertebral arches

    • B. 

      Cartilagenous joints

    • C. 

      Innervated by ventral primary rami

    • D. 

      Joints the allow the spinal cord to move in any direction

  • 37. 
    Which is a craniovertebral joint?
    • A. 

      Lushka

    • B. 

      Atlanto Axial

    • C. 

      Zygapophyseal

    • D. 

      Uncovertebral

  • 38. 
    Which is NOT a feature of Craniovertebral joints:
    • A. 

      Synovial joints with no IVDs

    • B. 

      Permit flexion, extention and lateral flexion

    • C. 

      There are 2

    • D. 

      Also called Facet Joints

  • 39. 
    Mobility of the vertebral column is affected by:
    • A. 

      Elasticity and compressibility of the IVDs

    • B. 

      Shape of zygapophyseal joints

    • C. 

      Direction of zygapophyseal joint

    • D. 

      Resistance of ligaments and muscles

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 40. 
    After a physical examination convinced the physician that he was dealing with a case of meningitis, she decided to do a spinal tap to confirm her diagnosis. Which of the following ligaments would she have to breach on her way to the subarachnoid space?
    • A. 

      Ligamentum nuchae

    • B. 

      Ligamentum flavum

    • C. 

      Anterior longitudinal ligament

    • D. 

      Posterior longitudinal ligament

    • E. 

      Supraspinous ligament

    • F. 

      Interspinous ligament

  • 41. 
    Anterior Longitudinal ligament is located:
    • A. 

      Anterior part of the vertebral foramen

    • B. 

      Along the Anterior surface of all the vertebra bodies

    • C. 

      Posterior part of the vertebral foramen

    • D. 

      Anterior to the Dens

  • 42. 
    Where is the ligament flava attached?
    • A. 

      Transverse processes of adjacent vertebrae

    • B. 

      Articular processes of adjacent vertebrae

    • C. 

      Laminae of adjacent vertebrae

    • D. 

      Pedicles of adjacent vertebrae

  • 43. 
    If a metastatic spreads to the 4th lumbar intervertebral foramen, what spinal nerve is it likely to affect?
    • A. 

      L4

    • B. 

      L5

    • C. 

      S1

    • D. 

      S2

  • 44. 
    A postero-laeral protrusion of the intervertebral disc between L4 and L5 vertebrae is likely to affect which spinal nerve?
    • A. 

      L4

    • B. 

      L5

    • C. 

      S1

    • D. 

      S2

  • 45. 
    In a rear-end automobile collision, an automobile driver sustained a whiplash injury. Which of the following cervical vertebrae served as the fulcrum of the whiplash?
    • A. 

      C2

    • B. 

      C3

    • C. 

      C4

    • D. 

      C5

  • 46. 
    Which ligament is likely to rupture in a hyperextension injury?
    • A. 

      Ligamentum nuchae

    • B. 

      Ligamentum Flava

    • C. 

      Anterior Longitudinal Ligament

    • D. 

      Posterior Longitudinal Ligament

  • 47. 
    • A. 

      Hyperextension

    • B. 

      Hyperflexion

    • C. 

      Rotation

    • D. 

      Lateral bending

  • 48. 
    Burst Fracture of C1 is known as:
    • A. 

      Jefferson Fracture

    • B. 

      Hangman’s Fracture

    • C. 

      Axis Fracture

    • D. 

      Atlas Fracture

  • 49. 
    As a form of capital punishment, a certain leader was hanged in the gallows until he died. Which of the following cervical vertebral parts was fractured in the process?
    • A. 

      Arches of the atlas

    • B. 

      Dens of axis

    • C. 

      Pedicles of Axis

    • D. 

      Laminae of C7

  • 50. 
    What is a stress fracture of L5 laminae or articular processes called?
    • A. 

      Jefferson Fracture

    • B. 

      Hangman’s Fracture

    • C. 

      Spondyolysis

    • D. 

      Lumber Fracture

  • 51. 
    What neural structures pass through the posterior sacral foramina?
    • A. 

      Sacreal Plexus

    • B. 

      Lumbosacreal root

    • C. 

      Superior and inferior gluteal nerves

    • D. 

      Femoral and Sciatic nerves

  • 52. 
    Where is the vertebral venous plexus?
    • A. 

      Within the vertebral canal

    • B. 

      In front of the bodies of the vertebrae

    • C. 

      On the posterior surfaces of the vertebral arches and their processes

    • D. 

      Epidural Space

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 53. 
    Which Region has spinal nerves emerging superior to their corresponding vertebrae?
    • A. 

      Cervical

    • B. 

      Thoracic

    • C. 

      Lumbar

    • D. 

      Sacral

  • 54. 
    In order to investigate a patient with most features of meningitis, a physician decides to perform a lumbar puncture to withdraw CSF from …… space
    • A. 

      Epidural

    • B. 

      Subdural

    • C. 

      Subarachnoid

    • D. 

      Subpial

  • 55. 
    In a caudal epidural anesthesia, the needle is inserted into which one of the following spaces of the vertebral structure?
    • A. 

      Epidural

    • B. 

      Subdural

    • C. 

      Subarachnoid

    • D. 

      Subpial

  • 56. 
    Which is lateral deviation of the spine?
    • A. 

      Kyphosis

    • B. 

      Lordosis

    • C. 

      Scoliosis

  • 57. 
    What direction does an IVD normally prolapse?
    • A. 

      Anteriorly

    • B. 

      Posteriorly

    • C. 

      Laterally

    • D. 

      Medially

    • E. 

      Anteriolaterally

    • F. 

      Posterolaterally

    • G. 

      Anteromedially

    • H. 

      Posteromedially

  • 58. 
    Which vertebrae have a heart shaped body?
    • A. 

      Cervical

    • B. 

      Thoracic

    • C. 

      Lumbar

    • D. 

      Sacral

  • 59. 
    • A. 

      Cervical

    • B. 

      Thoracic

    • C. 

      Lumbar

    • D. 

      Sacral

  • 60. 
    Which ligament is the "lifesaver"?
    • A. 

      Ligamentum flavum

    • B. 

      Ligamentum nuchae

    • C. 

      Interspinous ligament

    • D. 

      Anterior longitudinal ligament

    • E. 

      Transverse ligament of the atlas