Can You Pass This CDCs 7 Level Vol 3 Quiz?

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7 level vol 3 cdcs. You must posses a 95% or better to pass this quiz.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What information on a map is much like the instruction book that comes with a piece of equpiment?

    • A.

      Topographical

    • B.

      Geographical

    • C.

      Marginal

    • D.

      Index

    Correct Answer
    C. Marginal
    Explanation
    The information on a map that is much like the instruction book that comes with a piece of equipment is called marginal information. Marginal information provides additional details and explanations about the map, such as symbols, scales, legends, and other important information. It acts as a guide or reference, similar to an instruction book, helping users understand and interpret the map accurately.

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  • 2. 

    Which color, fond on a map, represents man made features?

    • A.

      Yellow

    • B.

      Green

    • C.

      Orange

    • D.

      Black

    Correct Answer
    D. Black
    Explanation
    Black is the color that represents man-made features on a map. Man-made features typically include roads, buildings, and other structures that are created by humans. These features are often depicted in black on maps to distinguish them from natural features such as rivers, forests, and mountains. The use of black helps to provide clarity and make it easier for map readers to identify and interpret man-made features on a map.

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  • 3. 

    Ona map, what is represented by a solid blue line with a thin black line as the bank?

    • A.

      A river

    • B.

      A lake

    • C.

      A stream

    • D.

      A dry pond

    Correct Answer
    A. A river
    Explanation
    A solid blue line on a map typically represents a body of water, and the thin black line next to it signifies the bank of that body of water. Therefore, the solid blue line with a thin black line as the bank is most likely representing a river.

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  • 4. 

    If a map shows contour lines on the opposite side of a hill so close that they almost appear as a single line, thse lines deonte a

    • A.

      Small ridge or plateau

    • B.

      Vertical/near vertical clliff

    • C.

      Small hill with a gentle slope

    • D.

      Depression in the terrain

    Correct Answer
    B. Vertical/near vertical clliff
    Explanation
    The contour lines on the opposite side of a hill that appear as a single line indicate a vertical or near vertical cliff. This means that there is a steep drop in elevation on that side of the hill, resulting in a cliff-like feature. The contour lines being close together and almost merging into one line suggest a drastic change in elevation, indicating a steep slope rather than a gentle one. Therefore, the correct answer is a vertical/near vertical cliff.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is not one of the three types of contour lines on a defense mapping agency map?

    • A.

      Supplementary

    • B.

      Intermediate

    • C.

      Secondary

    • D.

      Index

    Correct Answer
    C. Secondary
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "secondary". On a defense mapping agency map, the three types of contour lines are supplementary, intermediate, and index. "Secondary" is not one of the types of contour lines on this map.

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  • 6. 

    Which major terrain feature is a dip or low point between two areas of higher ground?

    • A.

      Depression

    • B.

      Ridge

    • C.

      Valley

    • D.

      Saddle

    Correct Answer
    D. Saddle
    Explanation
    A saddle is a major terrain feature that refers to a dip or low point between two areas of higher ground. It is often shaped like a saddle on a horse's back, with higher elevations on either side and a lower point in the middle. Saddle formations can be found in mountain ranges and are commonly used as passageways or routes between two higher areas. They are distinct from valleys, which are typically longer and deeper, and ridges, which are elevated areas. Thus, the correct answer is saddle.

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  • 7. 

    A short, continuouus sloping line of higher ground, normally jutting out from the side of a ridge is called a

    • A.

      Spur

    • B.

      Hill

    • C.

      Cliff

    • D.

      Slope

    Correct Answer
    A. Spur
    Explanation
    A spur is a short, continuous sloping line of higher ground that juts out from the side of a ridge. It is a landform feature that is commonly found in hilly or mountainous regions. Spur formations occur due to erosion and the natural shaping of the landscape over time. They often provide scenic viewpoints and can also serve as natural barriers or boundaries.

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  • 8. 

    What are the two other grid systems that are used as the basis for the military gid reference system?

    • A.

      The universal traveling map and the universal plotting scheme

    • B.

      The universal transverse mercatorand the universal polar sterographic

    • C.

      The unit transverse mercator and the unit polar sterographic

    • D.

      The universal transit mercator and the universal polarity sterographic

    Correct Answer
    B. The universal transverse mercatorand the universal polar sterographic
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the universal transverse mercator and the universal polar sterographic. These two grid systems are used as the basis for the military grid reference system. The universal transverse mercator system is used for mapping areas between 80 degrees south latitude and 84 degrees north latitude, while the universal polar sterographic system is used for mapping areas near the North and South Poles. These grid systems provide a standardized method for locating points on a map, which is crucial for military operations and navigation.

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  • 9. 

    Plotting a six digit grid coordinate will get you within how many meters of the point you wish to identify?

    • A.

      1000

    • B.

      100

    • C.

      10

    • D.

      1

    Correct Answer
    B. 100
    Explanation
    Plotting a six-digit grid coordinate will get you within 100 meters of the point you wish to identify. This means that if you have a grid coordinate with six digits, you can determine the location with an accuracy of 100 meters.

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  • 10. 

    In land navigation, which north is your starting point or baseline.

    • A.

      Geographic

    • B.

      Magnetic

    • C.

      Polar

    • D.

      True

    Correct Answer
    D. True
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "true." In land navigation, the starting point or baseline for determining north is the true north. True north is the direction towards the North Pole, and it is determined by the Earth's axis of rotation. It is different from magnetic north, which is the direction towards the magnetic North Pole and can vary depending on the location and magnetic field. Similarly, geographic north refers to the north as indicated on maps, while polar north refers to the north pole of a celestial body.

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  • 11. 

    What is an azimuth?

    • A.

      A vertcal angle measured clockwise from true north, magnetic north, or grid north

    • B.

      A horizontal angle measured counterclockwise from true north, magnetic north

    • C.

      A horizontal angle measured clockwise from true north, magnetic north, or grid north

    • D.

      A vertical angle measured counterclockwise from magnetic north or grid north

    Correct Answer
    D. A vertical angle measured counterclockwise from magnetic north or grid north
    Explanation
    An azimuth is a horizontal angle measured clockwise from true north, magnetic north, or grid north.

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  • 12. 

    How do you vonvert a grid azimuth to a magnetic azimuth?

    • A.

      Subtract the 3.5 degrees from your azimuth

    • B.

      Add the 3.5 degree grid magnet angle to the azimuth

    • C.

      Subtract 3.5 derees from your back azimuth

    • D.

      Subtract the 5.5 degrees from your azimuth

    Correct Answer
    A. Subtract the 3.5 degrees from your azimuth
    Explanation
    To convert a grid azimuth to a magnetic azimuth, you need to subtract the 3.5 degrees from your azimuth. This is because the grid azimuth is based on the grid north, while the magnetic azimuth is based on the magnetic north. The 3.5 degrees represents the difference between the two norths, so subtracting it aligns the grid azimuth with the magnetic azimuth.

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  • 13. 

    What is the most important thing to look for when inspecting your lensatic compass>

    • A.

      There is no dirt in the dial

    • B.

      The numbers are easy to read

    • C.

      The arrows can be seen at night

    • D.

      The dial or arrow moves freely

    Correct Answer
    D. The dial or arrow moves freely
    Explanation
    The most important thing to look for when inspecting your lensatic compass is that the dial or arrow moves freely. This is crucial because if the dial or arrow is stuck or does not move smoothly, it can lead to inaccurate readings and navigation errors. A compass with a freely moving dial or arrow ensures that you can easily rotate it and align it with the desired direction, providing accurate and reliable navigation information.

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  • 14. 

    Which method of movement give you the lowest silhouette?

    • A.

      High crawl

    • B.

      Low crawl

    • C.

      Rush

    • D.

      Roll

    Correct Answer
    B. Low crawl
    Explanation
    The low crawl method of movement gives you the lowest silhouette. This means that when you are low crawling, your body is closest to the ground, minimizing your visibility and making it harder for the enemy to spot you. This method involves crawling on your stomach with your elbows and knees on the ground, keeping your body as flat as possible. By staying low to the ground, you decrease the chances of being seen and increase your chances of remaining undetected.

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  • 15. 

    Which movement technique requires a great deal of patience?

    • A.

      Low crawl

    • B.

      Moving at night

    • C.

      Moving with stealth

    • D.

      Moving with precision

    Correct Answer
    C. Moving with stealth
    Explanation
    Moving with stealth requires a great deal of patience because it involves moving slowly and quietly to avoid being detected. This technique requires careful attention to detail and the ability to control one's movements, making it necessary to exercise patience in order to remain undetected.

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  • 16. 

    Whien writing paragraph 2 mission in the operations order, how often do you state the mission?

    • A.

      One time

    • B.

      Two times

    • C.

      Three times

    • D.

      Four times

    Correct Answer
    B. Two times
    Explanation
    In paragraph 2 of the operations order, the mission is stated twice. This repetition helps ensure that all members of the team fully understand and remember the mission. By restating the mission, it allows for clarity and reinforces the objective that needs to be accomplished. This redundancy helps to minimize any confusion or misinterpretation among team members, ensuring that everyone is on the same page and working towards the same goal.

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  • 17. 

    In paragraph 3 execution of the operations order, how should you write the concept of operation?

    • A.

      Detailed and understandable and describe how the unit will finish its mission

    • B.

      Concise and understandable and describe, in gerneral terms, how the unit will accomplish its mission

    • C.

      Concse describe, in general terms, how the unit will accomplish its mission from start to finish

    • D.

      Concise and understandable and describe, in general terms, how the unit will accomplish its mission from the start to finish

    Correct Answer
    D. Concise and understandable and describe, in general terms, how the unit will accomplish its mission from the start to finish
    Explanation
    The concept of operation should be written in a concise and understandable manner, describing in general terms how the unit will accomplish its mission from start to finish. This means that the concept should be clear and easy to comprehend, providing a general overview of the unit's plan to achieve its objectives. It should not be overly detailed or complicated, but still provide enough information to give a clear understanding of the unit's intended actions and goals.

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  • 18. 

    In which paragraph of the operations order is the mechanics of the operations addressed in detail?

    • A.

      Execution

    • B.

      Maneuver

    • C.

      Offensive

    • D.

      Defensive

    Correct Answer
    B. Maneuver
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "maneuver". In an operations order, the paragraph that addresses the mechanics of the operations in detail is the maneuver paragraph. This paragraph outlines the specific movements, actions, and tasks that need to be executed during the operation. It provides information on the routes, formations, coordination, and synchronization of the forces involved. The maneuver paragraph is crucial for ensuring that the operation is carried out effectively and efficiently.

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  • 19. 

    Which paragraph in the operations order addresses service and suppport, as needed, to clarify the service and support concept?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    D. 4
    Explanation
    Paragraph 4 in the operations order addresses service and support, as needed, to clarify the service and support concept.

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  • 20. 

    Whywould a leader issue a fragmentary orer?

    • A.

      To change an existing order

    • B.

      To order a fragmentary grenade

    • C.

      To advise personnel of a fragile operation

    • D.

      To indicate a change in the command sstructure of the unit

    Correct Answer
    A. To change an existing order
    Explanation
    A leader would issue a fragmentary order to change an existing order. This type of order is used when there is a need to modify or update a previously issued order. It allows the leader to communicate the necessary changes quickly and efficiently without having to issue a completely new order. By issuing a fragmentary order, the leader can ensure that all personnel are aware of the changes and can adapt their actions accordingly.

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  • 21. 

    Which presentation shows the control measures and key tettain in relation to each other as well as a large rough drawing of the objective areras?

    • A.

      Rough draft

    • B.

      Concept sketch

    • C.

      Operations overlay

    • D.

      Terrain scale model

    Correct Answer
    B. Concept sketch
    Explanation
    A concept sketch is a presentation that shows the control measures and key elements in relation to each other. It also includes a large rough drawing of the objective areas. This type of sketch is often used in the early stages of planning or design to visualize and communicate ideas. It helps to illustrate the overall concept and layout of the project, including the relationship between different elements and the overall scale and scope of the objective areas.

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  • 22. 

    Which element or team of the combat patrol provides direct fire suppport and may control indirect fires for the squad or flight?

    • A.

      Assault

    • B.

      Support

    • C.

      Breach

    • D.

      Demolition

    Correct Answer
    B. Support
    Explanation
    The support element or team of the combat patrol provides direct fire support and may control indirect fires for the squad or flight. They are responsible for providing covering fire and suppressing the enemy, allowing the assault element to maneuver and accomplish their objectives. They may also coordinate with artillery or other indirect fire assets to provide additional firepower when needed.

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  • 23. 

    Attacks on a position or installastion followed by a plan withdrawal, defines

    • A.

      An ambush

    • B.

      An assault

    • C.

      A hasty

    • D.

      A raid

    Correct Answer
    D. A raid
    Explanation
    A raid is an attack on a position or installation followed by a planned withdrawal. It involves a quick and surprise attack on the enemy, usually with the intention of causing damage or capturing something valuable, and then retreating before the enemy can mount a counterattack. This strategy is often used to disrupt enemy operations, gather intelligence, or seize important resources.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is not a type of reconnaissance patrol?

    • A.

      Area

    • B.

      Silent

    • C.

      Zone

    • D.

      Route

    Correct Answer
    B. Silent
    Explanation
    A silent patrol is not a type of reconnaissance patrol because reconnaissance patrols are typically conducted to gather information about the enemy's activities, positions, and intentions. Silent patrols, on the other hand, focus on stealth and minimizing noise to avoid detection, rather than actively gathering information. Therefore, silent patrols do not serve the primary purpose of reconnaissance patrols, which is to gather intelligence.

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  • 25. 

    Which type of reconnaissance patrol is performed to obtain information on enemy, terrain, and routes within a specified zone?

    • A.

      Zone

    • B.

      Route

    • C.

      Area

    • D.

      Silent

    Correct Answer
    A. Zone
    Explanation
    A reconnaissance patrol performed to obtain information on enemy, terrain, and routes within a specified zone is called a zone reconnaissance patrol. This type of patrol focuses on gathering intelligence and data about a specific area or zone, including enemy positions, terrain features, and possible routes. It helps in understanding the enemy's capabilities, identifying potential obstacles or hazards, and determining suitable routes for future operations.

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  • 26. 

    When leading a reconnaissance patrol, what technique positions surveillance teams in locations where they can collectively observe the entire zone long term, continuously gathering information?

    • A.

      Multiple area reconnaissance

    • B.

      Successive sectore method

    • C.

      Converging routes method

    • D.

      Stationary teams

    Correct Answer
    D. Stationary teams
    Explanation
    The correct answer is stationary teams. When leading a reconnaissance patrol, positioning surveillance teams in locations where they can collectively observe the entire zone long term and continuously gather information is done by using stationary teams. This technique allows for a more thorough and consistent monitoring of the area, ensuring that valuable information is gathered over an extended period of time.

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  • 27. 

    Before attempting to maneuver, when employing fire and maneuver techniques, units must establish a base

    • A.

      Of fire

    • B.

      Support plan

    • C.

      Camp retrograde

    • D.

      Deflection maneuver

    Correct Answer
    A. Of fire
    Explanation
    When employing fire and maneuver techniques, units must establish a base of fire. This means that before attempting any maneuver, they need to establish a position from which they can provide suppressive fire and support to their advancing units. The base of fire acts as a protective and supportive element, allowing the maneuvering units to advance effectively and safely towards their objective. Without a base of fire, the maneuvering units would be exposed and vulnerable to enemy fire.

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  • 28. 

    In fireand mneuver operations, from where does most of the maneuvering forcces fire support come?

    • A.

      Mortars, MK19s, and M2. 50 calibers

    • B.

      Your support team weapons

    • C.

      Fire and meneuver elements

    • D.

      Your team's own weapons

    Correct Answer
    D. Your team's own weapons
    Explanation
    In fire and maneuver operations, the majority of the maneuvering forces' fire support comes from their own weapons. This means that the team relies on the firepower and capabilities of the weapons they possess within their own unit to provide support during the operation. This could include rifles, machine guns, grenades, or any other weapons that the team members carry and utilize.

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  • 29. 

    Why do squads use formations?

    • A.

      For control flexibility and security

    • B.

      Flexibility and movement

    • C.

      Flexibility only

    • D.

      For control only

    Correct Answer
    A. For control flexibility and security
    Explanation
    Squads use formations for control, flexibility, and security. By adopting specific formations, squads can effectively control their movements and actions on the battlefield. Formations provide a structured approach that allows for better coordination and communication among squad members. Additionally, formations offer flexibility, enabling squads to adapt to different situations and respond to changing circumstances. Lastly, formations also enhance security by ensuring that squad members are positioned strategically to protect themselves and their teammates from potential threats.

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  • 30. 

    The basic formation for the fire team is the

    • A.

      File

    • B.

      Wedge

    • C.

      Squad file

    • D.

      Squad line

    Correct Answer
    B. Wedge
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "wedge" because it is the basic formation for a fire team. In this formation, the team members are arranged in a triangular shape, with the team leader at the front point and the other members fanning out behind in a V-shape. This formation provides good visibility and allows for quick movement and flexibility in different terrains. It also enables effective communication and coordination among team members.

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  • 31. 

    Which squad formation provides maximum firepower to the front?

    • A.

      Column

    • B.

      Wedge

    • C.

      Line

    • D.

      File

    Correct Answer
    C. Line
    Explanation
    A line formation provides maximum firepower to the front because it allows all members of the squad to engage the enemy simultaneously. In a line formation, soldiers are positioned side by side, creating a long and narrow formation. This formation ensures that all soldiers have a clear line of sight and can concentrate their fire on the enemy in front of them. It also allows for better coordination and communication among squad members, as they are all in close proximity to each other.

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  • 32. 

    When contact is possible, what movement technique should you choose for your squad?

    • A.

      Bounding overwatch

    • B.

      Traveling overwatch

    • C.

      Traverse overwatch

    • D.

      Leap frog movements

    Correct Answer
    B. Traveling overwatch
    Explanation
    When contact is possible, the movement technique that should be chosen for the squad is traveling overwatch. This technique involves one element of the squad moving while the other provides overwatch and covers their movement. It allows for continuous movement while maintaining security and minimizing the risk of surprise attacks.

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  • 33. 

    Which bounding method is easier to control?

    • A.

      Alternate

    • B.

      Successive

    • C.

      Progressive

    • D.

      Leap frog

    Correct Answer
    B. Successive
    Explanation
    Successive bounding method is easier to control because it involves making incremental adjustments or refinements in each step, allowing for better monitoring and adjustment of the bounding process. This method ensures that each bounding interval is closer to the final result, making it easier to track and control the overall progress. On the other hand, alternate, progressive, and leap frog bounding methods may involve larger jumps or alternate approaches, making it more difficult to maintain control and accuracy throughout the process.

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  • 34. 

    Which movement techniques are combined to cross an area so large the squad cannot bypass it ue to the time required to accomplish the mission?

    • A.

      Overwatch and bounding overwatch

    • B.

      Traveling overwatch and traversing overwatch

    • C.

      Traveling overwatch and bounding overwatch

    • D.

      Traversing overwatch and bounding overwatch

    Correct Answer
    C. Traveling overwatch and bounding overwatch
    Explanation
    Traveling overwatch and bounding overwatch are combined movement techniques used to cross a large area when the squad cannot bypass it due to time constraints. Traveling overwatch involves one team moving while the other provides security from a stationary position. Bounding overwatch involves one team moving forward while the other team provides security by leapfrogging ahead. By combining these techniques, the squad can effectively move across the area while maintaining security and accomplishing their mission in a timely manner.

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  • 35. 

    You and your squad have come across a small open area to cross. you decide to use a series of 90-degree turns to the right or left so the squad moves around the open area until the far side is reach, then continue the mission. which movement method did you elect to use?

    • A.

      Night walking

    • B.

      Detour bypass method

    • C.

      Contact danger method

    • D.

      Contouring around the open area

    Correct Answer
    B. Detour bypass method
    Explanation
    The correct answer is detour bypass method. This method involves using a series of 90-degree turns to the right or left to navigate around the open area and reach the far side. By taking this detour, the squad avoids directly crossing the open area and reduces the risk of being exposed or detected by potential threats. This method allows them to maintain their mission objective while minimizing the chances of encountering danger.

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  • 36. 

    At squad level, which teams normally provide flank security as well as fires into the kill zone?

    • A.

      The security elements

    • B.

      The outside buddy teams

    • C.

      The inside buddy teams

    • D.

      Th ambush reserve teams

    Correct Answer
    B. The outside buddy teams
    Explanation
    The outside buddy teams are the ones that normally provide flank security as well as fires into the kill zone at the squad level. They are responsible for protecting the flanks of the squad and ensuring that no enemy forces can approach from the sides. Additionally, they provide suppressive fire into the kill zone to neutralize any threats and support the squad's offensive actions.

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  • 37. 

    A deliberate ambush is conducted when your team

    • A.

      Has specific target and a perdetermined location

    • B.

      Deploys to attack a enemy in a single kill zone

    • C.

      Deploys in two or more related point ambushes

    • D.

      Makes visual contact with an enemy force and has time to establish an ambush

    Correct Answer
    A. Has specific target and a perdetermined location
    Explanation
    In a deliberate ambush, the team has a specific target and a predetermined location. This means that they have identified a specific enemy target and have planned the ambush in advance, including choosing a specific location to carry it out. This shows that the team has prepared and strategized for the ambush, indicating a deliberate and planned attack rather than a spontaneous or reactive one.

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  • 38. 

    Which ambush uses limiting stakes to prevent frindly fires from  hitting the assault element?

    • A.

      Point

    • B.

      Lenear

    • C.

      I-shaped

    • D.

      L-shaped

    Correct Answer
    A. Point
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "point". In an ambush, the use of limiting stakes helps to prevent friendly fires from hitting the assault element. These stakes are strategically placed to create a clear line of fire for the attacking force while minimizing the risk of hitting friendly troops. By using point stakes, the assault element can move forward without the fear of being accidentally targeted by their own forces. This tactic helps to maintain the element of surprise and increases the effectiveness of the ambush.

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  • 39. 

    If there is any return fire once the assault element begins to search, they must be prepared to move across the kill one using which movement technique?

    • A.

      Individual

    • B.

      Fire team

    • C.

      Teams organized

    • D.

      Bounding fire team

    Correct Answer
    A. Individual
    Explanation
    Once the assault element begins to search and encounters return fire, they must be prepared to move across the kill zone using the individual movement technique. This means that each member of the assault element will move independently, taking advantage of available cover and concealment, to advance towards the enemy position. This technique allows for flexibility and reduces the risk of multiple casualties in case of enemy fire.

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  • 40. 

    Normally, how does a team withdraw from an ambush site?

    • A.

      In the reverse order that they establised their positions

    • B.

      In the order that they established their positions

    • C.

      Two at a time so one can cover the other

    • D.

      Simultaneously

    Correct Answer
    A. In the reverse order that they establised their positions
    Explanation
    When a team withdraws from an ambush site, they usually do so in the reverse order that they established their positions. This means that the team members who were positioned last will be the first to withdraw, followed by the others in the order that they initially took their positions. This method allows for a systematic and organized withdrawal, ensuring that all team members are accounted for and that there is continuous cover and protection during the retreat.

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  • 41. 

    What does a delay in an economy of force operation create to allow other actions to take place?

    • A.

      Space

    • B.

      Area

    • C.

      Time

    • D.

      Opportunity

    Correct Answer
    C. Time
    Explanation
    A delay in an economy of force operation creates time for other actions to take place. By delaying the operation, it allows for additional planning, preparation, or coordination of resources and personnel. This extra time can be used to gather more information, assess the situation, or strategize alternative approaches. Ultimately, the delay provides an opportunity to optimize the effectiveness and efficiency of subsequent actions.

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  • 42. 

    What are the two types of withdrawals?

    • A.

      Fast and slow

    • B.

      Aid and unaided

    • C.

      Assisted and unassisted

    • D.

      Forward and backward

    Correct Answer
    C. Assisted and unassisted
    Explanation
    The correct answer is assisted and unassisted. Assisted withdrawals refer to the act of withdrawing with the help or support of someone or something, while unassisted withdrawals refer to the act of withdrawing without any assistance. These terms are commonly used in various contexts such as sports, banking, and healthcare, where the level of support or assistance during a withdrawal process is important to consider.

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  • 43. 

    Which is not a method of disengaging from the enemy?

    • A.

      Under enemy pressure

    • B.

      Thinning the lines

    • C.

      Fire teams

    • D.

      By squads

    Correct Answer
    A. Under enemy pressure
    Explanation
    Disengaging from the enemy under enemy pressure is not a method because it implies that the disengagement is happening while the enemy is actively pressuring and engaging the individual or group. Disengaging under enemy pressure would be extremely difficult and risky, as the enemy would likely continue to pursue and attack. Therefore, it is not a viable method for disengagement.

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  • 44. 

    Which S-function is responsible for personnel management and development and maintenance of morale?

    • A.

      S-1

    • B.

      S-2

    • C.

      S-3

    • D.

      S-4

    Correct Answer
    A. S-1
    Explanation
    S-1 is responsible for personnel management and development and maintenance of morale. This suggests that S-1 is a specific function or role within an organization that focuses on managing personnel and ensuring their development and well-being. It is likely that S-1 is involved in tasks such as recruitment, training, performance evaluation, and employee engagement initiatives to maintain a positive work environment and boost morale among the workforce.

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  • 45. 

    Which S-function gathers intelligence for air base defense force operations; predicts effects of nuclear, biological, and chemical attacks; and relays weather information?

    • A.

      S-4

    • B.

      S-3

    • C.

      S-2

    • D.

      S-1

    Correct Answer
    C. S-2
    Explanation
    The S-2 function is responsible for gathering intelligence for air base defense force operations, predicting the effects of nuclear, biological, and chemical attacks, and relaying weather information. It is likely that this function has the necessary resources and capabilities to perform these tasks efficiently and effectively.

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  • 46. 

    The S-4 is normally responsible for completing which paragraph of the squadron operations order?

    • A.

      Paragraph 4

    • B.

      Paragraph 3

    • C.

      Paragraph 2

    • D.

      Paragraph 1

    Correct Answer
    A. Paragraph 4
    Explanation
    The S-4, or Supply Officer, is typically responsible for completing paragraph 4 of the squadron operations order. This paragraph usually pertains to logistical matters, such as supply and equipment requirements, transportation, and maintenance. The S-4's role involves ensuring that the necessary resources are available for the squadron's operations, making paragraph 4 an appropriate section for their input.

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  • 47. 

    The base commander form the base defense operations center with

    • A.

      Personnel from the augmentation force

    • B.

      Personnel who are on temporary duty

    • C.

      Personnel from the S-function staff

    • D.

      Available base assets

    Correct Answer
    D. Available base assets
    Explanation
    The base commander forms the base defense operations center with personnel from the augmentation force, personnel who are on temporary duty, personnel from the S-function staff, and available base assets. This means that the base commander utilizes all the resources and assets that are currently present at the base to establish and operate the defense operations center.

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  • 48. 

    Who is the chief of the base defense operations center?

    • A.

      Commander, security forces

    • B.

      Commander, base defense force

    • C.

      Commander, area defense force

    • D.

      Commanderm joint response task force

    Correct Answer
    B. Commander, base defense force
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "commander, base defense force." This individual is responsible for overseeing and leading the base defense operations center, which is responsible for protecting the base and its personnel from potential threats. They coordinate with security forces and other defense units to ensure the safety and security of the base.

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  • 49. 

    The CIS is responsible for all plans, estimates, reports, and requests concerning ground combat intelligence. the S2 CIS is responsible fo all

    • A.

      ABD affecting the GCI force

    • B.

      Support and supply functions

    • C.

      GCI affecting the ABD force

    • D.

      Operational matters with the ABD force

    Correct Answer
    C. GCI affecting the ABD force
    Explanation
    The correct answer is GCI affecting the ABD force. This answer is supported by the given information that the CIS is responsible for all plans, estimates, reports, and requests concerning ground combat intelligence. Therefore, it can be inferred that the GCI (Ground Combat Intelligence) has an impact on the ABD (Airborne Division) force.

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  • 50. 

    What is EEI?

    • A.

      Essential elements of information

    • B.

      Essential evaluation information

    • C.

      Emergency enemy information

    • D.

      Enemy evaluation information

    Correct Answer
    A. Essential elements of information
    Explanation
    EEI stands for essential elements of information. These are key pieces of information that are crucial for decision-making and understanding a particular situation. These elements provide the necessary context and details required to analyze and assess a given scenario. They help in gathering and organizing relevant data, enabling effective planning, response, and decision-making processes. Therefore, the correct answer is "essential elements of information."

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 20, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Bradyk
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